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Patho Final (1-100)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The four stages of nociception include all EXCEPT: ________

a)

Transduction

b)

Transmission

c)

Perception

d)

Modulation

e)

Termination

2.

Transduction in pain physiology refers to: ________

a)

the process of converting painful stimuli to neuronal action potentials at the sensory receptor.

b)

the transmission of action potentials along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord.

c)

the perception of pain in the brain.

d)

the modulation of pain signals in the spinal cord.

3.

3. Cyclooxygenase inhibitors block the production of: ________

a)

insulin

b)

dopamine

c)

prostaglandin

d)

histamine

4.

4. Aδ fibers transmit pain that is: ________

a)

Dull, aching and slow

b)

Sharp, Stinging, Cutting, Pinching

c)

Diffuse, burning, and persistent

d)

Throbbing, radiating, and chronic

5.

C fibers are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: ________

a)

They are myelinated

b)

They are unmyelinated 90%

c)

Polymodal stimuli (mechanical,

thermal, chemical)

d)

Slower traveling, 0.6–2 m/sec

e)

Dull, burning, aching

6.

Widening the pain gate via Aβ fiber stimulation is basis of: ________

a)

Pattern Theory

b)

Specificity Theory

c)

Intensity Theory

d)

Gate Control Theory

7.

Wind-up phenomenon is due to: ________

a)

Inhibition of A-delta fibers in the spinal cord

b)

Decreased neurotransmitter release at the synapse

c)

excessive or repeated stimulation of C fibers leading to sensitization of spinal cord neurons through glutamate and NMDA receptor activity, painful

d)

Blockade of NMDA receptors in the brain

8.

8. Pain from C fibers travels mainly in the: ________

a)

Paleospinothalamic tract

b)

Neospinothalamic tract

c)

Dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway

d)

Corticospinal tract

9.

9. Periaqueductal gray mediates analgesia via: ________ (Select all that apply)

a)

Dopamine release stimulating motor cortex

b)

release of endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)

c)

serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is the neurotransmitter that conveys analgesic signal from PAG area to the raphe magnus

d)

Acetylcholine release activating pain fibers

10.

α2-adrenergic agonists like clonidine reduce pain by: ________ (select al that apply)

a)

Increasing serotonin release in the periphery

b)

Blocking NMDA receptors in the spinal cord

c)

Mimicking norepinephrine in descending pain pathways → analgesia

d)

Blocking sympathetically mediated pain transmission when given epidurally

11.

11. Endorphins are: ________

a)

endogenous opioids that are produced within the CNS and released in response to stressors, exercise, certain foods (most notably chocolate), laughter, and from massage or acupuncture

b)

A type of neurotransmitter that increases blood pressure

c)

Hormones responsible for regulating blood sugar levels

d)

Enzymes that break down carbohydrates in the digestive system

12.

Ergotamine is contraindicated in patients with: ________

a)

Epilepsy, Parkinson's disease, glaucoma, cataract

b)

Diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, anemia, asthma

c)

Migraine without aura, tension headache, cluster headache, sinusitis

d)

Cardiovascular disease and pregnancy

13.

Rebound headache may result from overuse of: ________

a)

Antibiotics; may cause allergic reactions' not associated with headaches

b)

Abuse/addictive potential; may cause sedation; rebound headache with frequent use; withdrawal potential

c)

Antacids; may cause gastrointestinal upset; not linked to headache

d)

Antihypertensives; may cause dizziness; not related to headache

14.

Chronic pain is pain lasting longer than: ________

a)

more than 6 months

b)

more than 1 week

c)

more than 1 month

d)

more than 1 year

15.

Neuropathic pain arises from: (select all that apply) ________

a)

Lesions or disease of the somatosensory nervous system

b)

Peripheral or central nerve injury/dysfunction

c)

Tumor growth / metastasis, Radiation therapy

d)

Elevated blood glucose (diabetes),   Viral infection

e)

Surgery, Trauma

16.

Diabetic neuropathy pain often worsens at: ________

a)

Pain is frequently worse at night

b)

Pain is frequently worse after meals

c)

Pain is frequently worse in the early morning

d)

Pain is frequently worse after exercise

17.

