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2121 exam 1 pt.5

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with severe fluid volume excess is in respiratory distress with crackles and SpO2 86% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Apply oxygen and raise the head of bed

b)

Start a 500 mL NS bolus

c)

Encourage oral fluids

d)

Place the client supine

2.

A client with chronic kidney disease has phosphate 6.2 mg/dL. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Decreased QT interval

b)

Tingling and muscle cramps from secondary hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea

d)

Warm flushed skin and bounding pulses

3.

A malnourished client starts tube feedings and develops weakness; phosphate is 1.4 mg/dL. Which complication is the priority risk?

a)

Hypertension crisis

b)

Hyperglycemia only

c)

Respiratory failure from weakened diaphragm

d)

Hyperreflexia

4.

A client with hypercalcemia is most likely to exhibit which ECG change?

a)

Tall peaked T waves

b)

Prolonged QT interval

c)

ST elevation with PR depression

d)

Shortened QT interval

5.

A client receiving furosemide has magnesium 1.2 mg/dL. Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypomagnesemia?

a)

Hyperreflexia and tremors

b)

Bradycardia and hypoventilation

c)

Flaccid paralysis

d)

Dilated fixed pupils

6.

A client with hypermagnesemia is becoming lethargic after magnesium-containing antacids. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate first?

a)

Potassium phosphate IV

b)

IV calcium gluconate

c)

3% NaCl infusion

d)

D5W bolus

7.

A client with suspected SIADH has sodium 121 mEq/L and low serum osmolality. Which urine finding is most expected?

a)

Low specific gravity, dilute urine

b)

Glucosuria

c)

Concentrated urine with high specific gravity

d)

Large urine output with low osmolality

8.

A client with diabetes insipidus has urine output 900 mL/hr and sodium 154 mEq/L. Which medication is most appropriate if the cause is central DI?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Furosemide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Desmopressin

9.

A client's ABG shows pH 7.49, PaCO2 30, HCO3− 23. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

10.

A postoperative client is anxious, dizzy, and tingling around the mouth; ABG confirms respiratory alkalosis. What instruction best helps immediately?

a)

Administer sodium bicarbonate

b)

Coach slow breathing / pursed-lip breathing

c)

Give 3% saline

d)

Place supine Trendelenburg

11.

A client has pH 7.31, PaCO2 60, HCO3− 31. What is the best interpretation?

a)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

b)

Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis

c)

Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

d)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

12.

A client has pH 7.52, PaCO2 48, HCO3− 38. What is the best interpretation?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation

b)

Metabolic acidosis with compensation

c)

Respiratory acidosis with no compensation

d)

Metabolic alkalosis with compensation

13.

Which IV fluid is most appropriate for initial treatment of fluid volume deficit with hypotension (unless contraindicated)?

a)

0.9% normal saline

b)

D5W

c)

3% saline

d)

D10W

14.

A client with heart failure is on fluid restriction. Which outcome best indicates teaching was effective?

a)

“I’ll drink extra water to protect my kidneys.”

b)

“I’ll track daily weights at the same time each day.”

c)

“I’ll increase sodium so I don’t feel weak.”

d)

“I’ll avoid weighing myself because it causes stress.”

15.

A client receiving TPN develops phosphate 1.6 mg/dL. Which dietary teaching is best to support phosphate replacement (if allowed PO)?

a)

Increase oranges and bananas

b)

Increase apples and rice

c)

Increase dairy/eggs/lean meats

d)

Increase cucumbers and lettuce

16.

A client receives PRBCs and develops acute dyspnea, hypotension, and bilateral infiltrates on chest x‑ray; fever present. Which reaction is most likely?

a)

TACO

b)

Febrile non‑hemolytic reaction

c)

Mild allergic reaction

d)

TRALI

17.

A client on continuous NG suction is at highest risk for which acid–base imbalance?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

18.

A client with severe thrombocytopenia is actively bleeding from gums. Which product is most appropriate?

a)

PRBCs

b)

Platelets

c)

FFP

d)

Albumin

19.

A client with DIC has PT/PTT prolonged and low fibrinogen with oozing at IV sites. Which blood product addresses clotting factor replacement best?

a)

PRBCs

b)

Platelets only

c)

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

d)

Whole blood

20.

