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Dec 9 - 3rd Unit Exam

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This commensal of the oral cavity is associated with an opportunistic respiratory infection.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Trichomonas hominis

c)

Entamoeba polecki

d)

Entamoeba gingivalis

e)

Trichomonas tenax

2.

Arthropod vector control is important in the prevention of the following, EXCEPT…

a)

Malaria

b)

Sleeping sickness

c)

Leishmaniasis

d)

Naegleria infections

3.

This flagellate is associated with vaginitis, dysuria, and endometritis.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

4.

"Vagabond’s disease" refers to the manifestations of a chronic infestation with…

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei

b)

Demodex folliculorum

c)

Pediculus humanus

d)

Musa domestica

5.

Which of the following preferentially infect reticulocytes?

a)

P. falciparum and P. malariae

b)

P. malariae and P. ovale

c)

P. vivax and P. malariae

d)

P. vivax and P. ovale

6.

The cyst of this amoeba is uninucleate and has a large glycogen mass that stain heavily with iodine.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Iodamoeba butschlii

d)

Blastocystis hominis

7.

Immunochromatographic RDTs for malaria can differentiate between infections caused by all 5 species.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which of the following produces dysentery with flask-shaped intestinal ulcers?

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

e)

Trichomonas tenax

9.

In Toxoplasma gondii infection, the slow multiplying forms found encysted within tissues are called…

a)

sporozoites

b)

merozoites

c)

tachyzoites

d)

bradyzoites

10.

The trophozoites of this pathogenic flagellate can be seen in stool demonstrating erratic tumbling motility.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

e)

Trichomonas tenax

11.

What is the infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi?

a)

trypomastigote

b)

promastigote

12.

Which of the following can produce hypnozoites?

a)

P. falciparum and P. ovale

b)

P. vivax only

c)

P. ovale and P. vivax

d)

P. malariae only

e)

P. ovale and P. malariae

13.

Which protozoan parasite is suspected to have a symbiotic relationship with parasitic nematodes such as pinworms?

a)

Entamoeba polecki

b)

Naegleria fowleri

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis

d)

Giardia lamblia

14.

This protozoan produces a uninucleate lemon-shaped cyst with a nipple like protuberance.

a)

Naegleria fowleri

b)

Trichomonas hominis

c)

Chilomastix mesnili

d)

Giardia lamblia

15.

Cachexia, lymphadenopathy, and skin darkening are manifestations of which vector-borne parasitic disease?

(a)  

16.

The causative agent of "blackwater fever"?

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Trypanosoma

c)

Entamoeba

d)

Giardia

17.

The following are coccidians, EXCEPT…

a)

Cyclospora

b)

Toxoplasma

c)

Cystoisospora

d)

Blastocystis

e)

Cryptosporidium

18.

The gravid female of this flea burrows under the epidermis and releases eggs out on the surface of the skin.

a)

Pediculus humanus

b)

Ornithodoros sp.

c)

Demodex follicularis

d)

Tunga penetrans

19.

The following are true about Entamoeba histolytica, EXCEPT…

a)

pathogenic

b)

The nucleus contains a small central karyosome

c)

trophozoites may contain ingested bacteria

d)

may migrate to extraintestinal sites

20.

A group of protozoan parasites that form spores, lack mitochondria, and possesses 70s ribosomes.

a)

Leishmania

b)

Coccidians

c)

Microsporidia

d)

Plasmodium

21.

Which of the following is the diagnostic stage/form seen in tissue samples from patients suffering from leishmaniasis?

a)

amastigotes

b)

epimastigotes

c)

promastigotes

d)

trypomastigotes

22.

Which of the following has a flagellum, an undulating membrane and a kinetoplast located anterior to the nucleus?

a)

trypomastigote

b)

promastigote

c)

epimastigote

d)

amastigote

23.

An amoebic trophozoite from a stool sample demonstrating ingested bacteria, blunt pseudopodia, and sluggish non-directional motility is most likely…

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Iodamoeba butschli

d)

Entamoeba coli

24.

Which of the following is most associated with an infection acquired through the ingestion of food that is contaminated with cat feces?

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Cryptosporidium parvum

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

25.

Which of the following is morphologically indistinguishable from Entamoeba histolytica?

a)

Entamoeba hartmanni

b)

Entamoeba dispar

c)

Entamoeba polecki

d)

Endolimax nana

26.