Postherpetic neuralgia is defined as pain lasting > ________

a)

for less than a week after shingles

b)

only during the rash phase of shingles

c)

More than 8 weeks after the onset of skin lesions

d)

only when blisters are present

18.

Shingles rash follows a: ________

a)

A rash that spreads randomly across the body with no specific pattern

b)

by a burning pain that follows along a dermatomal pathway and is accompanied by a blistering rash

c)

Itching and redness confined to the palms and soles

d)

Random distributionA flat, non-painful rash that fades within 24 hours

19.

Herpes zoster vaccination reduces the risk of: ________

a)

Developing chickenpox

b)

Developing influenza and pneumonia

c)

Contracting bacterial infections

d)

Preventing or lessening the severity of a varicella zoster outbreak and decreasing the risk of postherpetic neuralgia

20.

Trigeminal neuralgia pain is described as: ________

a)

Sharp, electric shock-like, stabbing facial pain

b)

Dull, aching pain in the jaw

c)

Burning sensation in the tongue

d)

Constant throbbing headache

21.

Spinal cord stimulation alleviates pain by: ________

a)

closing the pain gate through modulation of descending input from the brain to the spinal cord

b)

Increasing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord

c)

Directly stimulating pain receptors in the brain

d)

Enhancing the transmission of pain signals to the cortex

22.

Which class of drugs is first-line for chemotherapy-induced neuropathy? (select all that apply)

a)

Anticonvulsants

b)

Opioids

c)

tricyclic Antidepressants

d)

NSAIDs

23.

Celecoxib selectively inhibits: ________

a)

phospholipase A2 enzyme

b)

cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) enzyme.

c)

lipoxygenase enzyme.

d)

cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzyme.

24.

Acetaminophen analgesia is mediated primarily in the: ________

a)

Central nervous system (CNS)

b)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

c)

Musculoskeletal system

d)

Gastrointestinal tract

25.

The maximal daily dose of acetaminophen in adults is: ________

a)

6 grams (6000 mg) per day

b)

2 grams (2000 mg) per day

c)

4 grams (4000 mg) per day

d)

8 grams (8000 mg) per day

26.

COX-2 inhibitors increase risk of: ________ (select all that apply)

a)

gastrointestinal toxicity

b)

Renal toxicity,

c)

Possible cardiovascular side effects

d)

Asthma exacerbation

27.

The most frequent bacterial cause of septic arthritis in adults is: ________

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

28.

The characteristic skin lesion of early Lyme disease is called: ________

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Erythema nodosum

c)

Erythema migrans

d)

Lichen planus

29.

Rheumatoid arthritis predominantly spares which joint?

a)

wrist joints

b)

Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints

c)

Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints

d)

Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints

30.

The autoantibody most specific for RA is: ________

a)

the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody

b)

rheumatoid factor (RF)

c)

anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

d)

anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibody

31.

Pannus formation in RA leads to: ________ (select all that apply)

a)

Destruction of articular cartilage and bone erosion, bone cyst and fissures

b)

inflammation, shortening, and even rupture of tendons, as well as ligament laxity, joint subluxations, contractures, and deformities

c)

Formation of osteophytes

d)

Ankylosis without cartilage damage

32.

FLACC stands for: (Select all that apply)

a)

Face

b)

Legs

c)

Activity

d)

Cry

e)

Consolability

33.

Classic hand deformity in RA is called: ________

a)

Mallet finger

b)

Dupuytren's contracture

c)

Heberden's nodes

d)

Ulnar deviation with swan-neck and boutonnière deformities

34.

Ethical pain management principle: autonomy means: ________

a)

Respecting the patient’s right to self-determination — including the right to report their own pain and make informed decisions about pain treatment

b)

Ensuring all patients receive the same treatment regardless of their wishes

c)

Allowing only healthcare professionals to make decisions for the patient

d)

Focusing solely on pain relief without considering patient preferences

35.

