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ATI Fundamentals Capstone Weekly Tips Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client's sodium is 131 mEq/L. Which action is the priority?

a)

Encourage free-water intake

b)

Initiate seizure precautions

c)

Administer a thiazide diuretic

d)

Provide a low-sodium diet

2.

Which potassium level requires immediate intervention?

a)

3.4 mEq/L

b)

3.8 mEq/L

c)

5.6 mEq/L

d)

4.2 mEq/L

3.

Which total calcium value is within the expected range?

a)

8.6 mg/dL

b)

9.4 mg/dL

c)

10.9 mg/dL

d)

11.4 mg/dL

4.

A client's magnesium level is 1.0 mg/dL. Which finding is most likely?

a)

Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

b)

Tremors and hypertension

c)

Bradycardia and hypotension

d)

Prolonged PR interval with heart block

5.

Which phosphorus value is normal?

a)

2.2 mg/dL

b)

2.8 mg/dL

c)

3.6 mg/dL

d)

4.9 mg/dL

6.

Which BUN value is within the expected range?

a)

6 mg/dL

b)

12 mg/dL

c)

24 mg/dL

d)

28 mg/dL

7.

A female client has creatinine 1.3 mg/dL. The nurse should:

a)

Encourage high-protein intake

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Give a potassium supplement

8.

A fasting glucose of 108 mg/dL and A1c 6.7% indicate:

a)

Good long-term control

b)

Risk for hypoglycemia

c)

Poor long-term glycemic control

d)

Laboratory error

9.

Which WBC count suggests possible bacterial infection?

a)

4,500/mm³

b)

8,000/mm³

c)

12,500/mm³

d)

6,000/mm³

10.

Which platelet count is most concerning?

a)

160,000/mm³

b)

420,000/mm³

c)

145,000/mm³

d)

300,000/mm³

11.

A male client’s Hgb 11 g/dL. The nurse interprets this as:

a)

Normal

b)

Low

c)

High

d)

Inconclusive without Hct

12.

A female client’s Hct is 48%. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Encourage fluids and reassess

b)

Hold anticoagulants

c)

Place on neutropenic precautions

d)

Restrict fluids

13.

Which RBC value is normal for an adult woman?

a)

3.9 million/mm³

b)

4.4 million/mm³

c)

5.9 million/mm³

d)

6.1 million/mm³

14.

Which ABG represents respiratory acidosis?

a)

pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 33, HCO₃⁻ 24

b)

pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52, HCO₃⁻ 24

c)

pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 38, HCO₃⁻ 18

d)

pH 7.46, PaCO₂ 45, HCO₃⁻ 30

15.

Which ABG is normal?

a)

pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 40, PaO₂ 88, HCO₃ 24

b)

pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50, HCO₃ 26

c)

pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 30, HCO₃ 22

d)

pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 28, HCO₃ 18

16.

For warfarin, which INR is therapeutic?

a)

1.0

b)

1.6

c)

2.4

d)

4.5

17.

A client on heparin has PTT 64 sec (control 32 sec). The nurse should:

a)

Stop heparin

b)

Document therapeutic range

c)

Administer protamine sulfate

d)

Increase the infusion

18.

Which PT is expected in a client not on anticoagulants?

a)

8 sec

b)

11.5 sec

c)

23 sec

d)

35 sec

19.

Which digoxin level requires holding the dose and notifying the provider?

a)

0.7 ng/mL

b)

1.0 ng/mL

c)

1.9 ng/mL with nausea and halos

d)

0.5 ng/mL

20.

Which finding increases risk for digoxin toxicity?

a)

Potassium 4.1 mEq/L

b)

Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

c)

Calcium 9.2 mg/dL

d)

Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL

21.

Which instruction helps prevent lithium toxicity?

a)

Avoid sodium in your diet.

b)

Maintain consistent fluids and sodium intake.

c)

Use NSAIDs for headaches.

d)

If you miss a dose, double the next one.

22.

A phenytoin level is 24 mcg/mL. The nurse should:

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23.

A theophylline level of 15 mcg/mL is:

a)

Subtherapeutic

b)

Therapeutic

c)

Toxic

d)

Inconclusive

24.

Which PaO₂ value is expected on room air?

a)

60 mmHg

b)

72 mmHg

c)

85 mmHg

d)

110 mmHg

25.

Which HCO₃⁻ value falls within the normal range?

a)

19 mmol/L

b)

21 mmol/L

c)

28 mmol/L

d)

30 mmol/L

26.

Which client requires airborne precautions?

a)

Rubella

b)

Mumps

c)

Varicella zoster (disseminated)

d)

Influenza

27.

Appropriate room/precautions for TB?

a)

Private room, surgical mask

b)

Negative pressure, N95 respirator

c)

Contact precautions, gown and gloves

d)

Standard precautions only

28.

Droplet precautions are required for:

a)

RSV

b)

C. difficile

c)

Pertussis

d)

Herpes zoster (disseminated)

29.

