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Epidemiology of Hemochromatosis

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the prevalence of hereditary hemochromatosis in populations of Northern European descent?

a)

It is a rare genetic disorder with fewer than 1 in 10,000 affected.

b)

It is the most frequent genetic disease in the white population, especially common in those of Northern European descent.

c)

It primarily affects people of Asian descent and is uncommon in Europe.

d)

It occurs equally across all global populations with identical frequency.

2.

At approximately what total body iron level do symptoms of hemochromatosis typically begin to appear?

a)

> 5 g

b)

> 10 g

c)

> 20 g

d)

> 50 g

3.

Why do women typically develop symptomatic hemochromatosis later than men?

a)

Women have lower dietary iron intake than men.

b)

Iron accumulation is slowed before menopause due to iron loss via menstruation and pregnancy.

c)

Women have genetically lower absorption of iron from the gut.

d)

Women are more frequently heterozygous, delaying onset.

4.

Which statement best describes the classical and most frequent form of primary hemochromatosis?

a)

Adult hemochromatosis type I

b)

Neonatal hemochromatosis type II

c)

Juvenile hemochromatosis type III

d)

Transfusion-related hemochromatosis

5.

The common genetic defect in primary hemochromatosis type I involves which gene?

a)

HFE gene

b)

HLA-B27 gene

c)

β-globin gene

d)

CFTR gene

6.

Where is the HFE gene located?

a)

Chromosome 6

b)

Chromosome 9

c)

Chromosome 11

d)

Chromosome 21

7.

Primary hemochromatosis type I most commonly involves mutations designated as which of the following?

a)

C282Y and H63D

b)

V617F and BCR-ABL

c)

ΔF508 and G551D

d)

JAK2 and CALR

8.

What is the inheritance pattern of primary (hereditary) hemochromatosis type I?

a)

Autosomal recessive with incomplete penetrance

b)

Autosomal dominant with full penetrance

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

Mitochondrial inheritance

9.

Secondary hemochromatosis is primarily caused by which overarching mechanism?

a)

Iron overload

b)

Copper deficiency

c)

Vitamin C toxicity

d)

Reduced erythropoiesis

10.

Which clinical situation is a classic transfusion-related cause of secondary iron overload?

a)

Beta-thalassemia major requiring chronic transfusion

b)

Acute dehydration treated with IV fluids

c)

Pneumonia treated with antibiotics

d)

Type 1 diabetes requiring insulin

11.

Ineffective erythropoiesis leading to secondary iron overload includes which condition?

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Asthma

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

12.

Excessive alcohol consumption contributes to secondary hemochromatosis primarily because it does what?

a)

Increases the absorption of iron

b)

Decreases iron excretion in sweat

c)

Causes copper accumulation

d)

Reduces gastrointestinal motility

13.

Which gene primarily regulates iron homeostasis in normal physiology?

a)

HFE

b)

CFTR

c)

APOE

d)

BRCA1

e)

TP53

14.

In hemochromatosis type I, a homozygous defect in the HFE gene most directly leads to which immediate consequence in the liver?

a)

Increased hepcidin synthesis

b)

Decreased hepcidin synthesis

c)

Increased transferrin production

d)

Decreased ferroportin expression

e)

Increased bile secretion

15.

Decreased hepcidin in hereditary hemochromatosis results in what effect on enterocyte ferroportin and intestinal iron absorption?

a)

Ferroportin is downregulated, decreasing absorption

b)

Ferroportin is upregulated, increasing absorption

c)

Ferroportin is unchanged, but absorption decreases

d)

Ferroportin is degraded, normalizing absorption

e)

Ferroportin is internalized, decreasing absorption

16.

According to the diagram comparing normal vs. hemochromatosis type I, which downstream changes are characteristic of the disease state?

a)

Normal plasma iron and no organ injury

b)

Decreased iron release from macrophages and enterocytes

c)

Increased plasma iron with accumulation in organs causing free radical injury

d)

Increased hepcidin leading to reduced transferrin saturation

e)

Reduced ferritin with decreased iron stores

17.

Which statement best differentiates hereditary hemochromatosis from secondary hemochromatosis regarding hepcidin levels?

a)

Both conditions cause increased hepcidin at onset

b)

Hereditary hemochromatosis features decreased hepcidin, while secondary hemochromatosis shows increased hepcidin immediately after transfusion

c)

Secondary hemochromatosis always presents with decreased hepcidin regardless of liver status

d)

Hereditary hemochromatosis features increased hepcidin due to HFE mutation

e)

Hepcidin levels are irrelevant in both conditions

18.

