WorksheetsINFORMATION MANAGEMENT MIDTERM
Total questions: 151
Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which best defines business software in an organization?
a)
Programs designed to perform business-related tasks
b)
Hardware components supporting data transfer to functional systems
c)
Manual methods used for accounting and records and printing on it
d)
Procedures that describe management hierarchy of an organization
e)
Physical storage devices for data backup
2.
Which of the following is an example of system software?
a)
Operating system
b)
Application suite
c)
Spreadsheet
d)
Word processor
e)
Database form
3.
An accounting program used to record sales transactions is classified as:
a)
Application software
b)
System software and tools
c)
Utility tool
d)
Communication software
e)
Development platform
4.
Which type of software manages computer resources and coordinates hardware components?
a)
System software
b)
Application tool
c)
Application and Productivity software
d)
Cloud interface
e)
Peripheral driver
5.
Which of the following is an example of open-source software?
a)
Linux operating system
b)
Microsoft Office 365 (word, excel, powerpoint, etc)
c)
Adobe Photoshop
d)
Oracle ERP
e)
Apple iMovie
6.
When an organization subscribes to Office 365 online, it is using:
a)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
b)
On-premise licensed software
c)
Custom-coded application
d)
Open hardware architecture
e)
Batch processing routine
7.
Which situation best represents software piracy?
a)
Installing unlicensed copies of commercial programs
b)
Downloading trial versions from official websites
c)
Updating software using vendor patches
d)
Accessing freeware distributed legally
e)
Using open-source packages under license
8.
Which of the following describes application software?
a)
Programs designed to accomplish user-specific business tasks
b)
Tools that monitor system power and cooling
c)
Hardware firmware managing peripheral devices
d)
Protocols that establish network connectivity
e)
Policies controlling data ownership
9.
Which software category is best suited for automating payroll calculations?
a)
Business application software
b)
Operating system
c)
Utility program
d)
Hardware driver
e)
Security software
10.
A spreadsheet’s ability to perform financial forecasting represents:
a)
Analytical functionality within productivity software
b)
Hardware optimization for computation speed
c)
System-level memory management
d)
Physical control of database connections
e)
Unrelated multimedia processing
11.
Which software is primarily used to organize and manipulate large datasets?
a)
Database management system
b)
Graphics editor
c)
Presentation program
d)
Web browser
e)
Compiler
12.
When software updates are distributed automatically through the internet, it is called:
a)
Cloud-based patch management
b)
Local configuration procedure
c)
Hardware recalibration protocol
d)
User-initiated compilation
e)
Offline installation mode
13.
Which of the following is NOT an example of business productivity software?
a)
Word processor
b)
Spreadsheet
c)
Presentation tool
d)
Antivirus scanner
e)
Database program
14.
A company developing its own program to track deliveries is practicing:
a)
In-house software development
b)
Outsourcing
c)
SaaS acquisition
d)
Utility software installation
e)
Cloud migration
15.
Which of the following demonstrates vertical market software?
a)
A hospital management system designed for healthcare use
b)
A spreadsheet used by any department
c)
A general word processing program
d)
A universal photo editing tool
e)
A gaming console application
16.
When a firm purchases ready-made accounting software, it is engaging in:
a)
Commercial off-the-shelf acquisition
b)
Custom programming
c)
Utility development
d)
Open-source deployment
e)
Hardware integration project
17.
Which best explains the benefit of database software for business?
a)
It allows structured storage, retrieval, and management of information
b)
It enhances computer graphics performance in games
c)
It increases energy efficiency of network routers
d)
It replaces human judgment in decision-making
e)
It eliminates the need for internet access entirely
18.
A software license granting temporary access through the web is known as:
a)
Subscription license
b)
Perpetual license
c)
Trial license
d)
Enterprise license
e)
Open distribution license
19.
When selecting new business software, which factor should management prioritize?
a)
Compatibility with existing systems and user requirements
b)
Number of external advertisements
c)
Popularity among competitors
d)
Longest installation process
e)
Presence of unnecessary features
20.
Which example shows misuse of business software?
a)
Using accounting software for personal finances without approval
b)
Entering correct data into inventory software
c)
Following password protection policies
d)
Updating programs through authorized portals
e)
Using official copies of licensed applications
21.
Which feature distinguishes custom software from packaged software?
a)
It is developed to meet specific organizational needs
b)
It is available to the general public for purchase
c)
It offers fewer configuration options
d)
It never requires maintenance or updates
e)
It always performs faster than ERP systems
22.
Which type of license allows unlimited use within one organization?
a)
Site license
b)
Trial license
c)
Educational license
d)
Single-user license
e)
Open collaboration license
23.