The insect vector for sleeping sickness.

a)

Glossina spp.

b)

Phlebotomus spp.

c)

Triatoma spp.

d)

Anopheles spp.

27.

Amoebic encephalitis that is secondary to an intestinal infection is most likely due to...

a)

Naegleria philippinensis

b)

Acanthamoeba castellani

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

28.

Which of the following is the gold standard method for the laboratory diagnosis of malaria?

a)

Antibody detection (ELISA)

b)

Antigen detection (RDTs)

c)

Nucleic Acid Detection

d)

Peripheral blood smear

29.

The following are flagellates, EXCEPT…

a)

Giardia

b)

Trypanosoma

c)

Balamuthia

d)

Trichomonas

e)

Leishmania

30.

Trypomastigotes found in the peripheral blood smear of a patient who resides in South America is most likely that of…

a)

Trypanosoma cruzi

b)

Leishmania tropica

c)

Trypanosoma brucei

d)

Leishmania donovani

31.

Fatal malaria complications are most likely to occur in infections with…

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. ovale

c)

P. knowlesi

d)

P. malariae

e)

P. vivax

32.

Which of the following is an infection caused by fly larvae?

a)

demodecosis

b)

myiasis

c)

oxyuriasis

d)

balantidiasis

33.

Proper disposal of human fecal waste is important in the control of the following, EXCEPT…

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Giardiasis

c)

Amoebiasis

d)

Cryptosporidiasis

34.

Which of the following markers are specific for P. falciparum?

a)

pLDH

b)

Aldolase

c)

HRP-2

35.

This commensal flagellate with undulating membrane may be recovered from a stool sample.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Trichomonas hominis

c)

Entamoeba polecki

d)

Entamoeba gingivalis

e)

Trichomonas tenax

36.

A blood smear from a suspected malaria case demonstrated infected rbcs that are larger than normal with trophozoites that show abundant cytoplasm. Aside from the size, the rbcs are not deformed in any way. Which of the following would be the most probable diagnosis?

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. knowlesi

d)

P. ovale

e)

P. vivax

37.

The following are amoebas, EXCEPT…

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Endolimax

c)

Iodamoeba

d)

Naegleria

e)

Chilomastix

38.

Which malarial parasite does not have an exoerythrocytic cycle?

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. knowlesi

c)

P. vivax

39.

The causative agent of East African sleeping sickness.

a)

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

d)

Leishmania donovani

40.

The cytostome, cytopyge, macro- and micronuclei are morphologic features of…

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Balantidium coli

c)

Blastocystis hominis

d)

Chilomastix mesnili

e)

Giardia lamblia

41.

What is the mode of infection for most intestinal amoebas?

a)

ingestion of cysts

b)

skin penetration

c)

ingestion of trophozoites

d)

inhalation

42.

The presence of crescent-shaped gametocytes is diagnostic for…

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. knowlesi

43.

Spiny pseudopodia are demonstrated by the trophozoites of…

a)

Leishmania

b)

Naegleria

c)

Acanthamoeba

d)

Entamoeba

44.

The causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis.

a)

Leishmania tropica

b)

Leishmania braziliensis

c)

Leishmania mexicana

d)

Leishmania donovani

45.

Which of the following will be useful in differentiating between Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar?

a)

Iodine staining of fecal smear

b)

Stool Ag detection (ELISA)

c)

Modified acid-fast staining

d)

None of the choices

46.

This amoeba-like parasite usually demonstrates two nuclei and is considered to be related to the trichomonads.

a)

Naegleria philippinensis

b)

Cryptosporidium parvum

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis

d)

Giardia lamblia

47.

Which malarial parasite stage infects the human host through a mosquito bite?

a)

gametocyte

b)

trophozoite

c)

sporozoite

d)

ookinete

e)

merozoite

48.

The causative agent of Chaga's disease or American trypanosomiasis.

a)

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

d)

Leishmania donovani

49.

Transfusion acquired vivax malaria cannot produce relapses.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following protozoans is most likely to cause hemolytic anemia coupled with organ failures due to impairment of capillary blood flow?

a)

Trypanosoma cruzi

b)

Toxoplasma gondii

c)

Cryptosporidium hominis

d)

Plasmodium Falciparum

51.

The following life stages of malaria parasites can be found in human clinical samples, EXCEPT…

a)

trophozoite

b)

oocyst

c)

macrogametocyte

d)

merozoites

e)

microgametocyte

52.

