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Introduction to Health and Public Health Quiz

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the World Health Organization’s definition of health?

a)

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

b)

The absence of physical illness only.

c)

A state of mental well-being only.

d)

The ability to perform daily tasks without assistance.

2.

Which of the following is a limitation of the WHO definition of health?

a)

It is idealistic and views health as a “state,” not recognizing its changing, dynamic nature.

b)

It focuses only on physical health.

c)

It ignores mental health.

d)

It is too specific about diseases.

3.

Which of the following best describes the difference between public health and global health?

a)

Public health focuses on collective actions within a society, while global health addresses issues that cross national boundaries and require international cooperation.

b)

Public health is only about hospitals, while global health is about clinics.

c)

Public health is about individual care, while global health is about group care.

d)

Public health is about mental health, while global health is about physical health.

4.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five domains of health?

a)

Financial status

b)

Genetics

c)

Behavioral choices

d)

Medical care

5.

Which of the following is an example of a community?

a)

A neighborhood or an online support group

b)

A single individual

c)

A hospital

d)

A government agency

6.

Which of the following is a physical factor that affects health?

a)

Geography (climate-related diseases)

b)

Beliefs/traditions (dietary customs)

c)

Politics (public policies)

d)

Social norms (tobacco use)

7.

Which of the following is a social or cultural factor that affects health?

a)

Economy (poverty levels)

b)

Genetics

c)

Environmental conditions

d)

Industrial development

8.

What is herd immunity?

a)

Protection of unvaccinated individuals when most of a population is immune to an infectious disease.

b)

Immunity gained by receiving a vaccine.

c)

Immunity that lasts for a lifetime.

d)

Immunity that only affects animals.

9.

Why is the Shattuck Report significant?

a)

It outlined the public health system for the U.S. and led to health departments.

b)

It discovered the germ theory.

c)

It established the World Health Organization.

d)

It created the first hospital.

10.

Which legislation improved medical care and hospital quality in the United States?

a)

The Hill-Burton Act of 1946

b)

The Affordable Care Act

c)

The Clean Air Act

d)

The Social Security Act

11.

What was John Snow known for?

a)

Tracing a cholera outbreak to a water pump in London and being the father of modern epidemiology.

b)

Developing the first vaccine.

c)

Discovering penicillin.

d)

Inventing the microscope.

12.

What was Louis Pasteur known for?

a)

Developing germ theory and pasteurization.

b)

Inventing the stethoscope.

c)

Creating the first antibiotic.

d)

Developing anesthesia.

13.

What was Robert Koch known for?

a)

Identified the causative agents of tuberculosis, anthrax, and cholera.

b)

Discovered the polio vaccine.

c)

Developed antiseptic surgery techniques.

d)

Introduced the concept of herd immunity.

14.

What was Upton Sinclair known for?

a)

Exposed unsanitary meatpacking practices in The Jungle, leading to food safety reforms.

b)

Developed the first vaccine for rabies.

c)

Discovered penicillin.

d)

Advocated for universal healthcare.

15.

What was Major Walter Reed known for?

a)

Proved mosquitoes transmit yellow fever.

b)

Discovered the structure of DNA.

c)

Developed the first heart transplant.

d)

Invented the microscope.

16.

What was Lemuel Shattuck known for?

a)

Wrote the Shattuck Report; advocated public health reform.

b)

Discovered the polio vaccine.

c)

Developed the first X-ray machine.

d)

Introduced antiseptic techniques in surgery.

17.

What were major events of community and public health in early civilizations (before 500 CE)?

a)

Sanitation practices and disease control (e.g., drainage systems in ancient societies).

b)

Discovery of antibiotics.

c)

Introduction of vaccination programs.

d)

Establishment of modern hospitals.

18.

What were major events in the Middle Ages (500–1500 CE)?

a)

Spiritual explanations for disease; plagues like the Black Death.

b)

Discovery of germ theory.

c)

Development of antibiotics.

d)

Introduction of universal healthcare.

19.

What were major events in the Renaissance and Exploration (1500–1700 CE)?

a)

Scientific investigation of disease; environmental causes recognized.

b)

Introduction of vaccination programs.

c)

Discovery of penicillin.

d)

Establishment of the World Health Organization.

20.

What were major events in the eighteenth century?

a)

Industrial growth and first vaccines; sanitation improvements.

b)

Discovery of antibiotics.

c)

Introduction of Medicare and Medicaid.

d)

Establishment of the United Nations.

21.

What were major events in the nineteenth century?

a)

Germ theory established; modern public health era begins.

b)

Discovery of DNA structure.

c)

Introduction of universal health coverage.

d)

Development of the first MRI machine.