When multiple programs share a single data source, the system gains:
a)
Integration and consistency across applications
b)
Decreased data accuracy through duplication
c)
Reduced operational transparency
d)
Increased hardware isolation
e)
Decreased coordination between users
24.
A company replacing old desktop programs with cloud versions is pursuing:
a)
Digital transformation and modernization
b)
Hardware centralization strategy
c)
Physical data isolation
d)
Manual archiving of files
e)
Peripheral network migration
25.
Which of the following represents a potential disadvantage of SaaS?
a)
Limited control over software updates and data storage
b)
Guaranteed elimination of maintenance costs
c)
Unlimited offline access regardless of internet
d)
Full ownership of software source code
e)
Immediate customization without vendor approval
26.
An example of utility software is:
a)
Backup and antivirus programs
b)
Spreadsheet and presentation tools
c)
Accounting and HR modules
d)
Project management suite
e)
Marketing analytics platform
27.
A CRM software integrated with email and analytics tools supports:
a)
Customer engagement and data-driven decision-making
b)
Physical equipment maintenance routines
c)
Internal employee payroll processing
d)
General ledger data compression
e)
Unstructured document scanning
28.
When employees use unauthorized apps for work, it creates:
a)
Shadow IT and potential security risk
b)
Improved official compliance across teams
c)
Enhanced governance with strict policies
d)
Centralized approval through audit
e)
Simplified network authentication
29.
Which best describes a database query function?
a)
A request that retrieves specific information from stored data
b)
A process that formats printed reports only
c)
A graphical interface for image editing
d)
A method for data encryption and compression
e)
A log file used for software installation tracking
30.
Which of the following illustrates integrated business software?
a)
A single suite combining finance, HR, and inventory modules
b)
Multiple isolated spreadsheets maintained manually
c)
Independent software copies per user
d)
Unconnected data entry across teams
e)
Outdated standalone databases for storage
31.
An open-source license allows users to:
a)
View, modify, and distribute source code legally
b)
Restrict use to a single machine permanently
c)
Access software only through paid subscriptions
d)
Transfer ownership without compliance
e)
Block collaborative contributions by default
32.
Which is a key advantage of project management software?
a)
Improved scheduling, coordination, and resource tracking
b)
Reduced reporting of progress to management
c)
Guaranteed elimination of human error
d)
Automatic completion of deliverables
e)
Unmonitored task allocation
33.
If a company automates its sales reports using Excel macros, it benefits from:
a)
Reduced manual effort and consistent data formatting
b)
Increased redundancy of information entry
c)
Decreased accuracy of financial calculations
d)
Reduced accountability in forecasting
e)
Elimination of document backup needs
34.
A business adopting AI-powered analytics software gains:
a)
Enhanced insight and predictive decision support
b)
Reduced transparency in customer communication
c)
Automatic elimination of all risks
d)
Manual recording of every data transaction
e)
Exclusion of external data integration
35.
Which describes interoperability in software systems?
a)
Ability of different applications to exchange and use information
b)
Restriction of all data to one department
c)
Segregation of computing resources
d)
Disabling of network connectivity
e)
Automatic data deletion during transfer
36.
When deciding between custom and off-the-shelf software, the key trade-off is:
a)
Cost and flexibility versus time and standardization
b)
Brand recognition versus hardware capacity
c)
Network speed versus system graphics
d)
Server size versus client interface
e)
Installation ease versus encryption strength
37.
A data visualization tool converting raw metrics into charts represents:
a)
Analytical and presentation software function
b)
Physical data recovery process
c)
Hardware network configuration
d)
Utility system maintenance
e)
Manual transaction posting
38.
Software compatibility problems usually arise when:
a)
Applications use different file formats or platforms
b)
All programs share identical architecture
c)
Updates are properly synchronized
d)
Users follow licensing policies
e)
Developers adhere to common standards
39.
Which of the following demonstrates software integration in business?
a)
CRM and accounting tools sharing common customer data
b)
Independent sales teams maintaining separate ledgers
c)
Employees storing personal music on drives
d)
Departments avoiding electronic communication
e)
Managers using paper reports exclusively
40.
When business software includes built-in reporting dashboards, the advantage is:
a)
Immediate access to real-time performance metrics
b)
Reduced analytical capabilities overall
c)
Delayed response to market trends
d)
Increased reliance on paper summaries
e)
Total elimination of visual aids
41.
Which best defines a computer network?
a)
A system of connected devices that share data and resources
b)
A standalone machine performing independent tasks
c)
A file stored locally on multiple hard drives
d)
A collection of unrelated office peripherals
e)
A process for manually duplicating records
42.
