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Renal System Quiz

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys?

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Polycystic Kidney Disease

c)

Acute Glomerulonephritis

d)

Chronic Kidney Disease

2.

What is the term for inflammation of the kidney due to bacterial infection?

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Acute Kidney Injury

c)

Early Renal Failure

d)

Polycystic Kidney Disease

3.

Which condition involves sudden and severe damage to the kidneys, often reversible with treatment?

a)

Chronic Kidney Disease

b)

Acute Kidney Injury

c)

Polycystic Kidney Disease

d)

Acute Glomerulonephritis

4.

What is the difference between acute and chronic kidney disease?

a)

Acute kidney disease is genetic, while chronic kidney disease is bacterial.

b)

Acute kidney disease occurs suddenly, while chronic kidney disease develops over time.

c)

Acute kidney disease affects the liver, while chronic kidney disease affects the kidneys.

d)

Acute kidney disease is irreversible, while chronic kidney disease is reversible.

5.

Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys?

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Acute Glomerulonephritis

c)

Chronic Kidney Disease

d)

Early Renal Failure

6.

What is Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?

a)

A bacterial infection in the kidneys

b)

A genetic disorder causing fluid-filled cysts to form in kidneys

c)

A type of cancer affecting the kidneys

d)

A condition caused by dehydration

7.

What are the two types of Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?

a)

Autosomal Dominant and Autosomal Recessive

b)

Dominant and Recessive X-linked

c)

Acute and Chronic PKD

d)

Primary and Secondary PKD

8.

Which type of Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) is typically adult-onset?

a)

Autosomal Recessive

b)

Autosomal Dominant

c)

X-linked Recessive

d)

Chronic PKD

9.

What is a potential consequence of Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Progressive renal failure

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Dehydration

10.

What is the earliest sign of polycystic kidney disease (PKD) according to the assessment findings?

a)

Hematuria (blood in urine)

b)

Hypertension

c)

Enlarged abdominal girth

d)

Headaches

11.

Which diagnostic test is used to detect cysts in polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Genetic testing for PKD1/PKD2 genes

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Ultrasound or CT

d)

Elevated creatinine & BUN

12.

Which of the following is a risk factor for polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Female sex

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Family history (genetic)

d)

Lack of physical activity

13.

What is the priority nursing intervention for managing polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Pain management using NSAIDs

b)

Control blood pressure using ACE inhibitors/ARBs

c)

Encourage fluids without restriction

d)

Educate on dialysis/transplant planning

14.

Which of the following symptoms is associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Enlarged abdominal girth

b)

Low creatinine levels

c)

Decreased urine output

d)

Weight loss

15.

Why is it important to monitor for urinary tract infections (UTIs) in patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

UTIs can lead to hypertension

b)

UTIs can worsen kidney function

c)

UTIs can cause liver cysts

d)

UTIs can lead to enlarged abdominal girth

16.

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic indicator for polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Elevated creatinine & BUN

b)

Genetic testing for PKD1/PKD2 genes

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Urinalysis showing hematuria and proteinuria

17.

Which of the following nursing interventions should be avoided in patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

a)

Pain management using NSAIDs

b)

Monitoring renal function

c)

Encouraging fluids (unless restricted)

d)

Educating on dialysis/transplant planning

18.

What is pyelonephritis?

a)

Infection and inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis

b)

Infection of the bladder only

c)

Inflammation of the liver

d)

Infection of the lungs

19.

Which of the following is a common assessment finding in patients with pyelonephritis?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Skin rash

c)

Joint pain

d)

Blurred vision

20.

Which diagnostic test is used to detect leukocytosis in pyelonephritis?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Urine culture

c)

CBC

d)

CT scan

21.

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with pyelonephritis?

a)

Pain management

b)

Start IV antibiotics

c)

Monitor for sepsis

d)

Hydration with oral fluids

22.

Which of the following is a risk factor for pyelonephritis?

a)

Diabetes

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Asthma

d)

Allergies

23.

What does urinalysis typically detect in patients with pyelonephritis?

a)

High glucose levels

b)

White blood cells, bacteria, and nitrites

c)

Elevated liver enzymes

d)

Low hemoglobin levels

24.

Which imaging technique is used to confirm pyelonephritis if systemic infection is suspected?

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

X-ray

d)

Ultrasound

25.

Which symptom is associated with dysuria in pyelonephritis?

a)

Nausea

b)

Frequency and urgency

c)

Skin rash

d)

Joint pain

26.

