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Airframe chap 1+2+6+9

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of the wing main spar?

a)

To withstand bending and torsional loads

b)

To withstand compressive and torsional loads

c)

To withstand compressive and shear loads

d)

To withstand bending and shear loads

2.

What is the purpose of wing ribs?

a)

To withstand the fatigue stresses

b)

To shape the wing and support the skin

c)

To house the fuel and the landing gear

d)

To provide local support for the skin

3.

What is the purpose of stringers?

a)

To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses

b)

To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres

c)

To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin

d)

To support the primary control surfaces

4.

The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

a)

the design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor

b)

the design limit load plus the design ultimate load

c)

three times the safety factor

d)

the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety

5.

In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

a)

provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels

b)

oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage

c)

form the entrance door posts

d)

support the wings

6.

How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

a)

By using aileron 'up-float' and keeping the centresection fuel tanks full for as long as possible

b)

By using aileron 'up-float' and using the fuel in the wings last

c)

By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron 'down-float'

d)

By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first

7.

Regarding a safe life structure: 1. will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use. 2. should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved. 3. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults. 4. is changed before its predicted life is reached.

a)

1 and 2 apply

b)

1 and 3 apply

c)

2, 3 and 4 apply

d)

all of the above apply

8.

A fail-safe structure: 1. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults; 2. is changed before its predicted life is reached; 3. has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural damage; 4. is secondary structure of no structural significance.

a)

1 and 2 apply

b)

1 and 3 apply

c)

3 and 4 apply

d)

all of the above apply

9.

The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:

a)

is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle

b)

houses the crew and the payload

c)

provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather

d)

is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads

10.

The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

a)

support the wings

b)

house the crew and payload

c)

keep out adverse weather

d)

provide access to the cockpit

11.

Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

a)

a means of locating airframe structure and components

b)

passenger seat locations

c)

runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal

d)

compass alignment markings

12.

Flight deck windows are constructed from:

a)

an amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals

b)

strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals

c)

strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals

d)

strengthened glass with rubber seals

13.

A cantilever wing:

a)

is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires

b)

is supported at one end only with no external bracing

c)

has both an upper an lower aerofoil section

d)

folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

14.

A torsion box:

a)

is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads

b)

is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads

c)

is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear

d)

is a structure designed to reduce the weight

15.

A lightening hole in a rib:

a)

prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage

b)

provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead

c)

collects and disposes of electrical charges

d)

lightens and stiffens the structure

16.

Control surface flutter:

a)

provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the event of engine failure

b)

occurs at high angles of attack

c)

is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope

d)

is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing

17.

Control surface flutter is minimized by:

a)

reducing the moment of the critical engine

b)

aerodynamic balance of the control cables

c)

changing the wings before they reach their critical life

d)

mass balance of the control surface

18.

A damage tolerant structure:

a)

has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area

b)

is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft

c)

is replaced when it reaches its predicted life

d)

need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

19.

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

a)

light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

b)

magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength

c)

aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

d)

aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

20.

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

a)

the maximum permissible take-off mass of the aircraft

b)

the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no usable fuel

c)

the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload

d)

the maximum permissible landing mass

21.

A force of 100 N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02 m2 and the other is 0.04 m2:

a)

the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2000 Pa and the larger 4000 Pa

b)

the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5000 Pa and the larger 2500 Pa

c)

both jacks will move at the same speed

d)

both have the same load

22.

A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The system is then pressurized to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will read:

a)

500 bar

b)

1000 bar

c)

1500 bar

d)

2500 bar

23.

The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of:

a)

the air in the accumulator

b)

the air and hydraulic fluid in the system

c)

the proportional pressure in the system

d)

the hydraulic fluid in the system

24.

A shuttle valve:

a)

is used to replace NRVs

b)

allows two supply sources to operate one unit

c)

allows one source to operate two units

d)

acts as a non-return valve

25.

Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based:

a)

red, mineral

b)

red, synthetic

c)

green, mineral

d)

purple, synthetic

26.

A restrictor valve:

a)

is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure

b)

controls the rate of movement of a service

c)

controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system

d)

controls the distance a jack moves

27.