Which of the following is an example of a LAN?
a)
Computers linked within a single office area
b)
Global communication across continents
c)
Connections between satellites in orbit
d)
Virtual cloud servers on multiple continents
e)
Telecommunication lines used for public broadcasting
43.
A WAN typically connects:
a)
Networks across large geographic areas
b)
Devices limited to a single desk
c)
Printers and scanners only
d)
Employees within one cubicle
e)
Software modules without hardware links
44.
When an organization creates an internal website for employees, it is called:
a)
Intranet
b)
Extranet
c)
Internet
d)
Virtual LAN
e)
Wireless domain
45.
An extranet is primarily designed to:
a)
Allow authorized external partners to access internal systems
b)
Provide free global access to all users but inside the organization or department only that connect to public places
c)
Replace internal HR functions completely to minimize overhead cost
d)
Disconnect suppliers from enterprise systems to promote exclusivity
e)
Operate offline authentication that can be accessed by technical staff remotely
46.
Which device directs data packets between different networks?
a)
Router
b)
Monitor
c)
Keyboard
d)
Hub
e)
Projector
47.
What does a modem do in a communication system?
a)
Converts digital data to analog and vice versa
b)
Stores permanent program instructions that transfer data across cables
c)
Generates electricity for network servers to power transmission
d)
Manages document design layouts
e)
Protects computers from overheating during network load transfer
48.
Which of the following media uses light pulses to transmit data?
a)
Fiber-optic cable
b)
Twisted-pair wire
c)
Coaxial cable
d)
Microwave antenna
e)
Infrared link
49.
When employees connect remotely through secure channels, they use:
a)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
b)
Open Wi-Fi portal
c)
Public domain network
d)
Offline shared drive
e)
Unencrypted router access
50.
Which protocol is the foundation of Internet communication?
a)
TCP/IP
b)
HTTP
c)
SMTP
d)
FTP
e)
Bluetooth
51.
A company installing wireless routers in every floor is building a:
a)
WLAN
b)
Metropolitan network
c)
Satellite uplink
d)
Cloud cluster
e)
Dial-up connection
52.
Which describes bandwidth?
a)
The amount of data transmitted in a given time
b)
Total number of computers in a network
c)
Speed of printer hardware
d)
The color depth of digital images
e)
The memory used by application software
53.
When communication delay occurs due to congestion, it is known as:
a)
Network latency
b)
Signal strength
c)
Lossless transmission
d)
Circuit optimization
e)
Hardware acceleration
54.
Which of the following is NOT a network topology?
a)
Star
b)
Bus
c)
Tree
d)
Circle
e)
Ring
55.
What is the purpose of a network switch?
a)
Direct data to specific devices within a network
b)
Amplify wireless signals automatically
c)
Store backup files permanently
d)
Translate web pages into code
e)
Measure voltage levels on circuits
56.
In telecommunications, a “packet” refers to:
a)
A small unit of data transmitted across a network
b)
A large physical device connecting routers
c)
A type of encrypted firewall protection
d)
A piece of hardware used for coding
e)
A wireless frequency range for mobile phones
57.
When a business uses VoIP technology, it is:
a)
Transmitting voice through the Internet instead of telephone lines
b)
Upgrading servers to manage payroll software
c)
Building new hardware for office automation during video and audio calls
d)
Encrypting files for data privacy during video calls and data transfer
e)
Disabling mobile access during calls
58.
Which technology enables contactless payments and short-range data exchange?
a)
Near Field Communication (NFC)
b)
Wideband Satellite Network
c)
Optical Scanner Hub
d)
Digital Signature Algorithm
e)
Parallel Port Interface
59.
Cloud networking allows businesses to:
a)
Access computing resources via Internet-based infrastructure
b)
Operate with data even without any form of connectivity available
c)
Store all data in paper-based archives
d)
Disconnect entirely from external networks that promotes data transfer access across the business modules
e)
Use software with minimal hardware support connected and managed by IT data support staff
60.
When several users share files and printers within an office, they rely on:
a)
Local Area Network
b)
Long-distance microwave link peer-to-peer connection
c)
Peer-to-peer cloud internet
d)
Dedicated satellite uplink
e)
Offsite data mirroring service
61.
A firewall’s main function is to:
a)
Control incoming and outgoing network traffic
b)
Compress files for faster transfer from port of one device to another
c)
Generate encryption keys automatically that will be used during data transfer
d)
Balance workloads among CPUs and network workloads
e)
Design interface elements visually across the entire network
62.
Which communication medium is most resistant to electromagnetic interference?
a)
Fiber-optic cable
b)
Twisted pair cable
c)
Coaxial cable
d)
Microwave signals
e)
Infrared transmission
63.