Contact precautions are needed for:

a)

Measles

b)

MRSA wound drainage

c)

Influenza

30.

Which PPE set is correct for C. difficile?

a)

Gloves only

b)

Gloves and gown; handwashing with soap and water

c)

N95 and face shield

d)

Surgical mask only

31.

A client reports allergies to bananas and kiwis. The nurse should:

a)

Use latex gloves carefully

b)

Use nitrile or vinyl gloves

c)

Place on droplet precautions

d)

Avoid offering dairy products

32.

During a general physical assessment, the correct sequence is:

a)

Palpation, percussion, inspection, auscultation

b)

Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

c)

Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

d)

Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

33.

During an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is:

a)

IPPA

b)

IAPP

c)

PIPA

d)

AIPP

34.

Teaching cane use for left leg weakness:

a)

Hold cane left hand; move with left leg

b)

Hold cane right hand; move cane with left leg

c)

Hold cane either hand; move with stronger leg

d)

Hold cane left hand; step right leg first

35.

Going up stairs with crutches, the client should:

a)

Crutches, bad leg, good leg

b)

Good leg, crutches, bad leg

c)

Bad leg, crutches, good leg

d)

Crutches and good leg together

36.

Going down stairs with crutches, the client should:

a)

Good leg, crutches, bad leg

b)

Crutches, bad leg, good leg

c)

Bad leg, good leg, crutches

d)

Good leg, bad leg, crutches

37.

Which task should the RN perform (not delegate)?

a)

Vital signs on a stable client

b)

Ambulate a first-day post-op client for the first time

c)

Evaluate response to a new diuretic

d)

Assist with feeding a dementia client

38.

The RN should not delegate which activity to a UAP?

a)

Bathing a stable client

b)

Reinforcing prior teaching on incentive spirometry

c)

Transporting a client to X-ray

d)

Recording I&O

39.

Using the EAT rule, which cannot be delegated?

a)

Teaching insulin administration

b)

Collecting a urine specimen

c)

Performing a fingerstick glucose

d)

Stocking supplies

40.

Which action aligns with test-taking strategy from notes?

a)

Select the longest answer

b)

Read stem, read options, re-read stem before choosing

c)

Choose “all of the above” if unsure

d)

Skip any long question

41.

Sodium 148 mEq/L likely presents with:

a)

Confusion and thirst

b)

Hyperactive reflexes

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Orthostatic hypotension only

42.

Potassium 2.9 mEq/L: the nurse anticipates:

a)

Tall peaked T waves

b)

Muscle weakness and U waves

c)

Severe hypertension

d)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

43.

Which calcium level necessitates evaluation for tetany risk?

a)

8.7 mg/dL

b)

9.1 mg/dL

c)

10.0 mg/dL

d)

10.4 mg/dL

44.

Magnesium 3.0 mg/dL. Which assessment is priority?

4 lines
45.

RBC 6.0 million/mm³ (male). Interpretation?

a)

Anemia

b)

Polycythemia risk

c)

Normal

d)

Infection

46.

A client’s HgbA1c is 6.3%. Best interpretation?

a)

Above goal per your sheet

b)

Normal per your sheet

c)

Hypoglycemia risk

d)

Unrelated to glycemic control

47.

PaCO₂ 55 mmHg most likely causes:

a)

Alkalosis

b)

Acidosis

c)

Normal pH

d)

Increased PaO₂

48.

Which PaO₂ needs prompt attention?

a)

95 mmHg

b)

88 mmHg

c)

60 mmHg

d)

82 mmHg

49.

PT 11.5 sec and INR 1.0 in a client not on warfarin mean:

a)

Risk for bleeding

b)

Normal coagulation

c)

Therapeutic anticoagulation

d)

Lab error

50.

For a client on warfarin with INR 4.2, the nurse should:

a)

Administer the next dose

b)

Hold warfarin and notify the provider

c)

Give vitamin K immediately without notifying

d)

Document therapeutic range

51.

PTT 30 sec on heparin infusion (control 30–32). Best action?

a)

Increase infusion per protocol

b)

Decrease infusion per protocol

c)

Continue current rate (not therapeutic)

52.

Client on digoxin reports anorexia and nausea; level 1.8 ng/mL. The nurse should:

a)

Administer dose and give antiemetic

b)

Hold dose and assess K+ level

c)

Double dose to overcome nausea

d)

Ignore and proceed

53.

Lithium 1.5 mEq/L. Which is appropriate?

a)

Administer dose

b)

Hold and increase fluids; notify provider

c)

Restrict sodium

d)

Give NSAID for headache

54.

Which teaching for lithium is correct?

a)

Avoid excessive sweating and dehydration.

b)

Low-salt diet helps prevent toxicity.

c)

Skip water on workout days.

d)

Take with NSAIDs routinely.

55.

Theophylline 22 mcg/mL. The nurse should:

a)

Continue dose

b)

Hold and notify provider

c)

Give with high-fat meal

d)

Double next dose

56.