What is a key nursing intervention to prevent dehydration in pyelonephritis patients?

a)

Administer oral antibiotics

b)

Provide IV fluids

c)

Encourage exercise

d)

Restrict fluid intake

27.

Which of the following is a sign of systemic infection in pyelonephritis?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Skin rash

c)

Joint pain

d)

Blurred vision

28.

Which condition is associated with urinary obstruction as a risk factor for pyelonephritis?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Stones and BPH

c)

Frequent UTIs

d)

Catheter use

29.

What is glomerulonephritis?

a)

Acute inflammation of the glomeruli

b)

Chronic inflammation of the liver

c)

Acute inflammation of the lungs

d)

Chronic inflammation of the heart

30.

Which of the following is a common assessment finding in patients with glomerulonephritis?

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Dark/cola-colored urine (hematuria)

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Clear urine with no proteinuria

31.

What is a key risk factor for developing glomerulonephritis?

a)

Recent streptococcal infection

b)

High sodium intake

c)

Advanced age

d)

Sedentary lifestyle

32.

Which diagnostic finding is commonly associated with glomerulonephritis?

a)

Decreased creatinine levels

b)

Elevated BUN and creatinine

c)

Increased GFR

d)

Absence of proteinuria

33.

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with glomerulonephritis?

a)

Encourage high fluid intake

b)

Control blood pressure and fluid overload

c)

Promote physical activity during the acute phase

d)

Avoid monitoring intake and output

34.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing intervention for glomerulonephritis during the acute phase?

a)

Encourage bedrest

b)

Increase sodium intake

c)

Avoid diuretics

d)

Ignore daily weight monitoring

35.

What does proteinuria indicate in a patient with glomerulonephritis?

a)

Normal kidney function

b)

Presence of protein in urine

c)

Increased urine output

d)

Absence of infection

36.

Which lab test result suggests a recent streptococcal infection in a patient with glomerulonephritis?

a)

Elevated BUN

b)

Decreased GFR

c)

Elevated ASO titer

d)

Presence of erythrocyte casts

37.

What is early renal failure (renal insufficiency) characterized by?

a)

Gradual improvement in kidney function, allowing efficient waste filtration.

b)

Gradual decline in kidney function, kidneys can no longer filter waste efficiently.

c)

Sudden failure of kidney function, leading to immediate waste filtration issues.

d)

Enhanced kidney function, improving waste filtration efficiency.

38.

Which of the following is a common assessment finding in patients with elevated BUN/Creatinine but no severe symptoms?

a)

Severe fatigue and weakness

b)

Nocturia

c)

Severe anemia

d)

Decreased GFR (60–89)

39.

What is the priority nursing intervention for patients with mild proteinuria and decreased GFR?

a)

Promote high sodium diet

b)

Avoid nephrotoxic drugs

c)

Increase blood sugar levels

d)

Ignore lab monitoring

40.

Which of the following is a risk factor for elevated BUN and creatinine levels?

a)

Diabetes and hypertension

b)

Mild anemia

c)

Low protein diet

d)

Increased GFR

41.

What dietary recommendation is suggested for patients with mild proteinuria?

a)

High sodium and protein diet

b)

Low sodium and protein diet

c)

High carbohydrate diet

d)

Low fat diet

42.

Which lab finding is associated with Early renal failure?

a)

Increased BUN and creatinine

b)

Elevated blood sugar

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Normal GFR

43.

What is the recommended action for monitoring patients with mild anemia and nocturia?

a)

Ignore lab results

b)

Monitor labs regularly

c)

Increase sodium intake

d)

Avoid blood pressure control

44.

What does Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) refer to?

a)

Gradual decrease in kidney function over months to years

b)

Sudden decrease in kidney function within hours to days; reversible if treated

c)

Permanent loss of kidney function

d)

Kidney infection caused by bacteria

45.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

a)

It is irreversible even if treated

b)

It occurs gradually over a long period of time

c)

It is reversible if treated

d)

It is caused by genetic factors only

46.

How quickly does Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) affect kidney function?

a)

Over months to years

b)

Within hours to days

c)

Over weeks to months

d)

Immediately after birth

47.

What is the definition of oliguria as mentioned in the assessment findings?

a)

Urine output less than 400 mL/day

b)

Urine output greater than 400 mL/day

c)

Complete absence of urine output

d)

Excessive urine output

48.

Which of the following is a risk factor for kidney disease?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Trauma

49.

What is the priority nursing intervention for AKI?

a)

Administer nephrotoxic medications

b)

Treat the cause and restore perfusion

c)

Avoid monitoring electrolytes

d)

Ignore fluid retention

50.