22.

Explain the Health Resources Development Period (1900–1960).

a)

Growth in medical research, hospitals, and health services.

b)

Introduction of the polio vaccine.

c)

Establishment of the CDC.

d)

Discovery of antibiotics.

23.

Explain the Period of Social Engineering (1960–1973).

a)

Government created Medicare and Medicaid programs.

b)

Introduction of the first heart transplant.

c)

Discovery of penicillin.

d)

Establishment of the World Health Organization.

24.

Explain the Period of Health Promotion (1974–present).

a)

Focus on prevention, lifestyle changes, and wellness.

b)

Introduction of universal healthcare.

c)

Discovery of the polio vaccine.

d)

Establishment of the CDC.

25.

What is the National Prevention Strategy, and who oversees it?

a)

Created by the National Prevention Council under the Affordable Care Act to improve U.S. health through prevention.

b)

Developed by the World Health Organization to eradicate infectious diseases.

c)

Established by the CDC to monitor disease outbreaks.

d)

Initiated by the United Nations to promote global health.

26.

What is Healthy People 2030?

a)

A federal initiative setting national health objectives to improve population health and reduce disparities.

b)

A global campaign to eradicate malaria.

c)

A program to provide free healthcare to all citizens.

d)

An initiative to develop new vaccines for emerging diseases.

27.

What are the WHO Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

a)

17 global goals to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure health and well-being for all.

b)

10 goals to improve education worldwide.

c)

5 objectives to reduce air pollution.

d)

20 targets to increase economic growth.

28.

Why is community organizing and planning important?

a)

It empowers communities to identify and solve their health problems collectively.

b)

It increases government funding for health programs.

c)

It reduces the need for health professionals.

d)

It eliminates all health problems immediately.

29.

What are the three core functions of public health?

a)

Assessment, policy development, and assurance.

b)

Diagnosis, treatment, and prevention.

c)

Education, enforcement, and evaluation.

d)

Research, funding, and regulation.

30.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 essential public health services?

a)

Performing surgery on patients.

b)

Monitor health.

c)

Diagnose problems.

d)

Mobilize partnerships.

31.

What is the most well-known international health agency and its function?

a)

The World Health Organization (WHO); directs international health within the UN system.

b)

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC); regulates food safety.

c)

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA); provides health insurance.

d)

The American Red Cross; funds global health research.

32.

Which agency is responsible for tracking disease, promoting health, and preventing outbreaks in the United States?

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

World Health Organization (WHO)

d)

American Cancer Society

33.

How do state and local health departments work together?

a)

State health departments set policies; local departments implement programs and services.

b)

Local health departments set policies; state departments implement them.

c)

Both only provide funding to hospitals.

d)

They operate independently without coordination.

34.

What is the Whole School, Whole Community, Whole Child (WSCC) model?

a)

A framework linking health and learning, including health education, nutrition, environment, counseling, and community involvement.

b)

A government program for free school lunches.

c)

A private insurance plan for children.

d)

A hospital-based health initiative.

35.

Which of the following is an example of a quasi-governmental agency?

a)

American Red Cross

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

c)

World Health Organization (WHO)

d)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

36.

What is a key characteristic of a nongovernmental health agency?

a)

Independent, funded by donations or membership dues, and focused on specific health goals.

b)

Operated by the federal government.

c)

Funded only by taxes.

d)

Provides only emergency medical care.

37.

Which of the following is a voluntary health agency?

a)

American Cancer Society

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

World Health Organization (WHO)

38.

Why might someone join a professional health organization?

a)

For networking, continuing education, and advocacy opportunities.

b)

To receive free medical care.

c)

To avoid paying taxes.

d)

To become a government official.

39.

How do philanthropic foundations contribute to community health?

a)

Provide large-scale funding for health initiatives.

b)

Offer free medical insurance to all citizens.

c)

Operate local health departments.

d)

Regulate food and drug safety.

40.

How do service, social, and religious groups help public health?

a)

Provide volunteer support, community programs, and resources.

b)

Only offer religious counseling.

c)

Run hospitals exclusively.

d)

Fund only government health agencies.

41.

What is one major historical contribution of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

a)

Eradicated smallpox and promotes global disease prevention.

b)

Invented the polio vaccine.

c)

Regulates food and drug safety in the US.

d)

Provides health insurance to all UN members.

42.

What is an epidemic?

a)

An unexpected increase in disease cases

b)

A disease that is always present in a population

c)

A worldwide outbreak of a disease

d)

A decrease in disease cases

43.

