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RESP 150 Chapters 6-12 Review Quiz

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Adrenergic bronchodilators mimic the actions of:

a)

cAMP.

b)

acetylcholine.

c)

penicillin.

d)

epinephrine.

2.

Disease states that could benefit from the use of adrenergic bronchodilators include which of the following?

a)

Asthma

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Pleural effusion

3.

In a patient who is receiving large doses of catecholamines, which side effect would you expect to see?

a)

Decrease in blood pressure

b)

Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle

c)

Diuresis

d)

Bradycardia

4.

Your patient is receiving her third continuous nebulizer of albuterol (15 mg/hr). Which potential complications should you be on the lookout for?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Cardiac arrhythmias

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Tremor

5.

Which of the following is the generic name for Brovana?

a)

Formoterol

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Olodaterol

d)

Arformoterol

6.

Inhalation is the preferred route of administering adrenergic bronchodilators for which of the following reasons?

a)

Rapid onset of action

b)

Larger dosage used

c)

Reduced side effects

d)

Drug delivered to target organ

7.

Which procedure would tell you that a patient has reversible airway obstruction?

a)

Inspection—patient is short of breath when walking less than 25 ft

b)

Pulmonary function tests before and after bronchodilator therapy

c)

Pulse oximetry

d)

Wheezing on auscultation

8.

Which of the following is the generic name for Arcapta Neohaler?

a)

Indacterol

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Olodaterol

d)

Arformoterol

9.

Which of the following medications are given only once daily?

a)

Formoterol

b)

Albuterol

c)

Indacaterol

d)

Levalbuterol

e)

Olodaterol

10.

The combination of albuterol and ipratropium bromide can be delivered by which of the following methods?

a)

Tablet

b)

Nebulizer

c)

Injection

d)

MDI

e)

Soft-mist inhaler

11.

Incruse Ellipta® is approved for:

a)

exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

b)

thinning of dried secretions.

c)

acute bronchoconstriction.

d)

maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in COPD.

12.

Quaternary ammonium compounds such as ipratropium bromide:

a)

are ineffective as inhaled agents.

b)

do not cross lipid membranes easily.

c)

are distributed quickly throughout the body when inhaled.

d)

have no role in respiratory care.

13.

Patients using ipratropium aerosols should be instructed to avoid allowing the aerosol to come in contact with their:

a)

hair.

b)

nose.

c)

eyes.

d)

ears.

14.

Which of the following medications is the generic name for Seebri Neohaler?

a)

Glycopyrrolate bromide

b)

Ipratropium bromide

c)

Aclidinium bromide

d)

Tiotropium bromide

15.

Theophylline can be used to treat:

a)

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b)

pneumonia

c)

apnea of prematurity

d)

cystic fibrosis (CF)

16.

The xanthine of choice to treat apnea of prematurity is:

a)

theophylline.

b)

dyphylline.

c)

caffeine citrate.

d)

aminophylline.

17.

It is difficult to determine therapeutic doses of theophylline because:

a)

individuals metabolize theophylline at different rates.

b)

individuals may be allergic to theophylline.

c)

all doses of theophylline and its derivatives are equivalent.

d)

xanthines do not interact with other medications.

18.

Dosage of theophylline is best monitored by:

a)

clinical reaction of the patient.

b)

measuring urine drug levels.

c)

monitoring for adverse drug effects.

d)

measurement of serum drug levels.

19.

Common, less toxic side effects of theophylline therapy include which of the following?

a)

Headache

b)

Gastric upset

c)

Anxiety

d)

Nervousness

e)

Diuresis

20.

Which of the following are functions of mucus in the body?

a)

Lubrication

b)

Improvement of gas exchange

c)

Waterproofing

d)

Protection from inflammation

21.

Which structures are responsible for providing most mucus secretions?

a)

Surface epithelial cells

b)

Goblet cells

c)

Cilia

d)

Submucosal glands

22.

The physical properties of mucus include which of the following?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Elasticity

d)

Viscosity

23.

_______ is the most serious potential hazard associated with the use of acetylcysteine.

a)

Nausea

b)

Rhinorrhea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bronchospasm

24.