What is the mechanistic link between defective binding of transferrin to its receptor (due to HFE gene defect) and organ damage?

a)

Defect increases hepcidin, causing anemia and organ atrophy

b)

Defect decreases hepcidin, leading to unregulated ferroportin, increased intestinal iron absorption, body iron accumulation, and damage to affected organs

c)

Defect directly increases reactive oxygen species independent of iron

d)

Defect reduces ferroportin expression, preventing iron efflux and causing iron deficiency

e)

Defect increases bile acids that injure organs

19.

Which organ complications are specifically illustrated as outcomes of iron accumulation in hemochromatosis type I in the diagram?

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis, nephrotic syndrome, stroke

b)

Liver cirrhosis, diabetes, cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypothyroidism, dermatitis, osteoporosis

d)

Acute pancreatitis, peptic ulcer disease, epilepsy

e)

Cataracts, glaucoma, hearing loss

20.

Which statement best describes a hepatic lobule?

a)

A circular unit formed by bile canaliculi only

b)

A roughly hexagonal structural unit in the liver separated from adjacent lobules by connective tissue

c)

A triangular unit centered on a portal triad

d)

A spherical cluster of Kupffer cells with no vasculature

21.

Within each hepatic lobule, what separates the plates of hepatocytes?

a)

Central veins

b)

Hepatic sinusoids

c)

Bile ducts

d)

Lymphatic channels

22.

What structures are arranged together at the vertices of the hepatic lobule to form the portal triad?

a)

Central vein, hepatic artery branch, lymphatic vessel

b)

Hepatic vein, bile duct, sinusoid

c)

Branches of the hepatic artery and portal vein with bile ducts

d)

Hepatic artery, hepatic vein, portal canaliculi

23.

Based on the diagram of the hepatic lobule, which labeled structure lies at the center and receives mixed blood from the sinusoids?

a)

Interlobular vein

b)

Bile duct

c)

Central vein

d)

Branch of hepatic artery

24.

How does blood flow through a hepatic lobule?

a)

From the central vein outward to portal triads via sinusoids

b)

From peripheral portal triads toward the central vein, mixing in sinusoids

c)

From bile ducts into sinusoids then to the portal vein

d)

From hepatic artery branches directly to the hepatic vein without mixing

25.

Which structure forms a network between hepatocytes to drain bile toward the portal triads?

a)

Liver sinusoids

b)

Bile canaliculi

c)

Central vein

d)

Hepatic artery branches

e)

Space of Disse

26.

In a hepatic lobule, what is the direction of bile flow relative to the central vein and portal triads?

a)

Peripheral to central, same as blood flow

b)

Central to peripheral, opposite to blood flow

c)

Peripheral to central, opposite to blood flow

d)

Central to peripheral, same as blood flow

27.

Based on the labeled diagram of a hepatic lobule, bile collected by canaliculi ultimately drains into which structure within the portal triad?

a)

Branch of portal vein

b)

Interlobular bile duct

c)

Central vein

d)

Liver sinusoid

e)

Hepatic vein

28.

Which labeled vascular channel carries blood through the hepatic lobule and runs adjacent to hepatocyte plates, distinct from the bile canaliculi?

a)

Bile duct

b)

Liver sinusoid

c)

Central vein

d)

Interlobular bile duct

e)

Branch of hepatic artery

29.

Which feature of hepatic sinusoids permits plasma to enter the perisinusoidal space?

a)

Continuous endothelium

b)

Highly fenestrated endothelium

c)

Thick basement membrane

d)

Tight junctions between endothelial cells

e)

Ciliated endothelium

30.

Microvilli on which surface of hepatocytes increase surface area for efficient substance exchange?

a)

Apical surface

b)

Basolateral surface

c)

Basal surface only

d)

Apical-lateral junctions

e)

Canalicular surface only

31.

Adjacent hepatocyte apical surfaces form channels that ultimately drain into interlobular bile ducts. What are these channels called?

a)

Hering canals

b)

Bile canaliculi

c)

Sinusoids

d)

Perisinusoidal clefts

e)

Portal venules

32.

In the labeled diagram of hepatic microstructure, which cell type resides within the sinusoidal lumen and functions as a macrophage?

a)

Ito cell

b)

Kupffer cell

c)

Cholangiocyte

d)

Endothelial cell

e)

Hepatocyte

33.