The term “protocol” in networking refers to:
a)
A set of rules governing data communication
b)
Hardware used to store network packets
c)
A type of firewall designed for malware
d)
A device for measuring bandwidth
e)
An encryption key used for cloud storage
64.
A small office connecting computers without cables uses:
a)
Wireless LAN
b)
Wide Area Network
c)
Optical MAN
d)
Dial-up modem
e)
Manual switching network
65.
Which best describes the Internet of Things (IoT)?
a)
Interconnection of everyday devices via the Internet
b)
Exclusive communication between large corporations
c)
A legacy system of manual data exchange
d)
Backup storage for obsolete systems
e)
Virtualized gaming environments only
66.
When two firms securely share data over the Internet, they often use:
a)
Extranet
b)
Private intranet
c)
Open public channel
d)
Offline messenger
e)
Analog line
67.
A company transmitting customer data over the Internet must prioritize:
a)
Data encryption and security
b)
Network expansion and decoration
c)
Visual website aesthetics
d)
File size compression only
e)
Unmonitored access by third parties
68.
Which of the following is an example of wireless broadband technology?
a)
4G LTE connection
b)
Coaxial cable fiber
c)
Ethernet twisted pair
d)
Serial port transfer
e)
Token ring cabling
69.
What distinguishes mobile computing from traditional computing?
a)
Access to network resources anytime and anywhere
b)
Exclusive use of Internet-based services on a specific location for meetings
c)
Exclusive reliance on wired connections connected to infrastructure
d)
Dependence on stationary hardware
e)
Restricted use to office buildings
70.
Which describes a benefit of VoIP for organizations?
a)
Reduced cost and flexible communication options
b)
Increased physical infrastructure costs
c)
Exclusive use of analog telephony
d)
Slower transmission across devices
e)
Elimination of all digital features
71.
When data is transmitted wirelessly between devices, the process is called:
a)
Data communication through radio waves
b)
Physical transfer of hard drives
c)
Optical laser file copying
d)
Manual routing of cables
e)
Mechanical information relaying
72.
Which device connects multiple networks and selects optimal paths?
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
Hub
d)
Repeater
e)
Monitor
73.
The key advantage of fiber-optic over copper cables is:
a)
Higher speed and longer transmission distance
b)
Lower installation quality with more interference
c)
Heavier weight and reduced durability
d)
Complete elimination of network security issues
e)
Dependence on wireless repeaters
74.
When a remote worker accesses company files through VPN, data security is achieved by:
a)
Encrypted tunneling and authentication controls
b)
Public cloud mirroring and free sharing
c)
Local caching of passwords only
d)
Manual verification of printed logs
e)
Disabling of firewall restrictions
75.
What is a primary risk of public Wi-Fi networks?
a)
Potential for data interception by attackers
b)
Guaranteed privacy and encryption
c)
Complete offline protection
d)
Automatic VPN enforcement
e)
Exclusive access by verified employees
76.
Which of the following statements about 5G networks is TRUE?
a)
They provide higher speed and lower latency than previous generations
b)
They eliminate all cyberattacks by default
c)
They only support wired connections
d)
They operate exclusively within intranets
e)
They replace the need for encryption entirely
77.
An example of network convergence is:
a)
Combining voice, video, and data services on a single network
b)
Separating each communication type on dedicated lines
c)
Restricting access to only text-based communication
d)
Installing isolated servers for every department
e)
Using different networks for each function
78.
When an organization’s systems synchronize globally in real time, it demonstrates:
a)
Efficient communication through integrated networks
b)
Dependence on outdated manual procedures
c)
Reduced connectivity across departments
d)
Isolation between users and devices
e)
Complete elimination of hardware assets
79.
Which of the following is NOT a telecommunication device?
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
Printer
d)
Modem
e)
Access point
80.
Which best explains the role of standards such as IEEE 802.11?
a)
They define wireless networking protocols for compatibility
b)
They regulate import taxes for electronics
c)
They identify company financial ratios
d)
They describe HR performance evaluation metrics
e)
They control screen resolution settings
81.
Which best defines a database?
a)
A structured collection of related data stored electronically
b)
A random assortment of documents in a filing cabinet
c)
A temporary cache of downloaded internet files
d)
A program that converts numbers to graphics
e)
A set of unrelated printed reports
82.
The main purpose of a Database Management System (DBMS) is to:
a)
Store, organize, and manage access to data efficiently
b)
Design hardware configuration for faster data access across the network
c)
Produce automatic network backups
d)
Replace communication systems in offices that saves information and transactions
e)
Control web browser configurations
83.