A client has phosphate 1.5 mg/dL and is weak. Which ECG finding is most concerning to monitor for?

a)

Ventricular dysrhythmias

b)

Prolonged PR interval only

c)

Short PR interval

d)

ST depression only

21.

A client with hypercalcemia is constipated, lethargic, and dehydrated. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate (if not contraindicated)?

a)

Restrict fluids

b)

Encourage fluids and early ambulation

c)

Encourage calcium supplements

d)

Keep on strict bedrest

22.

A client has magnesium 3.6 mg/dL. Which assessment finding best supports hypermagnesemia?

a)

Hyperactive DTRs

b)

Muscle tetany

c)

Diminished DTRs and hypotension

d)

Severe stridor

23.

A client with hypophosphatemia is ordered IV phosphate. Which additional electrolyte should the nurse monitor closely due to an inverse relationship?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Calcium

24.

A client has fluid volume excess. Which assessment finding best supports this?

a)

Crackles, JVD, and rapid weight gain

b)

Dry mucous membranes and thirst

c)

Orthostatic hypotension only

d)

Concentrated urine and poor turgor only

25.

A client is receiving platelets and develops hives and itching. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Increase infusion rate

b)

Stop transfusion and maintain IV with NS

c)

Flush line with LR

d)

Continue transfusion and document later

26.

A client has metabolic acidosis from renal failure. Which lab pattern is most expected?

a)

High pH, low potassium

b)

High pH, low PaCO₂

c)

Low pH, low HCO₃⁻

d)

High pH, high HCO₃⁻

27.

A client has pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 20, HCO₃⁻ 11. What is the best interpretation?

a)

Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis

b)

Fully compensated metabolic acidosis

c)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

d)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

28.

A client is at risk for refeeding syndrome. Which lab is the nurse most concerned about dropping quickly?

a)

Calcium

b)

Sodium

c)

Chloride

d)

Phosphate

29.

A client has severe hypercalcemia. Which provider order should the nurse anticipate to lower calcium?

a)

IV isotonic fluids plus a loop diuretic as ordered

b)

Calcium gluconate infusion

c)

KCl replacement

d)

3% saline infusion

30.

A client with hypomagnesemia is also at risk for which associated electrolyte abnormality that can be hard to correct until magnesium is fixed?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypocalcemia and hypokalemia

c)

Hyperphosphatemia

d)

Metabolic alkalosis only

31.

A client with fluid volume excess is receiving IV furosemide. Which lab is the priority to trend during therapy?

a)

Troponin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Potassium

d)

Lipase

32.

A client with respiratory alkalosis is most likely caused by:

a)

Opioid overdose

b)

COPD exacerbation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Panic attack with hyperventilation

33.

A client’s sodium is 126 and symptomatic with confusion. Which order is highest priority to verify?

a)

Start D5W infusion

b)

Give hypotonic fluids freely

c)

Seizure precautions and controlled hypertonic saline as ordered

d)

Encourage water intake

34.

A client with suspected TACO develops dyspnea and hypertension during transfusion. Which additional assessment supports TACO over TRALI?

a)

Low BNP

b)

Hypotension

c)

No JVD

d)

JVD and S3

35.

A client with metabolic alkalosis has shallow respirations. Which is the best explanation?

a)

The body hypoventilates to retain CO₂ to compensate

b)

The body hyperventilates to blow off CO₂

c)

The kidneys excrete acids to compensate

d)

The lungs excrete bicarbonate to compensate

36.

A client has severe hypophosphatemia. Which nursing outcome is the priority?

a)

Prevent constipation

b)

Prevent seizures from hyponatremia

c)

Prevent respiratory muscle failure

d)

Prevent hearing loss

37.

A client receiving albumin is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Fluid volume overload / pulmonary edema

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Otitis media

38.

A client’s ABG shows pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 28, HCO₃⁻ 13. Which primary disorder is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

39.

A client with hyperphosphatemia is ordered calcium-based phosphate binders. When should the nurse teach the client to take them?

a)

On an empty stomach at bedtime

b)

Only with water between meals

c)

With meals to bind dietary phosphate

d)

After meals as needed for symptoms

40.

A client has calcium 12.1 mg/dL. Which finding is most expected?

a)

Constipation and lethargy

b)

Carpopedal spasm

c)

Chvostek sign

d)

Laryngospasm

41.

A client with hypocalcemia is ordered IV calcium gluconate. Which assessment is priority during infusion?

a)

Bowel sounds

b)

Cardiac rhythm

c)

Hearing acuity

d)

Visual fields

42.