What is the primary role of hepatocyte microvilli projecting into the perisinusoidal space?

a)

Initiate bile secretion directly into sinusoidal blood

b)

Anchor hepatocytes to the basement membrane

c)

Increase surface area to enhance substance exchange

d)

Generate contractile force to propel bile

e)

Form tight junctions with Kupffer cells

34.

Which pairing correctly matches the structure with its location as shown in the diagram?

a)

Bile canaliculus—within the sinusoidal lumen

b)

Perisinusoidal space—between sinusoidal endothelium and hepatocytes

c)

Kupffer cell—embedded within the hepatocyte cytoplasm

d)

Ito cell—floating free in portal venous blood

e)

Discontinuous endothelium—lining bile ducts

35.

Which term is another name for the hepatic stellate cell (HSC)?

a)

Kupffer cell

b)

Ito cell

c)

Cholangiocyte

d)

Hepatocyte

36.

In their normal (quiescent) state, where are Ito cells located?

a)

Inside bile canaliculi

b)

Within hepatic arterioles

c)

In the space of Disse between hepatocytes and sinusoidal endothelial cells

d)

Embedded in the portal triad lymphatics

37.

What is the primary function of quiescent Ito cells?

a)

Phagocytosis of pathogens

b)

Storage of vitamin A in lipid droplets

c)

Bile production

d)

Ammonia detoxification

38.

During chronic liver injury, Ito cells become activated. Into which phenotype do they transform?

a)

Endothelial-like cells

b)

Neutrophil-like cells

c)

Myofibroblast-like cells

d)

Cholangiocyte-like cells

39.

Which outcome is most directly linked to persistent activation of Ito cells?

a)

Acute hepatic necrosis

b)

Steatosis reversal

c)

Cirrhosis due to excess collagen (mainly type I and III) and fibrosis

d)

Increased bile secretion

40.

What proportion of hemochromatosis cases are asymptomatic?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

90%

41.

Which set best represents common early general symptoms of hemochromatosis?

a)

Dyspnea and chest pain

b)

Fatigue/lethargy with arthralgia and impotence

c)

Seizures and visual loss

d)

Weight gain and constipation

42.

Patients with hemochromatosis have increased susceptibility to infections primarily due to pathogens that exploit which host condition?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Iron overload

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Dehydration

43.

Which pathogen pair from the options is specifically noted as exploiting iron overload in hemochromatosis?

a)

Streptococcus and Influenza virus

b)

Listeria and Pseudomonas

c)

Giardia and Varicella zoster virus

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and HIV

44.

Which liver manifestation is associated with hemochromatosis and increases the risk of death through hepatocellular carcinoma, even in the absence of another condition?

a)

Steatosis; requires cirrhosis first

b)

Cirrhosis; carcinoma risk increases only with cirrhosis

c)

Hepatomegaly; carcinoma risk unrelated

d)

Hepatocellular carcinoma risk increases even without cirrhosis

45.

Which of the following is an organ-specific pancreatic manifestation of hemochromatosis?

a)

Acute pancreatitis

b)

Diabetes mellitus with polydipsia and polyuria

c)

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

d)

Pancreatic pseudocyst formation

46.

A patient with hemochromatosis develops bronze skin. Which mechanism contributes to this finding in addition to iron deposition?

a)

Decreased melanin production due to iron toxicity

b)

Increased melanin production via pro-inflammatory activity of iron

c)

Carotene accumulation in the dermis

d)

Bilirubin deposition in the skin

47.

Which triad best summarizes liver-related clinical features of hemochromatosis presented in the material?

a)

Abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis

b)

Ascites, portal vein thrombosis, jaundice

c)

Hepatic encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, steatosis

d)

Pruritus, cholangitis, gallstones

48.

Which pituitary-related manifestation is listed among organ-specific symptoms in hemochromatosis?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hypogonadism

c)

Hyperprolactinemia

d)

Acromegaly

e)

Cushing syndrome

49.

A male patient with hemochromatosis presents with decreased sexual desire. Which associated pituitary symptom best explains this finding?

a)

Testicular atrophy

b)

Galactorrhea

c)

Hypertension

d)

Gigantism

e)

Polycythemia

50.

Joint involvement in hemochromatosis typically includes which pattern?

a)

Asymmetrical arthropathy of the wrist only

b)

Symmetrical arthropathy of the MCP joints II and III

c)

Monoarthritis of the knee

d)

Symmetrical arthropathy of the ankle joints

e)

Asymmetrical arthropathy of the shoulders

51.