Which of the following is a key advantage of using databases?
a)
Reduced data redundancy and improved consistency
b)
Increased duplication of records across files
c)
Manual entry of all business transactions
d)
Complete elimination of software requirements
e)
Dependence on paper records
84.
A collection of related fields represents a:
a)
Record
b)
Table
c)
Database
d)
File
e)
Attribute
85.
In a relational database, data is organized into:
a)
Tables consisting of rows and columns
b)
Flowcharts of connected processes
c)
Hierarchical diagrams and pivot tables for clumns and rows
d)
Sequential memory blocks that can be relate to one entity to other
e)
Graphic illustrations of users
86.
Which database concept ensures data accuracy and validity?
a)
Data integrity
b)
Data redundancy
c)
Data deletion
d)
Data encryption
e)
Data retrieval
87.
What does SQL stand for?
a)
Structured Query Language
b)
Simple Question Log
c)
Sequential Queue Locator
d)
Standard Query Link
e)
System Query List
88.
A primary key in a table must be:
a)
Unique for each record
b)
Repeated across related fields
c)
Left blank for optional entries
d)
Identical in every table
e)
Deleted when not used
89.
When two tables are connected through common fields, the relationship is called:
a)
Relational link
b)
Sequential mapping
c)
Hierarchical grouping
d)
Linear chaining
e)
Independent attribute
90.
Which of the following is NOT a function of a DBMS?
a)
Data backup
b)
Data retrieval
c)
Hardware manufacturing
d)
Data security
e)
Data manipulation
91.
The process of minimizing data duplication is known as:
a)
Normalization
b)
Encryption
c)
Replication
d)
Decryption
e)
Transformation
92.
A data warehouse is primarily designed for:
a)
Storing large volumes of historical and analytical data
b)
Processing day-to-day transactional entries only
c)
Managing short-term temporary files
d)
Performing direct control of operating systems
e)
Executing social media advertisements
93.
What differentiates operational databases from data warehouses?
a)
Operational databases handle daily transactions; warehouses support analysis
b)
Warehouses store live entries; operational systems store archives
c)
Operational systems are less secure than warehouses
d)
Warehouses replace relational databases entirely
e)
Warehouses require no data integration
94.
Which technology allows users to analyze large amounts of data quickly from multiple perspectives?
a)
OLAP (Online Analytical Processing)
b)
Batch transaction recording and transcoding
c)
File compression utilities like WinZIP and Win RAR
d)
Automated report typing
e)
Physical inventory tracking
95.
Data mining is best described as:
a)
Discovering hidden patterns and trends in large datasets
b)
Printing detailed reports from flat files and linked list in the company's data structure
c)
Designing network security architectures
d)
Transferring files between departments that linked to each other for mining
e)
Encrypting all stored records manually
96.
When multiple copies of the same data exist in different files, this causes:
a)
Data redundancy
b)
Data integrity
c)
Data analysis
d)
Data modeling
e)
Data normalization
97.
Which of the following demonstrates a one-to-many relationship?
a)
One customer placing multiple orders
b)
Many employees reporting to one manager
c)
One supplier linked to one order only
d)
Several warehouses sharing identical IDs
e)
One department using one phone
98.
Which best describes a foreign key?
a)
A field linking a record to another table
b)
A hidden attribute used for encryption of primary key link
c)
A primary key duplicated within one table to other
d)
A unique code replacing a table name to other table for representation
e)
A numeric counter for sorting
99.
A company analyzing sales data from multiple regions for patterns is using:
a)
Data warehouse analytics
b)
Transaction-level monitoring
c)
Hardware performance tracking
d)
Software installation logs
e)
Network packet inspection
100.
When a query retrieves data that matches specific criteria, it performs:
a)
Data selection
b)
Data encryption
c)
Data recovery
d)
Data normalization
e)
Data mapping
101.
Which statement about big data is TRUE?
a)
It consists of extremely large, complex, and rapidly growing datasets
b)
It only includes structured data from databases
c)
It eliminates the need for analytical tools
d)
It relies exclusively on manual collection
e)
It is smaller than traditional records
102.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of data quality?
a)
Accuracy
b)
Timeliness
c)
Consistency
d)
Redundancy
e)
Completeness
103.
An advantage of relational databases is:
a)
Flexibility to link related data without duplication
b)
Requirement to maintain physical paper copies
c)
Restriction to a single user per session
d)
Inability to handle multiple queries
e)
Dependence on manual calculations
104.
Which of the following best describes metadata?
a)
Data that describes other data for management and structure
b)
Random notes attached to printed documents and files attatched to each other
c)
A type of unprocessed transactional record
d)
Encrypted content within databases
e)
Software used for programming interfaces
105.