Glucagon raises glucose by: ________

a)

Inhibiting insulin secretion from the pancreas

b)

Stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver as well as stimulating lipolysis

c)

Increasing glucose uptake by muscle cells

d)

Promoting fatty acid synthesis in adipose tissue

36.

Truvite stones are associated with infections by ________

a)

Anaerobic bacteria

b)

Gram-negative cocci

c)

Urease-producing bacteria

d)

Non-urease producing bacteria

37.

Uric acid stones form in urine pH: ________

a)

Alkaline urine (pH > 7.0)

b)

Acidic urine (pH < 5.5)

c)

Neutral urine (pH ~7.0)

d)

Slightly acidic urine (pH 6.0-6.5)

38.

An early sign of postinfectious glomerulonephritis is: ________

a)

Cloudy urine with a foul odor

b)

Smoky or coffee-colored urine attributable to hematuria and RBC casts (nephritic syndrome)

c)

Clear urine with no sediment

d)

BradycardiaIncreased urine output and dehydration

39.

Crescent formation in Bowman space indicates: ________

a)

crescentic glomerulonephritis (rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, RPGN)

b)

Minimal change disease

c)

Membranous nephropathy

d)

Diabetic nephropathy

40.

The primary lesion in minimal change disease is damage to: ________

a)

Basement membrane

b)

Mesangial cells

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Podocytes

41.

Histamine and bradykinin in wounds exudate cause: ________

a)

rapid tissue regeneration without inflammation

b)

increased blood clotting and scab formation

c)

  vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and pain

d)

decreased blood flow and tissue pallor

42.

Direct-invasion bone infection occurs via: ________

a)

Open fractures, penetrating wounds, surgical contamination, or insertion of prostheses/metal plates/screws

b)

Hematogenous spread from distant organs

c)

Congenital transmission from mother to fetus

d)

Inhalation of airborne pathogens

43.

Chronic osteomyelitis sinus tracts drain: ________

a)

To the lymph nodes

b)

Into the bloodstream directly

c)

Into the joint cavity

d)

pus to the skin surface

44.

Bursitis causes pain primarily because of: ________

a)

Degeneration of the joint cartilage

b)

Inflammation of the bursa located at stress points of muscle function

c)

Fracture of the underlying bone

d)

Tearing of the muscle fibers

45.

De Quervain tenosynovitis affects tendons at the:

a)

extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons of the thumb

b)

extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons of the elbow

c)

extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons of the knee

d)

extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons of the ankle

46.

Myositis ossificans may result from: _________

a)

Deficiency of vitamin D.

b)

Viral infection of the muscle tissue.

c)

blunt trauma with muscle contusion and hemorrhage that calcifies

d)

Congenital absence of muscle fibers.

47.

Compartment syndrome is dangerous because of it: ___________.

a)

Leads to excessive bleeding due to ruptured blood vessels.

b)

increased pressure reduces capillary blood flow, causing muscle and nerve ischemia, excruciating pain, and tissue damage

c)

Results in immediate bone fracture in the affected limb.

d)

Causes rapid infection spread throughout the body.

48.

Which phase of soft tissue healing involves granulation tissue?

a)

Remodeling Phase

b)

Inflammatory phase

c)

Maturation phase

d)

Proliferative phase

49.

The first stage of fracture healing is: ___________.

a)

Hematoma formation

b)

Callus formation

c)

Remodeling

d)

Fibrous union

50.

The triad of reactive (Reiter) arthritis includes: (select all that apply)

a)

arthritis, dermatitis, and encephalitis

b)

arthritis, nephritis, and hepatitis

c)

arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis

d)

arthritis, gastritis, and bronchitis

51.

The HLA association in ankylosing spondylitis is: ________

a)

HLA-B27

b)

HLA-DR4

c)

HLA-A3

d)

HLA-DQ2

52.

Morning stiffness lasting >1 hour suggests: ________.

a)

Fibromyalgia

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Inflammatory arthritis such as rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Mechanical back pain

53.

The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with: ________

a)

Multiple Myeloma

b)

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

c)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

d)

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

54.