Chondrocalcinosis in hemochromatosis is described as the accumulation of which substance?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Calcium pyrophosphate

d)

Sodium oxalate

e)

Potassium phosphate

52.

Cardiomyopathy due to cardiac siderosis in hemochromatosis can lead to which remodeling outcome?

a)

Only hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

b)

Only restrictive cardiomyopathy (irreversible)

c)

Dilated (reversible) or restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

Isolated right ventricular hypertrophy

e)

Myocarditis with preserved ejection fraction

53.

Which arrhythmia is identified as most common in cardiac involvement of hemochromatosis?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Junctional rhythm

e)

Torsades de pointes

54.

In which clinical contexts does cardiomyopathy from cardiac siderosis most commonly occur?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia and pregnancy

b)

Iron overload due to hereditary hemochromatosis or repeated blood transfusions

c)

Viral myocarditis in childhood

d)

Autoimmune disease and thyroid storm

e)

Chronic kidney disease with hypocalcemia

55.

Which laboratory threshold indicates extreme hyperferritinemia warranting urgent therapeutic phlebotomy without waiting for genetic testing?

a)

Serum ferritin > 300 ng/mL

b)

Serum ferritin > 1,000 ng/mL

c)

Transferrin saturation > 45%

d)

Serum iron above reference range

56.

For diagnosing iron overload, which serum ferritin cutoff applies to premenopausal patients?

a)

>= 100 ng/mL

b)

>= 200 ng/mL

c)

>= 300 ng/mL

d)

>= 500 ng/mL

57.

In suspected iron overload, which combination of laboratory changes is most characteristic?

a)

Decreased serum ferritin, increased total iron-binding capacity, decreased serum iron

b)

Increased serum ferritin, increased transferrin saturation, increased serum iron, decreased total iron-binding capacity

c)

Normal serum ferritin, increased total iron-binding capacity, normal transferrin saturation

d)

Increased serum ferritin, decreased transferrin saturation (<45%), increased total iron-binding capacity

58.

Which transferrin saturation value supports a diagnosis of iron overload?

a)

≥ 15%

b)

≥ 30%

c)

≥ 45%

d)

≥ 60%

59.

Which test change is expected in iron overload regarding total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)?

a)

TIBC increases

b)

TIBC decreases

c)

TIBC remains unchanged

d)

TIBC becomes unreliable

60.

Which additional laboratory finding may accompany hemochromatosis-related iron overload?

a)

Decreased hepatocellular enzymes (AST, ALT)

b)

Increased hepatocellular enzymes (AST, ALT)

c)

Normal hepatocellular enzymes with leukopenia

d)

Elevated alkaline phosphatase only

61.

A complete blood count (CBC) may identify which related condition in the context of iron overload evaluation?

a)

Iron-deficiency anemia

b)

Hemolytic anemia

c)

Iron-loading anemia (e.g., sideroblastic anemia)

d)

Megaloblastic anemia

62.

Which imaging modality is used to estimate hepatic iron concentration (HIC) in suspected hemochromatosis?

a)

CT abdomen with contrast

b)

MRI abdomen without contrast

c)

Ultrasound elastography

d)

PET-CT

63.

A key role of MRI abdomen in hemochromatosis is to help distinguish between which two conditions based on hepatic iron pattern?

a)

Primary biliary cholangitis vs. autoimmune hepatitis

b)

Hereditary hemochromatosis vs. secondary iron overload

c)

Alcoholic liver disease vs. NAFLD

d)

Acute hepatitis vs. chronic hepatitis

64.

Based on symptoms, which imaging tests can be used to evaluate cardiac manifestations such as cardiomyopathy in hemochromatosis?

a)

Echocardiogram and/or cardiac MRI, and X-ray chest

b)

PET-CT and coronary calcium scoring

c)

Abdominal ultrasound and Doppler

d)

Ventilation–perfusion scan

65.

Which modality is appropriate to evaluate joint manifestations, for example arthritis of the second and third MCPs, in patients with hemochromatosis?

a)

DEXA scan

b)

Plain radiography

c)

CT arthrogram

d)

Bone scintigraphy

66.

On MRI, the liver in hemochromatosis is described as which of the following, relative to normal tissue signal?

a)

Hyperintense on all sequences

b)

Isointense to paraspinal musculature

c)

Hypointense on both gradient echo and Express sequences

d)

Variable with no consistent pattern

67.