A data mart is defined as:
a)
A subset of a data warehouse focused on a specific area
b)
A temporary database replacement for enterprise systems
c)
A temporary file used during transactions and flused out after fixed intervals
d)
A single spreadsheet storing all records and transaction withtin a givin time
e)
A graphical interface for printing reports
106.
When a manager uses SQL to sort employee salaries, which function is being performed?
a)
Query processing through DBMS
b)
Hardware optimization for memory
c)
Cloud-based encryption activation
d)
Manual coding of network protocols
e)
Automatic image compression
107.
Which of the following best explains database normalization?
a)
Structuring data to minimize redundancy and improve relationships
b)
Adding duplicate entries for faster lookup and record access handlers
c)
Encrypting all fields for security to normalize the entity related to each table
d)
Converting analog files to digital format in a normal basic table structure
e)
Storing identical values for indexing
108.
When a business integrates multiple data sources into a single view, it achieves:
a)
Unified information management across systems
b)
Redundant replication of inconsistent records
c)
Reduced data accuracy and isolation
d)
Manual entry of disconnected files
e)
Exclusion of customer information
109.
What is a key difference between data and information?
a)
Data are raw facts; information is processed and meaningful
b)
information are raw facts; data is processed and meaningful
c)
Data includes qualitative facts and information includes quantitative facts
d)
Information excludes numeric values data has numeric values
e)
Data is always more valuable than information itself
110.
Which of the following is a key component of business intelligence?
a)
Data warehousing and analytics
b)
Hardware assembly and configuration components
c)
Employee attendance tracking
d)
Email communication filtering
e)
Manual sorting of paper records
111.
A transaction processing system records:
a)
Daily routine business operations
b)
Strategic long-term market forecasts
c)
Executive decision plans
d)
Analytical statistical trends
e)
External social network messages
112.
Which tool is commonly used for managing relational databases?
a)
MySQL
b)
Notepad
c)
MongoDB
d)
Apache Cassandra
e)
Outlook
113.
When data accuracy is compromised due to user input errors, it affects:
a)
Data integrity
b)
Data redundancy
c)
Data mining
d)
Data compression
e)
Data abstraction
114.
An example of data inconsistency is:
a)
Customer name spelled differently across multiple databases
b)
Accurate totals generated automatically by tables with vague data sets
c)
Unique identifiers applied legibly to each records on the table
d)
Records maintained through one database only
e)
Entries verified before saving
115.
Which of the following best illustrates data visualization?
a)
Representing complex data through charts and dashboards
b)
Compressing files into smaller size for storage
c)
Encrypting text for privacy and presenting it in graphical forms
d)
Printing transaction summaries to create visual illustrations
e)
Archiving old reports manually
116.
When historical data are analyzed to predict customer behavior, this process is called:
a)
Predictive analytics
b)
Transactional logging
c)
Real-time processing
d)
Network simulation
e)
Manual estimation
117.
A well-designed database schema provides:
a)
Logical organization that supports efficient storage and retrieval
b)
Random placement of unrelated attributes
c)
Exclusive access to a single department
d)
Hidden duplication of user IDs
e)
Complete isolation of relationships
118.
Which of the following ensures that only authorized users access data?
a)
Database security controls
b)
Data replication processes
c)
Data redundancy policies
d)
Hardware integration standards
e)
Network marketing tools
119.
The ETL process in data warehousing refers to:
a)
Extract, Transform, Load
b)
Encode, Transfer, Link
c)
Encrypt, Track, Log
d)
Execute, Transmit, Locate
e)
Enter, Test, List
120.
When reports are generated from summarized historical data, it supports:
a)
Decision-making through business intelligence
b)
Real-time payroll processing
c)
Immediate transactional recording
d)
Temporary cache storage
e)
Manual documentation filing
121.
Which is a potential challenge in managing big data?
a)
Ensuring data quality, integration, and security
b)
Reducing analytical capacity intentionally
c)
Eliminating all automation tools
d)
Restricting access to trusted systems only
e)
Minimizing available storage completely
122.
What will happen when this query runs: SELECT Name FROM Employees WHERE Department IS NULL;
a)
It returns employees without a recorded department
b)
It lists all employees with departments filled in the NULL or no records
c)
It updates missing department values to NULL
d)
It deletes employees with null departments
e)
It creates a list of departments in the company
123.
Given: UPDATE Staff SET Bonus = Salary * 0.1 WHERE Position = 'Manager'; Which is true about this query?
a)
It modifies bonus values only for managers
b)
It recalculates salary for every staff member
c)
It inserts new manager records into the table
d)
It removes managers from payroll entirely
e)
It changes all staff positions to Manager
124.