A client with severe vomiting has metabolic alkalosis. Which urine finding is most expected?

a)

Ketonuria only

b)

Hematuria

c)

Low urine chloride

d)

High urine glucose

43.

A client has pH 7.22, PaCO2 68, HCO3− 26. Which is the best interpretation?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

44.

A client is receiving platelet transfusion. Which lab value best supports the need?

a)

Platelets 18,000/mm318,000/mm^3

b)

Sodium 128 mEq/L

c)

Calcium 7.8 mg/dL

d)

Potassium 2.9 mEq/L

45.

A client with severe hypermagnesemia is at highest risk for which complication?

a)

Seizures

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Bleeding gums

46.

A client has hypophosphatemia. Which medication history most increases risk?

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Chronic opioid use

c)

Albuterol PRN

d)

Long-term antacid use (aluminum/magnesium binders)

47.

A client with diarrhea has metabolic acidosis. Which replacement therapy is most appropriate?

a)

Replace bicarbonate losses as ordered and treat diarrhea cause

b)

Give loop diuretics to excrete bicarbonate

c)

Restrict all electrolytes

d)

Give hypertonic saline rapidly

48.

A client has TRALI during transfusion. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Increase transfusion rate

b)

Stop transfusion and support oxygenation/ventilation; notify provider/blood bank

c)

Place in Trendelenburg and continue blood

d)

Give oral fluids

49.

A client has sodium 148 and signs of dehydration. Which fluid is most appropriate to correct free-water deficit (as prescribed)?

a)

3% saline

b)

Normal saline

c)

Lactated Ringers

d)

0.45% NS or D5W (depending on plan)

50.

A client has hypercalcemia related to malignancy. Which order should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Calcitonin or bisphosphonate therapy as ordered

b)

Calcium carbonate daily

c)

Potassium phosphate bolus

d)

Restrict fluids strictly

51.

A client with hypomagnesemia is at risk for torsades de pointes. Which ECG feature is most concerning?

a)

Short QT

b)

Prolonged QT

c)

Peaked T waves

d)

Wide QRS from hyperK

52.

A client on phosphate binders asks why they can’t just “take more phosphate.” Best answer?

a)

Phosphate only matters for bones

b)

High phosphate can lower calcium and cause calcifications

c)

High phosphate prevents seizures

d)

High phosphate fixes anemia

53.

A client has pH 7.50, PaCO2 50, HCO3− 38. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

b)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

c)

Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis

d)

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

54.

A client with fluid volume excess is prescribed a 2 g sodium diet. Which meal indicates correct understanding?

a)

Grilled chicken, steamed vegetables, no added salt

b)

Ham sandwich and pickles

c)

Canned soup and crackers

d)

Pepperoni pizza

55.

A client’s phosphate is 1.3 mg/dL. Which teaching is most appropriate?

a)

Avoid protein

b)

Report muscle weakness and shortness of breath promptly

c)

Increase free water intake only

d)

Avoid dairy permanently

56.

A client with hypercalcemia is at highest risk for which complication?

a)

Laryngospasm

b)

Tetany

c)

Renal stones and dysrhythmias

d)

Increased ICP

57.

A client has platelet transfusion running and develops wheezing, hypotension, and angioedema. Which action is priority?

a)

Slow the transfusion

b)

Give acetaminophen and continue

c)

Recheck platelet count

d)

Stop transfusion and prepare to treat anaphylaxis

58.

A client has metabolic acidosis. Which respiratory pattern is the nurse most likely to see?

a)

Kussmaul respirations

b)

Bradypnea with shallow breathing

c)

Apnea episodes only

d)

Stridor

59.

A client has suspected fluid volume deficit. Which urine finding best supports dehydration?

a)

Low specific gravity

b)

High specific gravity and concentrated urine

c)

Glucosuria only

d)

Large dilute output

60.

A client has hypomagnesemia after alcohol use disorder. Which provider order is most appropriate?

a)

Magnesium replacement as ordered and seizure precautions if severe

b)

Restrict magnesium intake

c)

Start calcium carbonate only

d)

Encourage high phosphate diet only

61.

A client has hyperphosphatemia. Which diet choice should be limited?

a)

Apples

b)

Cola and processed foods with phosphate additives

c)

White rice

d)

Lettuce

62.