The Charcot joint (neuropathic osteoarthropathy) commonly occurs in all of the following except: ________.

a)

alcoholism

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Multiple sclerosis

e)

pernicious anemia

55.

Gold-standard diagnosis of gout is the identification of: ________.

a)

monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid of the involved joint

b)

calcium pyrophosphate crystals in synovial fluid of the involved joint

c)

rheumatoid factor in blood

d)

antinuclear antibodies in serum

56.

First-line acute treatment for gout is: ________.

a)

physical therapy and rest

b)

antibiotics such as penicillin

c)

long-term uric acid lowering therapy

d)

aggressive antiinflammatory medication such as NSAIDs or corticosteroids (oral, parenteral, or intraarticular)

57.

Systemic JIA (Still disease) presents with: ________.

a)

spiking fevers (103°F to 104°F), daily or twice daily and usually in the afternoon, with return to baseline without antipyretics; transient, pale pink rash; lymphadenopathy; hepatosplenomegaly; and pericardial or pleural effusions. Fatigue, muscle atrophy, and weight loss can be severe. Anemia, leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis are common.

b)

persistent low-grade fever, chronic cough, and night sweats; weight gain and increased appetite.

c)

acute onset of joint pain with erythema and warmth, but no systemic symptoms; normal blood counts.

d)

gradual onset of fatigue, mild joint stiffness, and photosensitivity; no organomegaly or effusions.

58.

Psoriatic arthritis often involves (select all that apply)

a)

Peripheral joint involvement, usually asymmetric oligoarthritis

b)

Nail involvement such as pitting and onycholysis

c)

Sacroiliac and spinal involvement, especially in HLA-B27–positive patients

d)

skin lesions typical of psoriasis

Elevated inflammatory markers with negative RF and anti-CCP

e)

Enthesitis and dactylitis (inflammation at tendon insertions and sausage-shaped digits)

59.

The most common benign bone tumor around the joint is: ________

a)

Osteochondroma

b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

Ewing's sarcoma

d)

Osteosarcoma

60.

The “terrible triad” of the elbow includes: (Select all that apply)

a)

Elbow dislocation

b)

Radial head/neck fracture

c)

Coronoid fracture

d)

Olecranon fracture

61.

Cystography is contraindicated in: ________

a)

Neurogenic bladder

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

d)

Acute Urinary Tract infection

62.

The _______________ is the most commonly diagnosed type of primary glomerulonephritis worldwide.

a)

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

b)

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

c)

Membranous nephropathy

d)

Minimal change disease

63.

When not idiopathic, causes of crescentic glomerulonephritis fall into which of the following categories?

a)

complication of an acute or subacute infection

b)

complication of a multisystem disease

c)

drug exposure

d)

a primary disorder in the absence of other systemic disease

e)

Genetic inheritance pattern

64.

The pain induced by nephrolithiasis is often accompanied by all of the following symptoms

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

diaphoresis

c)

tachycardia

d)

tachypnea

e)

Constipation

65.

Chronic active hepatitis may progress to ________.

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Gastritis

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Nephritis

66.

The ________is a principal neurotransmitter in the adult CNS. It is important for rapid neuron-to-neuron communication. It also plays a role in neuron growth and brain development and maturation.

a)

Dopamine

b)

Glutamate

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

67.

This anatomic region of the cord is involved in pain transmission and is characterized by multiple synaptic connections among primary sensory afferent neurons, interneurons, and anterolateral ascending fibers.

a)

The substantia gelatinosa

b)

The dorsal columns

c)

The ventral horn

d)

The central canal

68.

The __________ is a common virus in the developing world that causes an illness similar to HAV infection but has a relatively high mortality in pregnant women.

a)

Hepatitis D virus

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Hepatitis C virus

d)

Hepatitis E virus

69.

The infection of this Virus is also known as enteric hepatitis because it is generally transmitted by ingestion of contaminated substances.

a)

Hepatitis C virus

b)

Hepatitis A virus

c)

Hepatitis B virus

d)

Hepatitis D virus

70.