With a hyd lock there is:

a)

flow, but no jack movement

b)

no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects

c)

no flow, jack is stationary

d)

constant flow

28.

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:

a)

high operating fluid temperature

b)

system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion

c)

a rise in the reservoir fill level

d)

normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used

29.

Accumulator floating piston:

a)

pushes the fluid up when being charged

b)

pushes the fluid down when being charged

c)

provides a seal between the gas and fluid

d)

prevents a hydraulic lock

30.

A relief valve:

a)

relieves below system pressure

b)

maintains pressure to a priority circuit

c)

relieves at its designed pressure

d)

prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature

31.

The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

a)

to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion

b)

to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored

c)

to indicate system contents

d)

to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator

32.

With air in the hydraulic system you would:

a)

ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b)

bleed the air out of the system

c)

allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself

d)

expect it to operate faster

33.

The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

a)

filters the fluid returning to the tank

b)

is fitted down stream of the pump

c)

can be by passed when maximum flow is required

d)

clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir

34.

Pascal's law states that:

a)

pressure is inversely proportional to load

b)

liquid is compressible

c)

oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators

d)

applied force acts equally in all directions

35.

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

a)

an automatic cut-out

b)

engine RPM

c)

a control piston

d)

a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature

36.

A high pressure hydraulic pump:

a)

needs a positive fluid supply

b)

does not need a positive fluid supply

c)

outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force

d)

does not need a cooling fluid flow

37.

Case drain filters are:

a)

fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system

b)

designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere

c)

to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition

d)

fitted in the reservoir outlet

38.

The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a)

relieve excess pressure

b)

store fluid under pressure

c)

store compressed gas for tyre inflation

d)

remove air from the system

39.

With a one way check valve (NRV):

a)

flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure

b)

flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump

c)

flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure

d)

flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure

40.

A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:

a)

U/C up line and flap up line

b)

U/C down line and flap up line

c)

U/C down line and flap down line

d)

supply line to the U/C retraction actuator

41.

In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

a)

a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it

b)

a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it

c)

a full flow relief valve is not required

d)

the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump rpm

42.

Hydraulic pressure of 3000 Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02 m2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04 m2:

a)

both have the same force

b)

both jacks will move at the same speed

c)

the smaller jack will exert a force of 600 N and the larger 1200 N

d)

the smaller jack will exert a force of 60 N and the larger 120 N

43.

A separator in an accumulator:

a)

isolates the gas from the fluid

b)

reduces the size of the accumulator required

c)

removes the dissolved gases from the fluid

d)

maintains the fluid level in the reservoir

44.

In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:

a)

greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack

b)

greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator

c)

high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel

d)

the same at all points

45.

The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurized. The contents level will:

a)

fall below the 'full' mark

b)

fall to a position marked 'full accs charged'

c)

remain at the same level

d)

rise above the 'full' mark

46.

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

a)

enables ground operation of services when the engines are off

b)

is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services

c)

is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure

d)

is used to increase pressure in the system

47.

A hydraulic lock occurs:

a)

when the thermal RV operates

b)

when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank

c)

when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move

d)

when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir

48.

In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

a)

more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder

b)

more at the cylinder end than the piston head

c)

more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary

d)

the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head

49.

A non-return valve:

a)

can only be fitted if provided with a by-pass selector

b)

closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure

c)

opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure

d)

closes if inlet pressure ceases

50.

Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:

a)

rapid jack movements

b)

no effect on system

c)

rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating

d)

rapid and smooth operation of system

51.

Hammering in system:

a)

is normal and does not affect the system's efficiency

b)

is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations

c)

is an indication that a further selection is necessary

d)

is detrimental to the system

52.

The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:

a)

always distinguishable by taste and smell

b)

generally distinguishable by colour

c)

generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer

d)

cannot be distinguished by colour alone

53.

An ACOV will:

a)

provide an idling circuit when a selection is made

b)

extend the life of the accumulator

c)

provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged

d)

ensure the pump is always on load

54.

The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

a)

allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required

b)

allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the wheels locking

c)

prevent over pressurizing the reservoir as altitude increases

d)

prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured

55.