A physician asks you to suggest an airway clearance technique or device to use for a patient with neuromuscular weakness who is unable to cough effectively.

a)

Postural drainage

b)

Chest physical therapy (CPT)

c)

An insufflation-exsufflation device

d)

Active cycle of breathing (ACB)

25.

Lack of pulmonary surfactant in respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn typically results in:

a)

high surface tension

b)

low surface tension

c)

no effect on surface tension

d)

increased compliance

26.

The term used to describe surfactant produced outside of the patient’s body is:

a)

endogenous.

b)

exogenous.

c)

natural.

d)

bovine.

27.

Endogenous surfactant is produced by:

a)

alveolar type II cells.

b)

goblet cells.

c)

alveolar type I cells.

d)

macrophages.

28.

Which of the following are natural surfactant preparations?

a)

Aerosurf®

b)

Curosurf®

c)

Survanta®

d)

Infasurf®

29.

Which of the following are currently used methods for delivering surfactant into infants?

a)

Instillation through side-port adapter

b)

Instillation through catheter

c)

Nebulization

d)

Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

30.

A significant side effect of corticosteroid use is inhibition of:

a)

IgE.

b)

PDE.

c)

HPA axis.

31.

Corticosteroids normally produced by the body are known as:

a)

endogenous.

b)

exogenous.

c)

extrinsic.

d)

intrinsic.

32.

Which of the following are examples of steroids or steroid combinations available for inhalation?

a)

AeroSpan

b)

Flovent

c)

Qvar

d)

Formoterol

33.

The inflammatory process includes which of the following activities?

a)

Mediator cascade

b)

Decreased vascular permeability

c)

Leukocytic infiltration

d)

Phagocytosis

34.

Which of the following are side effects of aerosolized steroid use?

a)

Cough

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Dysphonia

d)

Oral thrush

35.

Cromolyn sodium is available in what form?

a)

Nebulizer solution

b)

Tablet

c)

MDI

d)

Nasal spray

36.

Which type of asthma is associated with allergic reactions?

a)

Chronic

b)

Intrinsic

c)

Acute

d)

Extrinsic

37.

Which of the following are antileukotriene agents?

a)

Zafirlukast

b)

Zileuton

c)

Cromolyn sodium

d)

Montelukast

38.

Zileuton is administered by

a)

DPI.

b)

tablet.

c)

MDI.

d)

nebulizer.

39.

Leukotrienes exhibit which of the following effects?

a)

Decreased mucus secretion

b)

Inhibition of normal ciliary action

c)

Increased airway edema

d)

Bronchoconstriction

40.

The trade name for Pentamidine is:

a)

Virazole

b)

NebuPent

c)

TOBI

d)

Pulmozyme

41.

How is Pentamidine administered?

a)

Oral tablet

b)

IV infusion

c)

Inhalation via Respirgard II

d)

Nasal spray

42.

What is a side effect of Pentamidine?

a)

Rash

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

43.

What is the trade name for Ribavirin?

a)

Relenza

b)

Virazole

c)

Prolastin

d)

Mucomyst

44.

What device is used to deliver Ribavirin?

a)

DPI

b)

SPAG

c)

MDI

d)

Nebulizer

45.

What type of drug is Ribavirin?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Antifungal

c)

Antiviral

d)

Bronchodilator

46.

What is the drug class of Relenza?

a)

Beta agonist

b)

Neuraminidase inhibitor

c)

Corticosteroid

d)

Antihistamine

47.

What does Relenza treat?

a)

RSV

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Influenza A and B

d)

COPD

48.

What is Isoniazid used for?

a)

RSV

b)

Influenza

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Asthma

49.

How are bacteria identified?

a)

CT scan

b)

Gram stain and culture

c)

MRI

d)

Ultrasound

50.

What does bacteriostatic mean?

a)

Kills bacteria

b)

Inhibits bacterial growth

c)

Enhances bacterial replication

d)

Neutralizes toxins

51.

What do MRSA and VRE have in common?

a)

Viral origin

b)

Antibiotic resistance

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Airborne transmission

52.