In the provided MRI example, liver signal intensities of 33 and 158 are compared with paraspinal musculature values of 394 and 307. What conclusion does this support?

a)

There is no iron accumulation

b)

Paraspinal musculature accumulates iron

c)

Lower hepatic signal is consistent with hemochromatosis

d)

Muscle signal should be used to diagnose fibrosis

68.

Which tissue is noted as not accumulating iron and serves as a reference when calculating a signal intensity ratio?

a)

Spleen

b)

Paraspinal musculature

c)

Pancreas

d)

Renal cortex

69.

What ratio can be used on MRI to determine hepatic iron concentration in hemochromatosis?

a)

Spleen to pancreas signal intensity ratio

b)

Heart to lung signal intensity ratio

c)

Liver to muscle signal intensity ratio

d)

Kidney to spleen signal intensity ratio

70.

In a patient with suspected hereditary hemochromatosis who is homozygous for the HFE C282Y mutation, which additional finding would specifically indicate the need for a liver biopsy?

a)

Serum ferritin level > 1000 ng/mL

b)

Transferrin saturation < 20%

c)

Elevated ceruloplasmin

d)

Normal liver enzymes

71.

Which clinical scenario justifies a liver biopsy in a homozygous HFE C282Y patient besides very high ferritin?

a)

Presence of additional risk factors for cirrhosis

b)

Evidence of iron deficiency anemia

c)

Normal abdominal ultrasound

d)

Asymptomatic status only

72.

For patients without homozygous HFE C282Y mutation, what is a stated role of liver biopsy?

a)

Routine screening for hemochromatosis in all adults

b)

Staging fibrosis or investigating an alternative cause of liver disease

c)

Monitoring response to phlebotomy every 3 months

d)

Measuring serum ferritin directly

73.

Which histologic substance appears blue with the Prussian blue stain on liver biopsy in hemochromatosis?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemosiderin

c)

Lipofuscin

d)

Glycogen

74.

Which pattern best characterizes hereditary hemochromatosis on liver histology?

a)

Kupffer cells laden with hemosiderin

b)

Prominent parenchymal siderosis in hepatocytes and bile duct epithelium

c)

Portal lymphoid aggregates without iron

d)

Sinusoidal amyloid deposition

75.

On liver biopsy, iron accumulation within Kupffer cells is most consistent with which condition?

a)

Hereditary hemochromatosis

b)

Wilson disease

c)

Secondary iron overload

d)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

76.

What key information about hepatic iron can limit the need for liver biopsy in hemochromatosis because it can be assessed by a noninvasive test?

a)

Iron concentration and distribution pattern via MRI

b)

Presence of cirrhosis via CT angiography

c)

Serum ferritin via ultrasound

d)

HFE genotype via PET scan

77.

Which statement best reflects the limitation of liver biopsy in hemochromatosis?

a)

It cannot detect hemosiderin with histologic stains

b)

It is unnecessary because MRI can assess concentration and distribution of hepatic iron

c)

It cannot be performed in patients with elevated ferritin

d)

It fails to sample hepatocytes

78.

In the photomicrograph using Prussian blue stain, which color indicates iron deposits in the liver tissue?

a)

Bright red

b)

Dark blue

c)

Light green

d)

Brown

79.

A liver biopsy stained with Prussian blue shows brightly red-stained structures scattered among cells. What are these structures?

a)

Iron deposits

b)

Bile canaliculi

c)

Nuclei

d)

Kupffer cells

80.

On an H&E-stained high-magnification liver biopsy, which finding supports iron accumulation within hepatocytes?

a)

Diffuse pale cytoplasm

b)

Coarse granular brown pigment within cells

c)

Uniform blue cytoplasmic granules

d)

Bright red nuclei without cytoplasmic pigment

81.

Which pairing correctly matches the stain with its characteristic appearance of iron in liver tissue?

a)

Prussian blue: coarse granular brown pigment; H&E: dark blue iron deposits

b)

Prussian blue: dark blue iron deposits; H&E: coarse granular brown pigment

c)

Prussian blue: bright red iron deposits; H&E: pale yellow iron deposits

d)

Prussian blue: colorless iron deposits; H&E: green iron deposits

82.

Which statement best describes the indication of therapeutic phlebotomy in hereditary hemochromatosis?

a)

It is reserved for end-stage disease only

b)

It is the first-line treatment, including for asymptomatic patients

c)

It is used only when ferritin exceeds 1000 ng/mL

d)

It is contraindicated in all genetic cases

83.