A shuttle valve will allow:

a)

the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down

b)

the pressure pump to off load when the system pressure is reached

c)

two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component

d)

high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief Valve fails

56.

The purpose of a reservoir is to:

a)

compensate for temperature changes

b)

compensate for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement

c)

compensate for fluid loss

d)

minimize pump cavitation

57.

When the hydraulic system pressure is released:

a)

reservoir air pressure will increase

b)

reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system

c)

reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system

d)

reservoir contents are dumped overboard

58.

Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:

a)

is greater in pipes of larger diameters

b)

is greater in pipes of smaller diameters

c)

does not vary with pipe diameter

d)

varies in direct proportion to the system demands

59.

Skydrol hydraulic fluid:

a)

needs no special safety precautions or treatment

b)

is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints

c)

is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints

d)

is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way

60.

Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:

a)

any hydraulic system without restriction

b)

hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only

c)

any hydraulic system in an emergency

d)

hydraulic systems that have neoprene seals only

61.

A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:

a)

minimum stroke

b)

an optimized position depending on fluid viscosity

c)

maximum stroke

d)

mid stroke

62.

The purpose of a reservoir is:

a)

to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters

b)

to enable the contents to be checked

c)

to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring

d)

to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps

63.

Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:

a)

to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation

b)

to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation

c)

to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation

d)

in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises

64.

A main system hydraulic pump:

a)

does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup

b)

always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation

c)

does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation

d)

can be run dry without causing any damage

65.

Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:

a)

exert the same force

b)

will lift equal loads

c)

will move at the same speed

d)

exert different forces

66.

A force of 1500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002 m2 and generates a force of-----(1)------non a piston of area 0.003 m2. The pressure generated is -----(2)----- and, if the smaller piston moves 0.025 m, the work done is -----(3)------.

a)

(1) 56.25 J (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 750 000 N

b)

(1) 750 000 N (2) 2250 P (3) 56.25 J

c)

(1) 225 N (2) 75 000 Pa (3) 562.5 J

d)

(1) 2250 N (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 37.5 J

67.

The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of an accumulator is to: 1. Store fluid under pressure; 2. Dampen pressure fluctuations; 3. Allow for fluid expansion; 4. Replace the need for a reservoir; 5. Absorb some of the landing loads; 6. Allow for thermal expansion; 7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out; 8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut-out; 9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure. Which of the following applies?

a)

All of the statements are correct

b)

None of the statements are correct

c)

Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct

d)

Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct

68.

The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification are respectively:

a)

natural rubber and neoprene

b)

neoprene and natural rubber

c)

butyl and neoprene

d)

neoprene and butyl

69.

To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:

a)

pressurized

b)

bootstrapped

c)

above the pump

d)

all of the above

70.

A hand pump is usually fitted for:

a)

ground servicing purposes

b)

lowering the landing gear in an emergency

c)

pressurizing the oleo struts in the air

d)

retracting the gear after take-off

71.

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

a)

support the weight of the aircraft

b)

limit the speed of compression of the strut

c)

lubricate the piston within the cylinder

d)

limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut

72.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:

a)

there is limited space in the nose wheel bay

b)

the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight

c)

the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight

d)

it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off

73.

The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

a)

prevent the fluid becoming aerated

b)

counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast

c)

make the lowering time greater than the raising time

d)

prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated

74.

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

a)

not possible because the system is not powerful enough

b)

prevented by the ground/air logic system

c)

always a danger after the ground locks have been removed

d)

the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft

75.

Creep (slippage):

a)

is not a problem with tubeless tyres

b)

refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes

c)

alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate the tyre

d)

can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

76.

Tyre wear when taxiing can be reduced by:

a)

restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers

b)

taxiing at less than 40 kph

c)

staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway

d)

taxiing at less than 25 knots

77.

To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxiing, you should:

a)

use tyres with fusible plugs

b)

make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted

c)

turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius

d)

deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure

78.

The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

a)

CO2

b)

dry powder

c)

freon

d)

water

79.

When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be modified by:

a)

10 psi

b)

10%

c)

4 psi

d)

4%

80.

The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a)

oil or grease on the brake drums

b)

worn stators

c)

the pilot reducing the brake pressure

d)

the brake pads overheating

81.