How does penicillin work?

a)

Inhibits protein synthesis

b)

Disrupts DNA replication

c)

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

d)

Blocks folic acid

53.

Cephalosporins are classified by:

a)

Route of administration

b)

Spectrum of activity

c)

Cost

d)

Manufacturer

54.

What drug treats Pseudomonas aeruginosa in CF?

a)

Ribavirin

b)

TOBI

c)

Relenza

d)

Mucomyst

55.

A side effect of Amphotericin B is:

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Rash

56.

What does sympathomimetic mean?

a)

Blocks sympathetic activity

b)

Mimics parasympathetic system

c)

Mimics sympathetic system

d)

Inhibits neurotransmitters

57.

Repeated use of adrenergic nose spray may cause:

a)

Bronchospasm

b)

Rebound congestion

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Fever

58.

Acetylcysteine works by:

a)

Cleaving DNA

b)

Hydrating mucus

c)

Breaking disulfide bonds

d)

Stimulating cilia

59.

Dornase alfa is used for:

a)

Asthma

b)

CF

c)

COPD

d)

Tuberculosis

60.

Hypertonic saline helps by:

a)

Suppressing cough

b)

Hydrating airway surface

c)

Blocking receptors

d)

Reducing inflammation

61.

A common expectorant is:

a)

Codeine

b)

Guaifenesin

c)

Dextromethorphan

d)

Albuterol

62.

What treats a dry hacking cough?

a)

Expectorant

b)

Antitussive

c)

Mucolytic

d)

Antibiotic

63.

Risk of OTC cold meds includes:

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Increased energy

c)

Improved concentration

d)

Weight loss

64.

Side effects of OTC cold meds may include:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Rash

d)

Constipation

65.

Drugs for α1-antitrypsin deficiency include:

a)

TOBI

b)

Prolastin

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Dornase alfa

66.

Mechanism of α1-antitrypsin therapy:

a)

Stimulates mucus clearance

b)

Inhibits neutrophil elastase

c)

Blocks viral replication

d)

Enhances surfactant

67.

Diagnosis of α1-antitrypsin deficiency includes:

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Serum AAT level and genetic testing

c)

Sputum culture

d)

Skin test

68.

Smoking cessation drugs include:

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Varenicline

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Amphotericin B

69.

Signs of nicotine addiction:

a)

Rash

b)

Cravings and irritability

c)

Fever

d)

Cough

70.

When to recommend nicotine replacement?

a)

When patient has asthma

b)

When patient expresses desire to quit

c)

When patient has pneumonia

d)

When patient is hospitalized

71.

Nitric oxide is a:

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Pulmonary vasodilator

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Antiviral

72.

Toxic effect of nitric oxide:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Methemoglobinemia

c)

Rash

d)

Bradycardia

73.

Drug used in diabetic patients:

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Afrezza

c)

Ribavirin

d)

TOBI

74.

Aerosol delivery in infants is affected by:

a)

Age only

b)

Mask fit and breathing pattern

c)

Drug type

d)

Temperature

75.

Age range of premature neonate:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

76.

Age range of neonate:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

77.

Age range of infant:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

78.

Age range of adolescent:

a)

<37 weeks gestation

b)

Birth to 1 month

c)

1–12 months

d)

12–18 years

79.

Which is a nicotine replacement therapy?

a)

Dornase alfa

b)

Nicotine patch

c)

Ribavirin

d)

TOBI

80.

What is Zyban?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Antiviral

c)

Bupropion

81.

What is Chantix?

a)

Varenicline

b)

Codeine

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Ribavirin

82.

What improves success in smoking cessation?

a)

Single therapy

b)

Combination therapy

c)

Avoidance

d)

Cold turkey

83.

What is the route for Prolastin?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

84.

What is the route for Afrezza?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

85.

Albuterol is available in which of the following forms?

a)

Syrup

b)

Nebulizer solution

c)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

d)

Oral tablets

e)

Dry powder inhaler (DPI)

86.

What is the route for Dornase alfa?

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Inhalation

d)

Subcutaneous

87.

What is the route for Ribavirin?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Inhalation via SPAG unit

d)

Subcutaneous

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