Consider: SELECT Department, COUNT(*) AS Total FROM Employees GROUP BY Department HAVING COUNT(*) < 5;
a)
It shows departments with fewer than 5 employees
b)
It lists all departments regardless of size
c)
It hides departments with fewer than 5 employees
d)
It updates department counts automatically
e)
It deletes smaller departments from table
125.
What does the query do? DELETE FROM Orders WHERE OrderDate < '2023-01-01';
a)
Removes all orders placed before January 1, 2023
b)
Lists only orders made in 2023 and beyond january 1, 2023
c)
Delete and Backs up orders created in January 1, 2023
d)
Displays order totals from 2023 to be deleted
e)
Sorts orders by year automatically that is candidate for deletion
126.
If a query reads: SELECT AVG(Salary) FROM Employees WHERE Gender='F'; what does the result represent?
a)
The mean salary of all female employees
b)
The total salaries of female employees
c)
The number of female employees in the company
d)
The average salary of all staff
e)
The highest salary among female staff
127.
Which of the following statements about SQL joins is correct?
a)
INNER JOIN returns only matching records from both tables
b)
LEFT JOIN excludes matches from the left table
c)
FULL JOIN removes duplicate rows permanently
d)
CROSS JOIN filters records by default
e)
RIGHT JOIN always produces null values
128.
Given: SELECT Name FROM Clients WHERE Country IN ('Japan','Korea'); what does it retrieve?
a)
Clients located in Japan or Korea only
b)
Clients located outside Japan and Korea
c)
All clients in every region
d)
Only clients with null country values
e)
Clients with names containing “Japan”
129.
Consider: SELECT * FROM Products WHERE Price BETWEEN 50 AND 200 AND Category <> 'Food'; What is shown?
a)
Products priced 50–200 that are not in the Food category
b)
Only Food products between 50–200
c)
All Food and Beverage products combined
d)
Items cheaper than 50 or higher than 200
e)
All categories without prices
130.
If this command executes: TRUNCATE TABLE Logs; what will occur?
a)
All data in Logs is permanently removed but table structure remains
b)
The table and its structure are deleted
c)
The oldest log entry only is deleted
d)
The data is backed up before deletion
e)
The records are archived to another schema
131.
Given: SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Department) FROM Employees; what does it return?
a)
The number of unique departments in the table
b)
The total number of employee records
c)
The sum of all department codes
d)
The highest department count value
e)
The average number of employees per department
132.
What is true about this query? SELECT * FROM Students WHERE Grade >= 85 OR Section = 'A';
a)
It includes students with grade 85+ or in Section A
b)
It limits output to only Section A
c)
It filters both grade and section simultaneously
d)
It excludes Section A entirely
e)
It returns only students below grade 85
133.
A query reads: SELECT Name, COUNT(*) FROM Orders GROUP BY Name ORDER BY COUNT(*) DESC; what does it show?
a)
Customers arranged by number of orders from most to least
b)
Products ranked alphabetically
c)
All customers sorted randomly
d)
Names with no matching records first
e)
Incomplete records only
134.
When the condition in a WHERE clause is false for all rows, what happens?
a)
No records are returned
b)
All records are deleted
c)
All records are updated to null
d)
The database connection fails
e)
One random record appears
135.
Given: SELECT Department, SUM(Salary) FROM Employees GROUP BY Department HAVING SUM(Salary) > 100000;
a)
Departments with total salary cost greater than 100,000
b)
All departments sorted by salary
c)
Departments with salary less than 100,000
d)
All employees regardless of department
e)
Only the HR department records
136.
What will this query produce? SELECT Name FROM Employees WHERE Name LIKE '_a%';
a)
Names with ‘a’ as the second letter in the string
b)
Names ending with the letter ‘a’
c)
Names starting with ‘a’
d)
All names containing at least one ‘a’
e)
Names that contain two ‘a’s consecutively
137.
What is the purpose of the SQL clause LIMIT 5;
a)
It restricts the output to five records only
b)
It adds five new rows to the table
c)
It deletes five random records
d)
It repeats every fifth record twice
e)
It renames columns in five-character format
138.
Given: SELECT Product, Price FROM Items ORDER BY Price ASC LIMIT 1; what does it return?
a)
The cheapest item in the Items table
b)
The most expensive product
c)
The average price of all items
d)
The last item alphabetically
e)
All items priced above the mean
139.
Which of the following describes the UNION operator?
a)
Combines results from multiple queries into one set
b)
Deletes duplicate entries between queries
c)
Compares table structures only
d)
Creates new rows by overwriting data
e)
Merges columns horizontally by index
140.