In which scenario should therapeutic phlebotomy be considered for secondary iron overload?

a)

Patients with symptomatic porphyria cutanea tarda

b)

Patients with iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Patients with acute blood loss

d)

Patients with normal iron studies

84.

Which of the following is a contraindication to therapeutic phlebotomy?

a)

Elevated serum ferritin

b)

Low hemoglobin due to iron-loading anemia

c)

Asymptomatic hereditary hemochromatosis

d)

Porphyria cutanea tarda with symptoms

85.

A patient has conditions sensitive to fluid shifts. Which example from the list would make therapeutic phlebotomy relatively contraindicated?

a)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

d)

Osteoarthritis

86.

During the initial phase of therapeutic phlebotomy, which regimen aligns with the guidance?

a)

About 250 mL removed monthly; ferritin goal below 20 ng/mL

b)

About 500 mL removed weekly over 1–2 sessions; ferritin goal 50–100 ng/mL

c)

About 750 mL removed weekly for 8 weeks; ferritin goal 100–200 ng/mL

d)

About 500 mL removed once yearly; ferritin goal 200–300 ng/mL

87.

What is the typical maintenance-phase target and frequency after initial iron depletion by phlebotomy?

a)

Serum ferritin 200 ng/mL; monthly phlebotomy

b)

Serum ferritin about 50 ng/mL; 3–4 sessions per year of about 500 mL each

c)

Serum ferritin 100–200 ng/mL; weekly sessions

d)

Serum ferritin below 20 ng/mL; daily sessions

88.

Which scenario is an indication for iron chelation therapy?

a)

Primary treatment for all cases of hereditary hemochromatosis regardless of response to phlebotomy

b)

First-line treatment for secondary iron overload due to iron-loading anemia

c)

Routine prevention of iron overload in healthy adults

d)

Management of acute blood loss anemia

89.

A patient with hereditary hemochromatosis has contraindications to phlebotomy. What is the most appropriate next consideration?

a)

Begin erythropoietin therapy

b)

Consider iron chelation therapy

c)

Start high-dose vitamin C

d)

Recommend iron supplementation

90.

Which of the following lists only recognized iron chelating agents discussed in the material?

a)

Deferoxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone

b)

Deferiprone, ferritin, hepcidin

c)

Deferasirox, phlebotomy, erythropoietin

d)

Deferoxamine, desferrioxamine, ferric carboxymaltose

91.

Which important consideration is specifically emphasized before administering chelating agents?

a)

Check liver enzymes due to hepatotoxicity risk

b)

Check renal function because of nephrotoxicity and renal accumulation risk

c)

Check coagulation profile due to bleeding risk

d)

Check thyroid function due to hypothyroidism risk

92.

Which statement best reflects cost and safety considerations of iron chelation therapy?

a)

Low cost with minimal adverse effects

b)

High cost with significant risk of adverse effects

c)

Moderate cost with rare adverse effects

d)

High cost but negligible monitoring needs

93.

In patients with hemochromatosis, which supplement should be avoided as part of dietary changes?

a)

Iron and vitamin C supplements

b)

Calcium and vitamin D supplements

c)

Folic acid supplements only

d)

Magnesium supplements only

94.

According to recommended dietary measures for hemochromatosis, what is the guidance regarding dietary iron?

a)

Reduce all dietary iron to a minimum

b)

Eliminate heme iron only

c)

No need to reduce dietary iron

d)

Increase dietary iron to support erythropoiesis

95.

Which lifestyle recommendation is emphasized for individuals with hemochromatosis?

a)

Strict avoidance of alcohol

b)

Routine consumption of red wine

c)

Avoidance of caffeine

d)

Increase in vitamin C–rich beverages

96.

What is a noted effect of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) relevant to hemochromatosis management?

a)

They increase iron absorption

b)

They decrease iron absorption

c)

They mobilize stored iron

d)

They replace the need for phlebotomy

97.

How should PPIs be positioned in the treatment plan for hemochromatosis?

a)

First-line monotherapy for all patients

b)

Adjunct to phlebotomy, used only when there is another indication for PPIs (e.g., GERD)

c)

Used only in patients with iron deficiency anemia

d)

Reserved for patients without any gastrointestinal symptoms

98.

Which statement best reflects an application of the guidance on PPIs in hemochromatosis?

a)

Start a PPI in every patient to prevent iron absorption regardless of comorbidities

b)

Consider a PPI as an adjunct in a patient who already requires therapy for GERD

c)

Discontinue phlebotomy when a PPI is initiated

d)

Avoid PPIs because they universally worsen iron overload