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MCQ FMS 1 PART 1

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes epigenetic events that may contribute to formation of cancer?

a)

Mutations in histone modifier

b)

Hypermethylation of BRCA1

c)

Hypermethylation of pro angiogenic inhibitor

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, and C

2.

In general, methylation of DNA in Eukaryotes

a)

Activates gene expression

b)

Promotes cell growth

c)

Reduces level of gene expression

d)

Induces genetic rearrangements

e)

Triggers translational modification

3.

Stem cells need signal from the microenvironment to be capable to differentiate into more specialized cells. Of the following options, what can be the signal for stem cells to stimulate osteogenesis?

a)

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) and erythropoietin (Epo)

b)

Fluid shear stress and/or mechanical strain inside the blood vessel

c)

Coculture of hematopoietic stem cell with a stromal cell line

d)

Manipulation of matrix elasticity on mesenchymal stem cell

e)

Sonic hedgehog

4.

iPS cell is a type of stem cell derived from reprogramming of adult cells into pluripotent cells. This has been a promise for an unlimited source of pluripotent cells, although there are pros and cons. What is the disadvantage of iPS cells?

a)

iPS cells can produce patient-specific or disease-specific cells of any lineage for therapeutic use

b)

Viruses that integrate into the host cell genome have intrinsic risks

c)

Autologous iPS cells have reduced chances of immune rejection

d)

iPS cells are universally accessible

e)

iPS cells can provide unlimited reservoir of stem cells minus the ethical controversy of embryonic materials

5.

The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces

a)

one molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of urea

b)

one molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of oxygen

c)

one molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of ammonia

d)

one molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of carbon dioxide

e)

one molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of water

6.

Specialized epithelium with cells on its surface that can change their shape is known as

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Stratified epithelium

e)

Simple squamous epithelium

7.

Biochemical mechanism responsible for “transmitting” extracellular signals inside the cell, which ultimately lead to the activation of targets that control metabolic pathways or regulate gene expression, is called

a)

Signal transduction

b)

Gene expression regulation

c)

Signal transformation

d)

Signal transmission

e)

Metabolic regulation

8.

Metabolism is divided into two classes: __ is the breakdown of macromolecules (proteins, carbohydrates, fats) to produce energy. This class is characterized by __ reactions. __ is the construction of biomolecules from smaller precursors. This requires energy input. This class is characterized by __

a)

Catabolism, oxidative, anabolism, reductive, ATP

b)

Exergonism, exergonic, endergonism, endergonic, GTP

c)

Anabolism, reductive, catabolism, oxidative, AMP

d)

Anabolism, oxidative, catabolism, reductive, UTP

e)

Anihesis, reduction, synthesis, oxidation, CTP

9.

Structural abnormalities in chromosomes could occur when chromosomes break and reunite in an abnormal way. Which of the following structural abnormalities involve two chromosomes?

a)

Dicentric chromosome and deletion

b)

Inversions and deletion

c)

Deletion and translocation

d)

Isochromosome and translocation

e)

Ring chromosome and inversions

10.

Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is correct?

a)

Gluconeogenesis uses all the SAME enzymes that are also used in glycolysis

b)

The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate and is present in most cells

c)

Muscles have a large glycogen store which gives rise to blood glucose during prolonged starvation

d)

Fatty acids are plentiful in the blood during starvation and are used for glucose synthesis

e)

Gluconeogenesis enables the liver to maintain blood glucose levels during starvation

11.

Two patterns of cell death are observed: necrosis and apoptosis. Which of the following statements best describes necrosis?

a)

Cytoplasmic blebbing

b)

Significant inflammatory response

c)

Caspase activation

d)

Affects individual cells

e)

Condensation of nucleus

12.

Source of embryonic stem cells are mostly derived from

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Cleaved embryo

c)

Fertilized egg

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Umbilical cord

13.

The following pedigree is characteristic for a disease which is inherited in ___ manner

a)

X-linked dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Autosomal dominant

e)

Mitochondrial inheritance

14.

Which of the following best describes trisomy?

a)

Loss of one haploid

b)

Gain of one haploid

c)

Loss of sex chromosomes

d)

Loss of one centromere

e)

Gain of one chromosomes

15.

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?

a)

It prevents introns from being excised

b)

It alters the reading frame of the mRNA

c)

It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein

d)

It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA

e)

It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein

16.

Which of the following statements is TRUE for glucagon?

a)

It is secreted by adrenal gland as response to “fight-or-flight” condition

b)

It is secreted by pancreatic α cells as response to high glucose concentration in blood

c)

It is secreted by pancreatic α cells as a response to low glucose concentration in the blood

d)

It is secreted by pancreatic β cells as a response to low glucose concentration in the blood

e)

It is secreted by pancreatic β cells as a response to high glucose concentration in blood

17.