56. Phenytoin 8 mcg/mL with breakthrough seizures. Action?

a)

Notify provider about subtherapeutic level

b)

Hold medication

c)

Give antidote

d)

Start theophylline

57.

Which client needs contact precautions?

a)

Scarlet fever

b)

Adenovirus

c)

Pediculosis (lice)

d)

Epiglottitis

58.

Best rooming choice for a client with rubella?

a)

Private room, airborne

b)

Private room, droplet

c)

Negative pressure, N95

d)

Standard only

59.

Which diagnosis falls under “SPIDERMAn” droplet mnemonic?

a)

TB

b)

Varicella

c)

Diphtheria

d)

RSV

60.

Which falls under “MRS WEE” for contact?

a)

Parvovirus B19

b)

Staphylococcal wound infection with drainage

c)

Measles

d)

Mumps

61.

For suspected latex allergy, which is most important to remove from room?

a)

Paper tape

b)

Latex tourniquet

c)

Alcohol swabs

d)

Cotton balls

62.

Correct sequence for cardiac assessment?

a)

A. IPPA

b)

B. IAPP

c)

C. PAIP

d)

D. AIPP

63.

During an abdominal assessment, auscultation is performed:

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Last

64.

Teaching COAL means:

a)

Cane on affected leg

b)

Cane opposite affected leg

c)

Cane and affected leg move last

d)

Cane only after surgery

65.

A client using a cane should advance in which pattern?

a)

Cane → weak leg → strong leg

b)

Weak leg → cane → strong leg

c)

Strong leg → cane → weak leg

d)

Cane and strong leg together → weak leg

66.

On level surfaces with crutches, which gait conserves energy for partial weight-bearing?

a)

2-point

b)

3-point

c)

4-point

d)

Swing-through

67.

The mnemonic “Up to heaven, down to hell” reminds the nurse that going down stairs is:

a)

Good leg first

b)

Bad leg first with crutches

c)

Both legs together

d)

Crutches last

68.

Which task is appropriate for a LPN?

a)

Initial admission assessment

b)

Teaching new ostomy care

c)

Reinforcing ostomy care previously taught

d)

Developing the care plan

69.

Which client should be assigned to the RN?

a)

Stable post-op day 3 requesting a bath

b)

New admission with shortness of breath

c)

Discharge vitals on a stable client

d)

Feeding assistance for dementia patient

70.

Which action demonstrates evaluation (not to delegate)?

a)

Checking pain 30 minutes after analgesic

b)

Taking pre-meal blood glucose

c)

Assisting with toileting

d)

Turning a patient q2h

71.

Best immediate action when a test question seems unclear?

a)

Choose the longest option

b)

Re-read the stem slowly, then options, then stem

c)

Eliminate none and guess

d)

Skip permanently

72.

WBC 3,800/mm³. Priority instruction?

a)

Avoid leafy greens

b)

Use electric razor

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Increase fluid intake only

73.

Platelets 95,000/mm³. Which is appropriate?

4 lines
74.

Which Hgb/Hct pair is normal for a male?

a)

Hgb 13 g/dL, Hct 40%

b)

Hgb 14 g/dL, Hct 44%

c)

Hgb 12 g/dL, Hct 36%

d)

Hgb 18.5 g/dL, Hct 55%

75.

PaO2 78 mmHg on room air. The nurse should:

a)

Apply nonrebreather at 15 L/min

b)

Encourage deep breathing and recheck

c)

Prepare for intubation

d)

Decrease activity to bedrest for 24 hr

76.

HCO3- 19 mmol/L, pH 7.31, PaCO2: 38. Interpretation?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

77.

A client with sepsis requires which isolation?

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Standard only

78.

For influenza, which teaching is correct?

a)

Negative pressure room

b)

Private room; mask within 3 feet

c)

Gown and gloves only

d)

N95 respirator required

79.

Which is normal for female Hgb?

a)

11 g/dL

b)

12 g/dL

c)

18 g/dL

d)

10 g/dL

80.

A client's PT 12 sec and INR 1.1 pre-op. Action?

a)

Delay surgery

b)

Administer vitamin K

c)

Proceed; values are within normal range

81.

Magnesium 1.2 mg/dL with PVCs on ECG. Priority?

a)

Administer magnesium as ordered

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Give furosemide

d)

Encourage high-protein foods

82.

Sodium 128 mEq/L. Which order would the nurse question?

a)

Seizure precautions

b)

Hypertonic saline infusion per protocol

c)

Strict I&O and daily weights

d)

Encourage free water

83.

Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL (male). Which medication should the nurse question?

a)

Nephrotoxic antibiotic

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Antacid

d)

Stool softener

84.

For a client with varicella zoster (disseminated), which is correct?

a)

Contact only

b)

Droplet only

c)

Airborne and contact

d)

Standard only

85.

During focused review after ATI assessments, the most important action is to:

a)

Re-take the same test immediately

b)

Review topics you missed to build knowledge

c)

Memorize answer patterns

d)

Avoid remediation to prevent confusion