The Cerebral edema due to hepatic encephalopathy is managed primarily by

a)

Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline

b)

Administration of mannitol to increase serum osmolarity

c)

Keeping the patient in the semi-Fowler position (head and trunk elevated 30 degrees)

d)

Restricting fluid intake to prevent dehydration

e)

Administering hypotonic IV fluids

71.

The ability to accommodate changes in volume without significant increases in pressure is called ________.

a)

Resistance

b)

Compliance

c)

Elasticity

d)

Contractility

72.

In hepatic encephalopathy grade 3, the patient shows: ________.

a)

Mild Confusion, Normal speech, no flap

b)

Alert and oriented, no neurological deficits

c)

Comatose, unresponsive to painful stimuli

d)

Stuporous but can follow commands, marked confusion, slurred speech, flap present

73.

The major pathway for pain signal transmission up the spinal cord is the ________.

a)

coricospical tract

b)

dorsal column

c)

anterolateral tract

d)

spinocerebellar tract

74.

Renin release is increased by: ________.

a)

when neurotransmitters released by the SNS bind to β1 receptors in the kidney

b)

when blood pressure is high

c)

when sodium levels are elevated

d)

when parasympathetic stimulation increases

75.

This renal disease is characterized by small, atrophied kidneys with diffuse scarring and blunting of the calices secondary to persistent or recurrent infection of the kidney.

a)

Renal cell carcinoma

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Chronic pyelonephritis

d)

Nephrotic syndrome

76.

Which percentage of untreated Lyme patients develop neurologic symptoms?

a)

15%

b)

5%

c)

30%

d)

50%

77.

Which of the following is false about the composition of the Bile?

a)

Normal bile is composed mainly of water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.

b)

It has a high protein content, containing bile acids, pigments, cholesterol, and phospholipids.

c)

Primary bile salts include cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids.

d)

Secondary bile salts include deoxycholic, ursodeoxycholic, and lithocholic acids.

e)

Lecithin and bile salts keep cholesterol soluble; imbalance can lead to gallstones.

78.

The Crush injury to the epiphyseal plate in young children commonly leads to _________?

a)

premature growth cessation

b)

increased bone length

c)

osteoporosis

d)

joint dislocation

79.

A wound classification for a fracture Type IIIB means _________?

a)

fracture with only minor skin abrasion

b)

minimal soft tissue damage with no bone exposure

c)

closed fracture with no external wound

d)

extensive injury or loss of soft tissue, as well as periosteal stripping and bone exposure

80.

The most common causes of increased ICP (Increased Intracranial Pressure) include all of the following except:

a)

Increased brain tissue volume (e.g., tumor, hemorrhage, infection, ischemia)

b)

Increased cerebrospinal fluid volume (e.g., hydrocephalus, pseudotumor cerebri)

c)

Increased blood volume (e.g., dural sinus thrombosis, high PaCO₂)

d)

Decreased Blood Volume; etabolic acidosis

81.

Nephralgia occurs when the renal: _________

a)

artery is blocked, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure.

b)

capsule is innervated by nociceptors and when a disease process causes it to be distended, inflamed, or punctured, a dull to sharp pain is felt.

c)

tubules are unable to reabsorb water, resulting in excessive urination.

d)

pelvis is compressed, causing urine to back up into the kidney.

82.

32. Endometriosis is rare in women _________. (Select all that apply)

a)

during pregnancy

b)

between 20 and 40 years of age.

c)

younger than 20 years

d)

after menopause.

e)

Who have regular menstrual cycles

83.

The __________ is the fifth most frequently occurring pediatric malignancy and accounts for 95% of childhood kidney cancers.

a)

Neuroblastoma

b)

Nephroblastoma (Wilms Tumor)

c)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

d)

Osteosarcoma

84.

The medication Mirabegron, a β3-adrenergic agonist, is helpful in managing what kind of Incontinence?

a)

management of UUI (Urgency urinary incontinence)

b)

management of SUI (Stress urinary incontinence)

c)

management of overflow incontinence

d)

management of functional incontinence

85.