A 60-year-old woman suffers from cirrhosis of liver. Toxins such as ammonia are not properly metabolized by the liver and can damage the brain. Which of the following compounds should be in highest concentration in brain as a result of detoxification of ammonia?

a)

Alpha ketoglutarate

b)

Asparagine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Glutamine

e)

Glycine

18.

During mitosis one cell divides once to form two identical cells. The major purpose of mitosis is for growth and to replace worn out cells. Meiosis is a more specific type of cell division, in which the daughter cells further divide and there are meiosis I and meiosis II. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that

a)

The chromosome number is reduced

b)

Sister chromatids separate during anaphase

c)

The daughter cells are diploid

d)

Crossing over occurs

e)

Homologous chromosomes form a pair

19.

Metastasis is the movement or spreading of cancer cells from one part of the body/organ or tissues to another. Cancer cells usually spread through the bloodstream or the lymph system. Which one of the following is the correct order of metastasis?

a)

Intravasation, extravasation, transport, colonization, invasion

b)

Invasion, intravasation, transport, extravasation, colonization

c)

Invasion, intravasation, extravasation, transport, colonization

d)

Intravasation, extravasation, invasion, transport, colonization

e)

Extravasation, extravasation, transport, invasion, colonization

20.

Which of the following statements about the TCA cycle is true?

a)

Two molecules of carbon dioxides are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

b)

Three molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

c)

Two turns of TCA cycles are needed to oxidize one molecule of glucose

d)

The TCA cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix

e)

All statements are true

21.

One of the challenges in stem cell technology is to produce embryonic stem cells without the creation of embryo. A variation in stem cell technology where cdx gene (a gene to form placenta) is turned on in patient’s nucleus before it is transferred to donor egg called as

a)

SCNT using embryo at mitosis

b)

Fusion

c)

Parthenogenesis

d)

ANT

e)

SCNT

22.

Which of the following is INCORRECT for the transport of small substance across lipid bilayer?

a)

CO2 and O2 diffuse rapidly across bilayer

b)

Glucose hardly to diffuse thus need special transport protein

c)

Lipid bilayer are permeable to ions

d)

Small, uncharged and polar molecules diffuse rapidly across bilayer

e)

Lipid bilayers are impermeable to charged molecules

23.

The proteins that makeup the electron transport chain in animals are located

a)

In the mitochondrial matrix

b)

On the outer mitochondrial membrane

c)

In the cytoplasm

d)

In the nucleus

e)

On the inner mitochondrial membrane

24.

Human Genome Project Objectives. Which of the following was (were) the objective(s) of the Human Genome Project?

a)

Obtain a detailed genetic map of every human chromosome

b)

Determine the sequence of all expressed human genes

c)

Determine the complete DNA sequence of each human chromosome

d)

A and B are true

e)

A, B, and C are true

25.

A 35-year-old Indonesian living in Europe came to his doctor with stomach cramps and diarrhea after drinking milk. What is the most likely cause for this man's problem?

a)

Lack of pancreatic amylase

b)

Excessive growth of bacteria and yeast in the large intestine

c)

Lactase deficiency in the small intestine (lactose intolerance)

d)

Aldolase B deficiency (fructose intolerance)

e)

Lack of sucrase-isomaltase of the small intestine

26.

DNA replication is discontinuous due to

a)

Sister chromatid exchange

b)

Polymerase slippage

c)

Topoisomerases cutting the DNA in a random fashion

d)

Being restricted to synthesis in the 5’ to 3’ direction

e)

Trinucleotide repeats

27.

Gout is a disorder associated with abnormal amounts of urates in the body. A drug used primarily to treat this hyperuricemia and its complications prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthin oxidase. The name of this drug is

a)

Voltaren

b)

Colchine

c)

Probenecid

d)

Aspirin

e)

Allopurinol

28.

Genes that can contribute to cancer through increased expression are

a)

Rapidly degraded

b)

Cyclin dependent kinase inhibitors

c)

Oncogenes

d)

Tumor suppressor genes

e)

Nonexistent

29.

Log radishes crossed with round radishes result in all oval radishes. This type of inheritance is

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Co-dominance

d)

Incomplete dominance

e)

Polygenic inheritance

30.

Vitamins often function as co-enzyme in a reaction. Which vitamin is essential for the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase to properly function and its deficiency causes disease called beri-beri?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

e)

Vitamin B12 (cobalamine)

31.

Which of the following is not true about HSC transplantation?

a)

Donor and recipient must have perfectly matched HLA

b)

Peripheral stem cell collection produces a lower yield compare to bone marrow collection

c)

Allogenic transplantation is when the donor and recipient are the same species

d)

The higher the degree of mismatched HLA the more complications with engraftment and graft versus host syndrome

e)

Immunosuppressant can be used to prevent GVHD

32.