Which of the following is an example of a pandemic?

a)

COVID-19

b)

Malaria in Africa

c)

Ebola outbreak in a village

d)

Chickenpox in a school

44.

What is an endemic disease?

a)

A disease regularly found in a region

b)

A disease that spreads worldwide

c)

A sudden outbreak of a disease

d)

A disease that only affects animals

45.

Which of the following best describes the difference between natality, morbidity, and mortality?

a)

Natality = births, Morbidity = illness, Mortality = deaths

b)

Natality = deaths, Morbidity = births, Mortality = illness

c)

Natality = illness, Morbidity = deaths, Mortality = births

d)

Natality = deaths, Morbidity = births, Mortality = illness

46.

Why are rates important in community health?

a)

They allow comparison of health events across populations and time

b)

They increase the number of reported cases

c)

They reduce the spread of diseases

d)

They only track deaths

47.

What is the difference between crude and adjusted rates?

a)

Crude is overall; adjusted is statistically modified for fair comparison

b)

Crude is for deaths; adjusted is for births

c)

Crude is for one region; adjusted is for the world

d)

Crude is for chronic diseases; adjusted is for acute diseases

48.

Define prevalence and incidence.

a)

Prevalence = total existing cases; Incidence = new cases

b)

Prevalence = new cases; Incidence = total cases

c)

Prevalence = deaths; Incidence = births

d)

Prevalence = illnesses; Incidence = recoveries

49.

Why is prevalence more useful for chronic diseases?

a)

It reflects the ongoing burden over time

b)

It only measures new cases

c)

It tracks only deaths

d)

It is used for acute diseases only

50.

What are notifiable diseases?

a)

Diseases required by law to be reported

b)

Diseases that are always present in a region

c)

Diseases that do not require treatment

d)

Diseases that are only found in animals

51.

What is different about reportable diseases?

a)

They must be reported to authorities for public health tracking

b)

They are only tracked in hospitals

c)

They do not require any reporting

d)

They are only found in children

52.

What are barriers to accurate reporting?

a)

Incomplete data, lack of access, misdiagnosis, or underreporting

b)

Too many doctors, overreporting, and high technology

c)

Excessive funding, accurate data, and overdiagnosis

d)

Complete data, easy access, and correct diagnosis

53.

What is the U.S. Census?

a)

A population count every 10 years that collects demographic data

b)

A survey of only health professionals

c)

A yearly count of disease cases

d)

A monthly report on births and deaths

54.

What data are in the CDC’s Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report?

a)

Disease trends, outbreaks, and public health updates

b)

Only birth rates

c)

Only death rates

d)

Only hospital admissions

55.

Name five important national health surveys.

a)

NHIS, NHANES, BRFSS, National Health Care Survey, Youth Risk Behavior Survey

b)

U.S. Census, World Health Survey, National Food Survey, School Health Survey, City Health Survey

c)

CDC Weekly Report, Hospital Survey, State Health Survey, National Disease Survey, Family Health Survey

d)

Birth Rate Survey, Death Rate Survey, Illness Survey, Recovery Survey, Immunization Survey

56.

What information is gathered in descriptive studies?

a)

Who, what, where, when (person, place, time)

b)

Only the number of deaths

c)

Only the number of births

d)

Only the number of hospitals

57.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four classifications of diseases?

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Communicable

d)

Genetic

58.

What does infectivity refer to?

a)

Ability to cause disease

b)

Ability to enter and multiply

c)

Ability to prevent disease

d)

Ability to transmit disease through air

59.

Which of the following best describes the communicable disease model?

a)

A triangle of host, agent, and environment interactions

b)

A list of symptoms for diseases

c)

A chart of disease rates over time

d)

A method for treating chronic diseases

60.

What is the correct order of the chain of infection?

a)

Pathogen → Reservoir → Portal of exit → Transmission → Portal of entry → New host

b)

Reservoir → Pathogen → Transmission → Portal of exit → Portal of entry → New host

c)

Pathogen → Transmission → Reservoir → Portal of exit → Portal of entry → New host

d)

Pathogen → Portal of exit → Reservoir → Transmission → Portal of entry → New host

61.

Why is breaking any link in the chain of infection important?

a)

It stops disease transmission

b)

It increases disease spread

c)

It causes new diseases to form

d)

It only affects chronic diseases

62.

Which of the following is an example of indirect transmission?

a)

Droplet spread

b)

Direct contact

c)

Airborne transmission

d)

Handshaking

63.

What does the multicausation disease model illustrate?

a)

How multiple factors like genetics, behavior, and environment cause disease

b)

How diseases are classified

c)

How to treat diseases

d)

How to prevent diseases

64.