A subquery used in the WHERE clause must:
a)
Return a value or set that can be compared by the main query
b)
Be placed before the SELECT keyword
c)
Always return multiple unrelated tables
d)
Modify the structure of the main query
e)
Contain no conditional expressions
141.
What is the difference between DELETE and DROP in SQL?
a)
DELETE removes data but keeps table; DROP removes table structure
b)
DELETE permanently removes table structure
c)
DELETE cannot use WHERE; DROP always uses WHERE
d)
DROP removes data temporarily only
e)
DELETE deletes database indexes only
142.
A company’s internal website suddenly becomes unreachable from home offices, but still works onsite. What is the most likely cause?
a)
VPN configuration failure preventing remote tunnel access
b)
A mismatch between database credentials and domain controllers
c)
Incorrect permissions assigned to the organization’s DNS records
d)
A full hard drive on the local file system hosting the internal page
e)
An expired SSL certificate preventing local users from authentication
143.
Users report slow access to a cloud CRM system during peak hours. Which network factor is most likely responsible?
a)
Insufficient bandwidth allocation causing congestion during high traffic
b)
Firewall rules prioritizing video streams instead of business apps
c)
Packet filtering restrictions blocking specific web service ports
d)
Incorrect routing table entries created by dynamic configuration scripts
e)
Excessive client-side caching leading to repeated authentication errors
144.
After replacing a router, several departments lose access to shared drives. Which network setting should be verified first?
a)
IP address routing and subnet configuration inconsistencies across VLANs
b)
Misconfigured printer-sharing protocols within the office intranet
c)
Group policy inheritance issues from an outdated Active Directory
d)
Expired digital certificates used for file server encryption
e)
Power fluctuations disrupting network-attached storage connectivity
145.
A company experiences intermittent wireless disconnections in a crowded office. What is the most probable cause?
a)
Overlapping Wi-Fi channels causing signal interference between access points
b)
Router firmware updates triggering periodic reboot sequences
c)
Inconsistent DHCP lease times assigned to wireless devices
d)
Low battery output from wireless transmitters affecting data signals
e)
Incorrectly mounted access points obstructed by HVAC installations
146.
Two branch offices on different continents need secure real-time file exchange. What is the best networking solution?
a)
Implementation of an encrypted VPN tunnel with end-to-end authentication
b)
Deployment of public FTP servers accessible via open port configurations
c)
Using periodic email attachments compressed with standard ZIP encryption
d)
Establishing a single shared account through cloud-based spreadsheets
e)
Physical transport of external drives using scheduled courier shipments
147.
A network administrator observes high packet loss between routers. Which is the most likely root cause?
a)
Faulty cabling or network congestion between critical routing nodes
b)
Incorrect IP addressing in subnet masks affecting packet forwarding
c)
Obsolete switch firmware producing incomplete packet fragmentation
d)
Hardware temperature throttling on network interface cards
e)
Simultaneous link aggregation misconfigured across redundant interfaces
148.
Employees can connect to Wi-Fi but cannot browse external websites. What should the administrator check first?
a)
DNS server configuration and Internet gateway routing parameters
b)
Incorrectly assigned SSID broadcast names conflicting with access control lists
c)
Firewall time synchronization settings used for session expiration timers
d)
Misconfigured VLAN tagging for wireless segments across multiple routers
e)
Overloaded authentication server rejecting external domain credentials
149.
During a video conference, the image lags while audio is clear. Which network parameter should be investigated?
a)
Available bandwidth and latency consistency between communication endpoints
b)
Incorrect multicast routing tables distributing packets to wrong channels
c)
Content caching policies preventing real-time frame updates in browsers
d)
DNS round-trip times exceeding standard threshold for UDP traffic
e)
Quality of Service prioritization weights assigned to media streaming packets
150.
A data center requires maximum uptime and redundant Internet connections. Which design principle should be applied?
a)
Implement network redundancy and automatic failover mechanisms across ISPs
b)
Adopt static routing exclusively to reduce latency between servers
c)
Restrict all communication to a single high-capacity primary cable
d)
Disable link aggregation to avoid packet loss from simultaneous channels
e)
Run diagnostic sweeps daily instead of adding physical redundancy
151.
A system administrator notices unauthorized access attempts from an unknown IP. What should be the immediate response?
a)
Block the source IP and review detailed firewall intrusion logs
b)
Reset all user accounts without verifying the incident’s scope
c)
Initiate a system-wide reboot to refresh all network interfaces
d)
Temporarily disable encryption services for faster threat scanning
e)
Notify end users to continue normal operation without escalation
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