A client has hypermagnesemia. Which medication order should the nurse question?

a)

Loop diuretic

b)

IV calcium gluconate

c)

Magnesium sulfate infusion

d)

Normal saline IV

63.

A client with severe fluid volume excess is ordered IV albumin. Which assessment makes this order most risky?

a)

Albumin 2.02.0 g/dL

b)

Edema present

c)

Ascites present

d)

Pulmonary crackles and SpO2\mathrm{SpO_2} 88%88\%

64.

A client is receiving whole blood. Which condition most commonly requires it (rather than PRBCs alone)?

a)

Massive acute hemorrhage needing volume plus oxygen-carrying capacity

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Mild postoperative anemia

d)

Chronic kidney disease anemia

65.

A client’s ABG shows pH 7.33\mathrm{pH\ 7.33} , PaCO2 33\mathrm{PaCO_2\ 33} , HCO3 17\mathrm{HCO_3^-\ 17} . What is the primary disorder?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

66.

A client with hypophosphatemia is most likely to have which lab association?

a)

Increased calcium due to phosphate drop

b)

Increased sodium due to phosphate drop

c)

Increased potassium due to phosphate drop

d)

Decreased ATP-related energy availability leading to weakness

67.

A client has fluid volume excess. Which provider order is most expected?

a)

Increase maintenance IV fluids

b)

Hold diuretics

c)

Encourage 4 L/day fluids

d)

IV loop diuretic and fluid/sodium restriction as ordered

68.

A client has hypercalcemia. Which nursing assessment is highest priority?

a)

Cardiac rhythm monitoring for dysrhythmias

b)

Hearing screening

c)

Visual acuity testing

d)

Skin turgor only

69.

A client has metabolic alkalosis. Which electrolyte imbalance commonly coexists and worsens dysrhythmia risk?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyperphosphatemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

70.

A client with hypomagnesemia is receiving digoxin. The nurse is most concerned about which risk?

a)

Digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmias risk increases with low magnesium

b)

Increased hearing loss

c)

Increased IOP

d)

Epistaxis

71.

A client has hyperphosphatemia related to renal failure. Which teaching is best?

a)

“I should increase dairy and cola.”

b)

“I should limit foods high in phosphate and take binders with meals.”

c)

“I should stop all protein.”

d)

“Phosphate doesn’t affect calcium.”

72.

A client has fluid volume deficit. Which daily trend is most sensitive for evaluating fluid changes?

a)

Daily weights

b)

Skin color

c)

Bowel sounds

d)

Pupils

73.

A client receives FFP and develops fever, chills, and headache but no back pain or hemoglobinuria. Which reaction is most likely?

a)

Acute hemolytic reaction

b)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

c)

TRALI

d)

Anaphylaxis

74.

A client has pH 7.47\mathrm{pH\ 7.47} , PaCO2 46\mathrm{PaCO_2\ 46} , HCO3 33\mathrm{HCO_3^-\ 33} . Which interpretation is best?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis with partial compensation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis with compensation

c)

Respiratory acidosis with compensation

d)

Metabolic acidosis with compensation

75.

A client has hypophosphatemia. Which medication order should the nurse question?

a)

Potassium phosphate IV

b)

Sodium phosphate IV

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Phosphate binder

76.

A client with hypermagnesemia is at greatest risk for which assessment finding?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

Hyperactive DTRs

c)

Severe diarrhea

d)

High fever

77.

A client has fluid volume excess and hyponatremia dilutional. Which order is most expected?

a)

Give 3%3\% saline rapidly regardless of symptoms

b)

Fluid restriction and treat the cause (for example, heart failure) as ordered

c)

Encourage free-water intake

d)

D5W bolus

78.

A client has phosphate 7.07.0 mg/dL and calcium 7.47.4 mg/dL. Which symptom is most expected?

a)

Tetany and paresthesias from low calcium effect

b)

Constipation from high calcium

c)

Warm flushed skin

d)

Increased appetite

79.

A client is receiving granulocyte (WBC) transfusion. Which client is the best candidate?

a)

Stable anemia with Hgb 1010

b)

Thrombocytopenia with petechiae

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Severe neutropenia with life-threatening infection not responding to antibiotics

80.

A client has metabolic acidosis. Which lab is most useful to evaluate for an anion-gap cause?

a)

Serum lactate level

b)

Serum ketone (beta-hydroxybutyrate) level

c)

Serum chloride level alone

d)

Urinalysis specific gravity

81.