Which statement best explains the difference between prevention and intervention?

a)

Prevention happens after onset; intervention happens before onset

b)

Prevention stops disease before it occurs; intervention happens after onset

c)

Prevention and intervention are the same

d)

Intervention is only for communicable diseases

65.

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

a)

Vaccination

b)

Screening for early detection

c)

Managing disease with rehabilitation

d)

Quarantine

66.

Which of the following best defines a vector?

a)

A person with disease

b)

An asymptomatic transmitter

c)

A living transmitter such as a mosquito

d)

A non-living transmitter like water

67.

What is the main difference between isolation and quarantine?

a)

Isolation separates exposed but not yet sick; quarantine separates sick

b)

Isolation separates sick; quarantine separates exposed but not yet sick

c)

Both are the same

d)

Isolation is for chronic diseases only

68.

Why are vaccinations important?

a)

They prevent outbreaks and maintain herd immunity

b)

They cure all diseases

c)

They only help individuals, not communities

d)

They are only for children

69.

A public health official is planning to reduce the spread of a communicable disease in a community. Which strategy would be most effective based on the chain of infection model?

a)

Breaking any link in the chain of infection

b)

Focusing only on treating sick individuals

c)

Ignoring environmental factors

d)

Waiting until an outbreak occurs

70.

A researcher wants to test hypotheses about the causes of a disease. Which type of study should they conduct?

a)

Analytic study

b)

Observational study

c)

Descriptive study

d)

Case study

71.

A person is exposed to a disease but is not yet showing symptoms. According to public health guidelines, what should be done?

a)

Quarantine the person

b)

Isolate the person

c)

Vaccinate the person

d)

Treat the person with antibiotics

72.

What is chronic stress?

a)

Ongoing stress that harms physical and mental health over time.

b)

Temporary stress that improves mental health.

c)

Stress that only affects physical health.

d)

Stress that occurs only during childhood.

73.

Which of the following is an example of a policy that supports health inequities?

a)

Unequal school funding

b)

Universal healthcare

c)

Free public transportation

d)

Equal housing opportunities

74.

What is the health-wealth gradient?

a)

Higher income is linked to better health outcomes.

b)

Wealth has no impact on health.

c)

Lower income leads to better health outcomes.

d)

Health and wealth are unrelated.

75.

How does socioeconomic status (SES) impact health?

a)

Lower SES correlates with more disease and shorter life expectancy.

b)

Higher SES leads to more disease.

c)

SES does not impact health.

d)

Lower SES correlates with longer life expectancy.

76.

What is meant by "control over destiny" in public health?

a)

The sense of personal power; higher control improves health outcomes.

b)

The ability to control others' health.

c)

The power to change government policies.

d)

The ability to predict future health trends.

77.

Which of the following is an upstream intervention approach?

a)

Addressing root causes like education, housing, and employment.

b)

Treating symptoms with medication.

c)

Providing emergency care only.

d)

Ignoring social factors in health.

78.

Why is cultural competence vital in public health?

a)

It ensures respectful, effective care for diverse populations.

b)

It increases healthcare costs.

c)

It reduces the need for public health programs.

d)

It limits access to healthcare.

79.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four requirements of public health?

a)

Assessment

b)

Policy development

c)

Assurance

d)

Diagnosis

80.

Which of the following is a social determinant of health?

a)

Income

b)

Hair color

c)

Favorite food

d)

Eye color

81.

What is the difference between equality and equity?

a)

Equality means same resources; equity means resources based on need.

b)

Equality means resources based on need; equity means same resources.

c)

Equality and equity mean the same thing.

d)

Equality means no resources; equity means all resources.

82.

How does justice differ from equity?

a)

Justice removes the systemic barriers that create inequity.

b)

Justice provides equal resources to everyone.

c)

Justice and equity are identical concepts.

d)

Justice increases systemic barriers.

83.

Does a person making minimum wage usually meet poverty guidelines?

a)

Yes; federal minimum wage is below the poverty threshold for families.

b)

No; minimum wage is always above the poverty threshold.

c)

Yes; minimum wage guarantees wealth.

d)

No; minimum wage is not related to poverty guidelines.

84.

Describe the relationship between income and health.

a)

Higher income = better access to healthcare and longer lifespan.

b)

Lower income = better access to healthcare.

c)

Income does not affect health.

d)

Higher income = shorter lifespan.

85.

Describe the relationship between education and health.

a)

More education = healthier behaviors, higher income, better access to care.

b)

Less education = healthier behaviors.

c)

Education does not affect health.

d)

More education = lower income.