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PPE and Infection Control Worksheet

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The correct order for donning PPE is:

a)

Mask → Gown → Gloves → Goggles

b)

Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves

c)

Gloves → Gown → Mask → Goggles

d)

Goggles → Gown → Mask → Gloves

2.

The main purpose of PPE in healthcare is to:

a)

Protect the patient from pathogens

b)

Prevent transmission of infection between patient and healthcare worker

c)

Improve professional appearance

d)

Reduce use of disinfectants

3.

Hand hygiene should be performed:

a)

Before donning gloves

b)

After removing gloves

c)

After touching the patient’s surroundings

d)

All of the above

4.

The most effective method of reducing hospital-acquired infections is:

a)

Use of sterile gloves

b)

Proper hand washing

c)

Isolation precautions

d)

Use of antibiotics

5.

A nurse removing PPE should always:

a)

Remove gloves first

b)

Remove mask first

c)

Remove gown before gloves

d)

Remove cap before gloves

6.

Contact precautions are indicated for:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Measles

c)

MRSA wound infection

d)

Influenza

7.

When handling a used needle, the nurse should:

a)

Recap before disposal

b)

Bend to avoid reuse

c)

Dispose directly in a puncture-proof container

d)

Remove from syringe before discarding

8.

The rationale for wearing eye protection is to:

a)

Reduce glare from bright lights

b)

Prevent exposure to splashes of blood or body fluids

c)

Improve visibility during surgery

d)

Keep the eyes sterile

9.

A patient requires 80 mL/kg/24 h of Ringer’s Lactate. For a 70 kg adult, the total volume is:

a)

4800 mL

b)

5600 mL

c)

3500 mL

d)

7000 mL

10.

If 2 L of Ringer’s Lactate is to be infused over 8 hours, the flow rate in mL/hr is:

a)

200 mL/hr

b)

250 mL/hr

c)

150 mL/hr

d)

300 mL/hr

11.

To infuse 1000 mL over 6 hours using a set that delivers 15 drops/mL, the flow rate in drops/min is:

a)

35

b)

42

c)

20

d)

25

12.

Ringer’s Lactate should be avoided in patients with:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Liver disease

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Lactic acidosis

13.

The main cation in Ringer’s Lactate is:

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Chloride

14.

Ringer’s Lactate is classified as a:

a)

Hypertonic solution

b)

Isotonic solution

c)

Hypotonic solution

d)

Colloid solution

15.

The foundation of a therapeutic relationship is:

a)

Empathy

b)

Sympathy

c)

Advice

d)

Authority

16.

When a nurse discloses personal issues to a patient, it primarily affects:

a)

Trust

b)

Boundaries

c)

Comfort

d)

Empathy

17.

The orientation phase of a therapeutic relationship involves:

a)

Termination

b)

Goal setting and role clarification

c)

Conflict resolution

d)

Reflection

18.

Active listening includes:

a)

Interrupting to clarify points

b)

Using silence and nonverbal cues

c)

Giving quick advice

d)

Avoiding eye contact

19.

Transference occurs when:

a)

A nurse transfers a patient to another ward

b)

A patient projects feelings toward the nurse based on past relationships

c)

A nurse changes shift

d)

The patient misunderstands instructions

20.

The termination phase of a therapeutic relationship focuses on:

a)

Building rapport

b)

Reviewing progress and planning follow-up

c)

Data collection

d)

Developing trust

21.

The nurse demonstrates unconditional positive regard when she:

a)

Agrees with the patient

b)

Accepts the patient without judgment

c)

Tells the patient what to do

d)

Avoids emotional connection

22.

Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by:

a)

Absence of P waves

b)

Irregular R–R intervals

c)

P waves preceding every QRS complex

d)

PR interval >0.20 s

23.

Sinus tachycardia is defined as:

a)

Heart rate < 60 bpm

b)

Heart rate > 100 bpm

c)

Heart rate between 60–100 bpm

d)

Heart rate between 40–60 bpm

24.

Atrial flutter typically shows:

a)

Saw-tooth flutter waves

b)

Flat baseline

c)

Irregular fibrillatory waves

d)

No discernible P waves

25.

The most likely cause of sinus tachycardia in a postoperative patient is:

a)

Beta-blocker use

b)

Pain or hypovolemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypothermia

26.

In sinus rhythm, the PR interval represents:

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

27.

Atrial flutter is distinguished from atrial fibrillation by:

a)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

b)

Distinct, organized atrial activity

c)

Absence of QRS complexes

d)

Variable ventricular rate

28.

A nurse identifies sinus bradycardia when the rate is:

a)

< 60 bpm

b)

70 bpm

c)

100 bpm

d)

> 120 bpm

29.

The main cause of angina pectoris is:

a)

Coronary artery spasm

b)

Myocardial oxygen demand exceeding supply

c)

Aortic regurgitation

d)

Heart block

30.

Stable angina occurs:

a)

Unpredictably at rest

b)

Predictably with exertion or stress

c)

During myocardial infarction

d)

Without any precipitating factor

31.

The drug used for acute relief of angina is:

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Atenolol

c)

Furosemide

d)

Digoxin

32.

Nursing care during an angina attack includes:

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Provide oxygen and rest

c)

Offer a full meal

d)

Administer IV fluids rapidly

33.

A nurse evaluates effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy when:

a)

Chest pain subsides

b)

Blood pressure rises

c)

Pulse increases

d)

Patient reports dizziness

34.

The correct sequence of blood flow is:

a)

Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle

b)

Left atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left ventricle

35.

Blood enters the right atrium through the:

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

Superior and inferior vena cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary artery

36.

The valve between the left atrium and ventricle is the:

a)

Tricuspid

b)

Aortic

c)

Mitral (bicuspid)

d)

Pulmonary

37.

Oxygenated blood leaves the heart via:

a)

Pulmonary vein

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Vena cava

38.

The right side of the heart pumps blood to:

a)

Systemic circulation

b)

Pulmonary circulation

c)

Coronary arteries

d)

Brain

39.

The pacemaker of the heart is the:

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

40.

The AV node delays conduction to allow:

a)

Ventricular filling

b)

Atrial contraction

c)

Repolarization

d)

Coronary perfusion

41.

The bundle branches transmit impulses to:

a)

Atria

b)

Ventricles

c)

SA node

d)

AV node

42.

Purkinje fibers are responsible for:

a)

Initiating depolarization

b)

Conducting impulses rapidly through ventricles

c)

Controlling atrial contraction

d)

Delaying AV conduction

43.

A nurse notes prolonged PR interval. This indicates:

a)

SA block

b)

AV block (first degree)

c)

Bundle branch block

d)

Atrial fibrillation

44.

The intrinsic rate of the SA node is approximately:

a)

20–40 bpm

b)

40–60 bpm

c)

60–100 bpm

d)

100–120 bpm

45.

The most common cause of mitral stenosis is:

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Endocarditis

46.

A key symptom of aortic regurgitation is:

a)

Bounding pulse

b)

Weak, thready pulse

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Bradycardia

47.

The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with valve disorder is:

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Decreased cardiac output

c)

Impaired mobility

d)

Deficient knowledge

48.

Preoperative nursing care for valve replacement includes:

a)

Encouraging ambulation

b)

Teaching about anticoagulant therapy

c)

Withholding all medications

d)

Avoiding patient education

49.

Postoperative monitoring after valve replacement focuses on:

a)

Fluid overload and arrhythmias

b)

Muscle tone

c)

Gastrointestinal function

d)

Skin pigmentation

50.

During the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse:

a)

Collects data

b)

Analyzes problems

c)

Determines if goals were achieved

d)

Develops a plan of care