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:

a)

the aircraft main hydraulic system

b)

the pilots brake pedals

c)

a self-contained power pack

d)

the hydraulic reservoir

82.

Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run? i. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed; ii. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown; iii. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid; iv. The use of cadence braking; v. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure towards the end; vi. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run; vii. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run

a)

(i), (ii), (vi), (vii)

b)

(i), (iii), (vi), (vii)

c)

(i), (iv), (vi), (vii)

d)

(i), (v), (vi), (vii)

83.

The formula which gives the minimum speed (VP) at which aquaplaning may occur is:

a)

VP = 9 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in knots

b)

VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in mph

c)

VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in knots

d)

VP = 34 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in mph

84.

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:

a)

135 mph

b)

135 knots

c)

145 knots

d)

145 mph

85.

Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a)

fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked

b)

removed prior to flight and returned to stores

c)

fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the downlock jack

d)

removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

86.

The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:

a)

dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies

b)

grease on the rotor assembly

c)

the brake pressure being too high

d)

incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies

87.

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

a)

aircraft is overweight

b)

the tyre pressures are too high

c)

the aircraft is incorrectly loaded

d)

a torque link is worn or damaged

88.

Creep (slippage):

a)

can damage the braking system

b)

can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim

c)

may cause excess wear

d)

never occurs on new tyres

89.

The anti-skid system would be used:

a)

on landing runs only

b)

on take-off runs only

c)

for take-off on icy runways

d)

for both take off and landing runs

90.

A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:

a)

an anti-skid braking system

b)

downlocks

c)

torque links

d)

a shock absorber

91.

A nose wheel steering control system:

a)

prevents the nose wheel from castoring at all times

b)

allows the nose wheel to castor within preset limits about the neutral position

c)

allows the nose wheel to castor freely at all times

d)

prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nose wheels are not centralized

92.

At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10 mph the anti-skid braking system is:

a)

inoperative

b)

operative

c)

operative only on the nose wheel brakes

d)

operative only on the main wheel brakes

93.

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:

a)

fallen by 15% from their rated value

b)

risen by 15% from their rated value

c)

remained constant

d)

risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value

94.

The ply rating of a tyre:

a)

always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

b)

never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

c)

indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted

d)

is the index of the tyre strength

95.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

a)

to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

b)

to change the direction of the control cable

c)

to ensure smooth operation of the system

d)

to prevent the cable from slackening

96.

The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a)

to set the range of movement of the control surface

b)

to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced

c)

to limit control movement to one direction only

d)

to set the control surface neutral position

97.

The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is:

a)

to reduce the control loads on the primary stops

b)

to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure

c)

to limit the secondary control system from excessive movement

d)

to remove the excess backlash in the controls

98.

The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

a)

alter the angle of deflection of the cables

b)

to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels

c)

to attach the cables to chain drives

d)

to keep the cable straight and clear of structure

99.

In a cable control system cables are tensioned to: 1. remove backlash from the control linkage; 2. provide tension on the turnbuckles; 3. provide positive action in both directions; 4. ensure the full range is achieved; 5. compensate for temperature variations

a)

1, 3 and 5 only

b)

3 only

c)

4 only

d)

all the above

100.

In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to: 1. remove backlash from the control linkage; 2. provide tension on the turnbuckles; 3. provide positive action in both directions; 4. ensure the full range is achieved; 5. compensate for temperature variations

a)

1, 3 and 5 only

b)

3 only

c)

4 only

d)

all the above

101.

In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces: 1. are reversible; 2. are irreversible; 3. are instinctive for the movement required; 4. are opposite for the movement required; 5. are limited in range by flight deck obstructions

a)

1 and 4 only

b)

2 and 4 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

1, 3 and 5 only

102.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

b)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

c)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

d)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

103.

To roll the aircraft to the right:

a)

the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down

b)

the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down

c)

the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

d)

the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

104.

The advantages of a cable control are: 1. light, very good strength to weight ratio; 2. easy to route through the aircraft; 3. less prone to impact damage; 4. takes up less volume; 5. less bolted joints

a)

1, 2 and 4 only

b)

3 and 5 only

c)

1, 2 and 5 only

d)

all the above