The effect of cell to cell communication may be broad to whole body or limited to certain part of body. Insulin secretion is an example of a way which acts at distance and influence the whole body, as know as

a)

Phosphorylation cascade

b)

Paracrine

c)

Endocrine

d)

Autocrine

e)

Intracrine

33.

The chemical bonds in DNA by which the sugar components of adjacent nucleotides are linked through the phosphate groups are called bonds.

a)

Phosphodiester

b)

Hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic

d)

Ionic

e)

Hydrogen

34.

Which of the following characteristic is not common to many cancer cells?

a)

Decreased adhesion to other cells

b)

Abnormal structures of chromosome

c)

Uncontrolled growth and division

d)

Absence of cytoskeleton

e)

Increased mobility

35.

The stage of mitosis when chromosomes condense to form rod-shaped structures visible under the microscope is called

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Interphase

e)

Metaphase

36.

Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) is a ligand that will stimulate the cell proliferation and differentiation when it is attached to its receptor on cell membrane. FGF receptor is a type of enzyme-linked receptor. Which of following is not the criteria of enzyme-linked receptor?

a)

Autophosphorylation

b)

Consist of 7 pass trans membrane alpha helix

c)

Has ligand binding on extracellular side

d)

For example, receptor serine/threonine kinase

e)

Has kinase domain on cytosol side

37.

While viewing a slide of rapidly moving sperm cells, a student concludes that these cells require a large amount of energy to maintain their activity. The organelle that most likely provides this energy is

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Peroxisome

e)

Centrosome

38.

The pathway of a tRNA during polypeptide elongation on the ribosome is

a)

A site → P site → E site

b)

P site → A site → E site

c)

A site → P site → entry site

d)

P site → Entry site → exit site

e)

Non of the above

39.

Which of the following factors can affect enzymes activity?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Salt concentration

d)

The addition or removal of phosphate

e)

All the above

40.

If a proto-oncogene is mutated into an oncogene in an otherwise normal cell, the immediate result would likely be

a)

Rapid mutations of other genes

b)

The cell would metastasize to other distant organ

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Not much, perhaps a slight accelerating of the cell cycle

e)

Cell cycle arrest

41.

Aneuploidy is the second major category of chromosome mutations in which chromosome number is abnormal. Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual?

a)

47, 21+

b)

47, XXX O

c)

45, X

d)

47, XXY

e)

47, XV

42.

Bone marrow is one of the stem cell source. Stem cells derived from bone marrow consist of hematopoietic and mesenchymal stem cell. Mesenchymal stem cell is capable to differentiate into the following type of cells, except

a)

Cartilage

b)

Osteocyte and bone

c)

Adipose tissue

d)

Myoblast and chondroblast

e)

Lmyphoblast

43.

The sequence between 5’ methyl-guanosine cap (5’ cap) and start codon in eukaryotic mRNA is called

a)

Last intron

b)

Termination codon

c)

5’ UTR (untranslated region)

d)

Last exon

e)

3’ UTR (untranslated region)

44.

A pluripotent stem cell is

a)

A specialized cell that mainly differentiate into blood cell

b)

An undifferentiated cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of specialized cells to make an individual

c)

An undifferentiated cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of specialized cells, except for fetal supporting tissues

d)

Specialized cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of undifferentiated cells

e)

A specialized cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise of central nervous system

45.

Protesting the government's policy, a 25-year-old man went on hunger strike. Which of the following metabolites are the most heavily elevated in his blood plasma after 3 days?

a)

Un-esterified fatty acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Ketone bodies

d)

Triacylglycerol

e)

Glycogen

46.

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was six feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive. What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?

a)

One out of four

b)

None

c)

All

d)

Half

e)

Three out of four

47.

Exocrine gland that secretes its product by losing the apical part of cytoplasm is known as gland

a)

Merocrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

d)

Endocrine

e)

None of the above

48.

Which of the following statements about the role of the pentose phosphate pathway is correct?

a)

The pentose phosphate pathway is directly connected to TCA cycle

b)

The pentose phosphate pathway oxidizes glucose-6-phosphate completely to carbon dioxide and water

c)

The pentose phosphate pathway delivers –NH3 for amino acid synthesis

d)

The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in the mitochondria of most cells

e)

The pentose phosphate pathway produces ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH

49.

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?

a)

The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end

b)

DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand

c)

Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end

d)

DNA ligase works only in the 3 5 direction

e)

Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time

50.

Epistasis controls the coat color of laboratory rats, with the B locus controlling color (Black is dominant to brown), and C locus determining the color-pigment deposit. Which of the following is trus?

a)

bbCc results in black coat

b)

bbcc results in brown coat

c)

BBcc results in black coat

d)

BbCc results in black coat

e)

Bbcc results in brown coat

51.