A client has fluid volume excess. Which lab marker supports heart failure involvement?

a)

BNP elevation

b)

Low HbA1c

c)

Low platelets

d)

Low calcium

82.

A client has hypercalcemia. Which medication order would the nurse question?

a)

Loop diuretic therapy as ordered

b)

IV normal saline hydration as ordered

c)

Thiazide diuretic therapy

d)

Bisphosphonate therapy

83.

A client with respiratory alkalosis from pain is post‑op. Which nursing action is best?

a)

Encourage hyperventilation

b)

Treat pain and coach slow breathing

c)

Give sodium bicarbonate

d)

Restrict oxygen

84.

A client has fluid volume deficit. Which IV access is most appropriate for rapid fluid resuscitation?

a)

Large‑bore peripheral IV

b)

24‑gauge in hand only

c)

No IV needed if oral tolerated

d)

PICC only

85.

A client has hypomagnesemia. Which food choice supports magnesium intake?

a)

White bread

b)

Grapes

c)

Nuts/whole grains/leafy greens

d)

Hard candy

86.

A client has hyperphosphatemia. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Give phosphate supplements

b)

Encourage cola

c)

Administer phosphate binders as ordered

d)

Encourage dairy shakes

87.

A client receiving albumin begins coughing with new crackles and rising BP. What is the priority?

a)

Continue infusion; expected finding

b)

Slow infusion and reassess later

c)

Stop infusion and notify provider (possible overload)

d)

Give hypotonic fluids rapidly

88.

A client has pH 7.38, PaCO2 55, HCO3− 32. Which is most accurate?

a)

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis

b)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis uncompensated

d)

Respiratory alkalosis compensated

89.

A client with suspected fluid volume excess asks why sodium restriction matters. Best response?

a)

"Sodium pulls water with it, so less sodium helps reduce fluid retention."

b)

"Sodium has no effect on fluid balance."

c)

"Sodium only affects potassium."

d)

"Sodium only affects glucose."

90.

A client has phosphate 1.7 mg/dL and is on a ventilator. Which change is most concerning?

a)

Increasing difficulty weaning from ventilator

b)

Improved energy

c)

Decreased urine output only

d)

Increased appetite

91.

A client has hypermagnesemia and renal failure. Which is an expected provider plan?

a)

Give more magnesium

b)

Restrict calcium

c)

Hemodialysis if severe + stop magnesium sources

d)

Encourage high‑mag diet

92.

A client has hypercalcemia. Which assessment finding is most expected?

a)

Constipation and polyuria

b)

Diarrhea and tetany

c)

Carpopedal spasm

d)

Stridor

93.

A client has respiratory alkalosis and is lightheaded. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Give naloxone

b)

Treat underlying cause (pain/anxiety/fever) and coach breathing

c)

Give 3% saline

d)

Give loop diuretic

94.

A client receives platelets. Which post‑transfusion outcome best indicates effectiveness?

a)

Platelet count increases and bleeding decreases

b)

Hgb rises by 2 g/dL

c)

INR normalizes immediately

d)

Sodium normalizes

95.

A client has hyperphosphatemia. Which complication is the priority long‑term risk?

a)

Hearing loss

b)

Calcification in tissues/blood vessels

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Glaucoma

96.

A client has fluid volume excess with pulmonary edema. Which medication order is most expected?

a)

IV loop diuretic

b)

Large IV bolus

c)

Encourage 3 L PO fluids

d)

Hold oxygen

97.

A client has mixed disorder suspicion: pH 7.10, PaCO2 60, HCO3− 18. What is most accurate?

a)

Pure respiratory acidosis only

b)

Pure metabolic acidosis only

c)

Mixed metabolic + respiratory acidosis

d)

Fully compensated alkalosis

98.

A client has hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

"Potassium may not correct until magnesium is corrected."

b)

"Magnesium doesn’t affect potassium."

c)

"Only sodium affects potassium."

d)

"Give IV potassium push for fastest effect."

99.

A client has phosphate 6.8 mg/dL and CKD. Which teaching is best?

a)

"I should increase dairy and processed meats."

b)

"I can stop binders when I feel better."

c)

"Phosphate doesn’t affect calcium."

d)

"I should take binders with meals and limit high‑phosphate foods."