Which diagnostic test is used to rule out obstruction in the condition described?

a)

Blood pressure monitoring

b)

Ultrasound

c)

ECG

d)

Urine dipstick test

51.

Which electrolyte is especially monitored in the nursing interventions?

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Potassium (K+)

c)

Calcium (Ca2+)

d)

Magnesium (Mg2+)

52.

Which of the following is a symptom of hyperkalemia as mentioned in the assessment findings?

a)

Edema

b)

ECG changes

c)

Nausea

d)

Hypovolemia

53.

Which of the following medications should be avoided in nursing interventions for AKI?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Diuretics

c)

IV fluids

d)

Antibiotics

54.

What is the duration of the onset phase in acute kidney injury?

a)

1 to 3 weeks

b)

2 to 6 weeks

c)

Hours to days

d)

Up to 12 months

55.

During the oliguria phase of acute kidney injury, what is the typical urine output per 24 hours?

a)

500 to 800 mL/24 hr

b)

100 to 400 mL/24 hr

c)

50 to 100 mL/24 hr

d)

400 to 600 mL/24 hr

56.

What happens during the diuresis phase of acute kidney injury?

a)

Kidney function is fully restored

b)

Urine output decreases significantly

c)

A large amount of fluid is excreted

d)

The event causing kidney injury begins

57.

How long can the recovery phase of acute kidney injury last?

a)

1 to 3 weeks

b)

2 to 6 weeks

c)

Up to 12 months

d)

Hours to days

58.

Which phase of acute kidney injury involves the kidneys starting to recover and diuresis of a large amount of fluid?

a)

Onset

b)

Oliguria

c)

Diuresis

d)

Recovery

59.

Which of the following is a risk factor for prerenal acute kidney injury?

a)

Renal vascular obstruction

b)

Physical injury: trauma

c)

Stone, tumor, bladder atony

d)

Immunologic injury: infection

60.

What is a chemical injury that can lead to intrarenal acute kidney injury?

a)

Use of aspirin, ibuprofen, or NSAIDs

b)

Acute nephrotoxins such as antibiotics or iodine

c)

Prostate hyperplasia

d)

Spinal cord disease or injury

61.

Which of the following is a risk factor for postrenal acute kidney injury?

a)

Hypoxic injury: renal artery or vein stenosis

b)

Stone, tumor, bladder atony

c)

Sepsis, hypovolemia

d)

Peripheral vascular resistance

62.

Which type of acute kidney injury is associated with hypoxic injury such as renal artery or vein stenosis?

a)

Prerenal acute kidney injury

b)

Intrarenal acute kidney injury

c)

Postrenal acute kidney injury

d)

Chronic kidney disease

63.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for prerenal acute kidney injury?

a)

Shock

b)

Liver failure

c)

Prostate hyperplasia

d)

Decreased cardiac output causing decreased renal perfusion

64.

What does Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) refer to?

a)

Temporary loss of kidney function for less than 3 months.

b)

Progressive, irreversible loss of kidney function for more than 3 months, leading to ESRD.

c)

Sudden kidney failure that can be reversed with treatment.

d)

A condition where kidneys temporarily stop functioning due to dehydration.

65.

What does ESRD stand for in the context of Chronic Kidney Disease?

a)

End-Stage Renal Disease.

b)

Early Stage Renal Dysfunction.

c)

Extended Stage Renal Disorder.

d)

End-Stage Respiratory Disease.

66.

How long must kidney function be impaired to classify it as Chronic Kidney Disease?

a)

Less than 1 month.

b)

More than 3 months.

c)

Exactly 6 months.

d)

More than 1 year.

67.

Which of the following is a common assessment finding in patients with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis

b)

Increased EPO levels

c)

Decreased fluid retention

d)

Elevated calcium levels

68.

What is the most common risk factor for chronic kidney disease?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes

c)

Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)

d)

African American heritage

69.

Which diagnostic finding is associated with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Increased GFR for 3 months

b)

Elevated BUN/Creatinine levels

c)

Normal-sized kidneys on ultrasound

d)

Increased calcium levels

70.

What is the priority nursing intervention for managing chronic kidney disease?

a)

Administering antibiotics

b)

Restricting fluids, sodium, and potassium

c)

Encouraging high protein intake

d)

Avoiding dialysis preparation

71.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing intervention for anemia in chronic kidney disease?

a)

Administering EPO injections

b)

Increasing potassium intake

c)

Avoiding renal diet education

d)

Preparing for emergency surgery

72.