Formerly classified as yeast, this organism is commonly seen as vacuolated cysts with multiple nuclei pushed to the sides by a large vacuole.

a)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

b)

Cryptosporidium hominis

c)

Blastocystis hominis

d)

Balamuthia mandrillaris

53.

In Plasmodium infections, the interval between paroxysmal febrile attacks is determined by the length of time between the hepatic and erythrocytic stages.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Humans are the intermediate hosts for Plasmodium.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In American trypanosomiasis, the infective stage is transmitted to the human via the vector’s…

a)

saliva

b)

feces

c)

hemolymph

56.

Which protozoan parasite, transmitted by the ixode tick, is commonly misidentified as Plasmodium falciparum?

a)

Babesia microti

b)

Toxoplasma gondii

c)

Trypanosoma cruzi

d)

Leishmania tropica

57.

Autofluorescence is a useful characteristic for the detection and identification of…

a)

amoebic cysts

b)

flagellate trophozoites

c)

Plasmodium gametocytes

d)

coccidian oocysts

e)

Microsporidia

58.

The causative agent of granulomatous amoebic encephalitis.

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Acanthamoeba & Balamuthia

c)

Naegleria fowleri

d)

Dientamoeba fragilis

59.

The lesions described as “tapir nose” can be found in…

a)

Chaga’s disease

b)

mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

c)

visceral leishmaniasis

d)

sleeping sickness

60.

Modified acid-fast staining of stools is recommended for the detection of…

a)

Amoebas

b)

Flagellates

c)

Coccidians

d)

Ciliates

61.

The typical nucleus of Entamoeba histolytica is described as having…

a)

thick, irregular peripheral chromatin and an eccentric karyosome

b)

no peripheral chromatin with large karyosome

c)

fine peripheral chromatin and a small central karyosome

d)

none of the choices

62.

A diarrheic stool specimen submitted for lab exams demonstrated small protozoan cysts containing 1-4 nuclei. Which of the following is the most probable ID?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Iodamoeba butschlii

d)

Entamoeba coli

63.

The insect vector for leishmaniasis is:

a)

Mosquito (Anopheles)

b)

Tsetse fly(glossina)

c)

Sandfly (phlebotomus )

d)

kissing bug Rhodnius

64.

This protozoan demonstrates both an amoebic and flagellate trophozoite.

a)

Naegleria fowleri

b)

Trichomonas hominis

c)

Chilomastix mesnili

d)

Giardia lamblia

65.

A causative agent of keratitis acquired from contaminated contact lenses.

a)

Entamoeba polecki

b)

Naegleria fowleri

c)

Acanthamoeba castellani

d)

Giardia lamblia

66.

Trophozoites in a "maltese cross" formation inside a red blood cell may be seen in infections with…

a)

Plasmodium vivax

b)

Plasmodium malariae

c)

Leishmania donovani

d)

Babesia microti

67.

Which among the following is a protozoan with double walled cysts demonstrating an outer wrinkled wall and an inner polygonal wall?

a)

A. Acanthamoeba castellani

b)

B. Naegleria fowleri

c)

C. Cystoisospora belli

d)

D. Cryptosporidium hominis

68.

The insect vector for Chaga's disease.

a)

Glossina spp.

b)

Phlebotomus spp.

c)

Triatoma spp.

d)

Anopheles spp.

69.

The dormant forms of Plasmodium parasites inside liver cells are called…

a)

schizonts

b)

merozoites

c)

gametocytes

d)

hypnozoites

e)

sporozoites

70.

The causative agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis.

a)

Naegleria fowleri

b)

Acanthamoeba castellani

71.

Cystoisospora belli infection is acquired through…

a)

ingestion of oocysts

b)

ingestion of raw meat with cysts

c)

either A or B

d)

neither A nor B

72.

A form of delayed hyperesthesia known as Kerandel’s sign is associated with…

a)

Chaga’s disease

b)

Leishmaniasis

c)

Sleeping Sickness

73.

The insect vectors for malaria belong to the genus…

a)

Aedes

b)

Culex

c)

Mansonia

d)

Anopheles

e)

Glossina

74.

Which is the largest protozoan parasite of man?

a)

Leishmania

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Giardia

d)

Balantidium

75.

Shuffner's and Maurer's dots are found inside the...

a)

cytoplasm of infected wbcs

b)

cytoplasm of trophozoites

c)

cytoplasm of gametocytes

d)

cytoplasm of infected rbcs

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