The exercise prescription is as essential in diabetes management as the medication or nutrition prescription. The CDC recommends _________

a)

Moderate-intensity exercise for at least 30 minutes, 5 or more days per week

b)

Vigorous-intensity exercise for 20 minutes, 3 or more days per week

c)

No more than 2 consecutive days without exercise

d)

All of the above

86.

The _______ is an important component of bile that helps keep cholesterol from precipitating into crystals.

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Bile pigment

c)

Lecithin

d)

Cholesterol

87.

The most common predisposing factors for pancreatitis in the United States are ________. (select all that apply)

a)

Biliary tract disease

b)

Hypertriglyceridemia

c)

Ethanol-associated pancreatitis (alcohol use)

d)

Viral infection

e)

High-protein diet

88.

The principal function of the gallbladder is to: _________

a)

the secretion of the insulin

b)

the production of digestive enzymes.

c)

the absorption of nutrients.

d)

the concentration and storage of bile.

89.

Bence Jones proteins are: ________

a)

Proteins found in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma, derived from antibody light chains

b)

Enzymes produced by the liver that help digest proteins

c)

Plasma proteins responsible for oxygen transport

d)

Antibodies that protect against viral infections

90.

Malignant plasma cells have a predilection to invade ________.

a)

the lungs and cause fibroids

b)

the skin and cause rashes.

c)

bone and form multiple tumor sites.

d)

the liver and cause cirrhosis.

91.

The overall 5-year survival rate for treated Hodgkin disease, including all stages, is approximately ________.

a)

60%

b)

85%

c)

40%.

d)

25%.

92.

The majority of cases of non-Hodgkin lymphoma arise from ________.

a)

Bone marrow only

b)

Lymph nodes, but they can originate in any lymphoid tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue of the skin

d)

The thymus gland exclusively

93.

Reed–Sternberg cells are seen in: ________.

a)

lymph nodes of patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

b)

bone marrow of patients with multiple myeloma.

c)

blood smears of patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

d)

affected lymph nodes of patients with Hodgkin disease.

94.

Which buffer is most important in the extracellular fluid?

a)

phosphate buffer system

b)

Bicarbonate buffer system

c)

Hemoglobin buffer system

d)

Protein buffer system

95.

A solution with a low pH has: ________.

a)

Many Hydrogen ions (H+), making it more acidic

b)

Many Hydroxide ions (OH-), making it more basic

c)

Equal numbers of H+ and OH- ions

d)

No ions present at all

96.

The lungs excrete carbonic acid as: ________.

a)

Nitrogen and ammonia

b)

Oxygen (O₂) and glucose.

c)

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O).

d)

Bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions.

97.

If PaCO₂ increases, what will likely occur? ________

a)

The blood becomes more alkaline, leading to respiratory alkalosis

b)

The kidneys immediately excrete bicarbonate to raise pH

c)

Carbonic acid accumulates in the blood, causing the pH to drop and resulting in respiratory acidosis

d)

Oxygen levels in the blood increase significantly

98.

What triggers chemoreceptors to increase respiratory rate?

a)

A decrease in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO₂)

b)

An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO₂), which lowers blood pH and stimulates the medullary center

c)

An increase in blood oxygen levels

d)

A decrease in hydrogen ion concentration (increased pH)

99.

49. Kidneys compensate for carbonic acid excess by: _________

a)

increasing the excretion of metabolic acids and reabsorbing more bicarbonate (HCO3−)

b)

decreasing the excretion of metabolic acids and reabsorbing less bicarbonate (HCO3−)

c)

increasing the excretion of bicarbonate (HCO3−) and retaining more metabolic acids

d)

decreasing the excretion of both metabolic acids and bicarbonate (HCO3−)

100.

Which is not a cause of respiratory acidosis?

a)

Impaired gas exchange (e.g., COPD, pneumonia, pulmonary edema)

b)

Impaired neuromuscular function (e.g., Guillain–Barré syndrome, respiratory muscle fatigue)

c)

Impaired respiratory control from brainstem depressant drugs (e.g., opioids, barbiturates)

d)

Hyperventilation due to anxiety