What does ABG analysis in chronic kidney disease patients typically reveal?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Normal pH levels

d)

Increased oxygen saturation

73.

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in chronic kidney disease?

a)

Decreased potassium levels

b)

Increased calcium levels

c)

Increased phosphorus levels

d)

Decreased sodium levels

74.

What is a key finding on ultrasound for patients with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Enlarged kidneys

b)

Small, shrunken kidneys

c)

Normal-sized kidneys

d)

Increased kidney density

75.

Which population is at higher risk for chronic kidney disease?

a)

Caucasian heritage

b)

African American heritage

c)

Asian heritage

d)

Hispanic heritage

76.

What dietary education is important for patients with chronic kidney disease?

a)

High sodium diet

b)

Renal diet

c)

High potassium diet

d)

Low protein diet

77.

Which of the following medications should be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to their nephrotoxic effects?

a)

Aminoglycosides and amphotericin B

b)

Calcium gluconate and ferrous sulfate

c)

Sodium polystyrene and erythropoiesis-stimulating agents

d)

Calcium carbonate and furosemide

78.

What is the primary reason for monitoring digoxin levels in patients with CKD?

a)

To prevent fluid retention

b)

To reduce the risk of digoxin toxicity due to slow excretion

c)

To ensure proper phosphate absorption

d)

To treat anemia

79.

What is the purpose of administering erythropoiesis-stimulating agents like epoetin alfa to patients with CKD?

a)

To treat hypertension

b)

To prevent iron deficiency

c)

To treat anemia

d)

To reduce cardiac contractility

80.

Which medication is used to bind phosphate in food and prevent phosphate absorption in patients with CKD?

a)

Calcium gluconate

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Sodium polystyrene

d)

Ferrous sulfate

81.

Why should sodium polystyrene be used cautiously in patients with CKD?

a)

It can cause constipation

b)

It contains sodium and may lead to fluid retention and hypertension

c)

It decreases cardiac contractility

d)

It prevents iron deficiency

82.

Which medication is used to decrease cardiac contractility in patients with CKD?

a)

Calcium gluconate

b)

Ferrous sulfate

c)

Sodium polystyrene

d)

Epoetin alfa

83.

Why should furosemide or bumetanide be avoided in patients with end-stage kidney disease?

a)

They can cause severe iron deficiency

b)

They are nephrotoxic and may worsen kidney function

c)

They increase phosphate absorption

d)

They decrease cardiac contractility

84.

What is the GFR range for Stage 1 Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?

a)

Greater than 90 mL/min

b)

60 to 89 mL/min

c)

30 to 59 mL/min

d)

Less than 15 mL/min

85.

Which stage of Chronic Kidney Disease is characterized by severe kidney damage with a GFR of 15 to 29 mL/min?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 5

86.

At what GFR range does Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease occur?

a)

60 to 89 mL/min

b)

30 to 59 mL/min

c)

15 to 29 mL/min

d)

Less than 15 mL/min

87.

Which stage of Chronic Kidney Disease is associated with kidney failure and little to no glomerular filtration?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 3

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 5

88.

What is the GFR range for mild kidney damage in Stage 2 Chronic Kidney Disease?

a)

Greater than 90 mL/min

b)

60 to 89 mL/min

c)

30 to 59 mL/min

d)

15 to 29 mL/min

89.

Which of the following is a key laboratory value used in renal assessment?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

c)

White Blood Cell Count

d)

Platelet Count

90.

What does a high Urine Specific Gravity (USG) indicate?

a)

Dilute urine

b)

Concentrated urine

c)

Normal urine output

d)

Painful urination

91.

What is the normal urine output per hour in a healthy individual?

a)

Less than 10 mL/hr

b)

Greater than 30 mL/hr

c)

Less than 100 mL/hr

d)

Greater than 50 mL/hr

92.

What is the clinical significance of a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg?

a)

Increased risk of hypertension

b)

Renal perfusion risk

c)

Normal blood pressure range

d)

Increased risk of anemia

93.

Which of the following is a nursing priority in renal assessment?

a)

Monitoring blood sugar levels

b)

Managing fluids and electrolytes

c)

Administering vaccines

d)

Conducting physical therapy

94.

What condition is associated with erythropoietin deficiency in renal insufficiency?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Dysuria

d)

Oliguria

95.

Which of the following is a symptom of fluid retention and edema in renal assessment?

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Fluid accumulation in lower extremities

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Painful urination

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