The spontaneous loss of amino groups from cytosine (C) results in uracil (U), an uncommon base, opposite guanine in DNA. What combination of enzymes could repair such damage?

a)

Nuclease, telomerase, primase

b)

DNA ligase, helicase, RNase H

c)

Topoisomerase, helicase, RNA polymerase

d)

Nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

e)

Topoisomerase, primase, DNA polymerase

52.

A single pass transmembrane protein that acts as a self-marker is:

a)

ECM

b)

cAMP

c)

MP

d)

G-protein

e)

MHC

53.

Totipotent stem cell is

a)

Stem cells that can differentiate into any type of specialized cells found in organism of that species.

b)

Stem cells that can become all the cell types that are found in an organism, but not the embryonic components of the trophoblast and placenta (these are usually called extra-embyonic tissues).

c)

Stem cells that can produce cells of multiple differentiated cell types, but all within a particular tissue, organ, or physiological system.

d)

Stem cells that mainly differentiate into blood forming cell

e)

None above is correct

54.

A girl pulled her hand away after accidentally touched a hot stove. Moment from the signal until she pulled her hand was very quick. The transmission of a nerve impulse along a neuron from one end to the other occurs as a result of electrical changes across the membrane of the neuron. The term of depolarization in nerve signaling is

a)

Inside of the cell more negative relative to the outside

b)

The charge of cell shifts from negative to positive

c)

Has an inhibitory effect at synapse

d)

Triggered by Na+ outflux

e)

Triggered by K+ influx

55.

A phenotypically normal woman with a translocation involving chromosomes 14 and 21 karyotype has a karyotypically normal husband. Among their liveborn offspring, which of the following karyotype is LEAST likely?

a)

Balanced Carrier

b)

Normal

c)

Translocation chr 21 and 14

d)

Monosomy 21

e)

Trisomy 21

56.

Together with clinicians at siloam hospital, MRIN scientists are planning to conduct gene therapy research to treat cystic fibrosis (CF), as they think CF is good candidate. Which of the following statement is the most appropriate for their plan?

a)

CF is inherited in dominant manner

b)

The target tissue is the skin

c)

There are several mutations that caused the disease

d)

CF is single gene disorder

e)

Gene therapy is affordable

57.

Which of the following statement is TRUE about passive transport

a)

Movement of substance against concentration gradient with energy cost

b)

Movement of water from hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution without energy cost

c)

Movement of substance down its electrochemical gradient with or without carrier protein

d)

NA+/K+ pump

e)

None of the above

58.

HSC needs to be characterized before transplantation. Which of the following is a characteristic of HSC?

a)

Able to produce embryoid body in vitro

b)

Can be derived from mesenchymal tissue

c)

Cannot undergo apoptosis

d)

CD133+/34

e)

Addition of cytokines such as GM-CSF will cause the cells to differentiate to lymphoid progenitor

59.

Glycolysis takes places in the ___ and produces ___, which in the presence of oxygen then enters the ____.

a)

Cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion to complete cellular respiration

b)

Nucleus; acetyl-CoA; cytosol to complete gluconeogenesis

c)

Mitochondrion; pyruvate; chloroplast to complete photosynthesis

d)

Cytosol; glucose; mitochondrion to complete fermentation

e)

Cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion to complete fermentation

60.

What is the effect of a missense mutation in a gene?

a)

It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein

b)

It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein

c)

It alters the reading frame of the mRNA

d)

It prevents introns from being excised

e)

It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA

61.

Cell cycle checkpoints are control mechanisms in eukaryotic cells which ensure proper division of the cell. At the center of the cell cycle control system is Cdk, a protein that

a)

Binds to different cyclins

b)

Is dephosphorylated to become active

c)

Binds to different cyclins

d)

Is only active during mitosis

e)

Is degraded before it is active

62.

A researcher made an interesting observation about a protein that was translocated into the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) during its synthesis and eventually ending up in the plasma membrane. Significantly, the protein in the plasma membrane was found to be slightly larger than the related protein in the ER. The protein was probably changed in the

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi apparatus

63.

Positron emission tomography (PET) imaging using 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18F-FDG) has been a powerful cancer imaging tool for many decades. Of the many hallmarks of cancer that include biological capabilities acquired during the multistep development of human tumors; which one is put to use when imaging cancer using PET:

a)

Sustained angiogenesis

b)

Limitless replicative potential

c)

Evading apoptosis

d)

Reprogramming metabolism

e)

Self-sufficiency in growth signal

64.

The blood sugar homeostasis involves hormones that are secreted by pancreas. The hormone that is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas that lowers blood glucose when levels are high is

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Somatostatin

65.

Cancer is unchecked cell growth. Mutations in certain genes can cause cancer by accelerating cell division rates. Any drug that blocks the process of cell replication has therefore potential as a treatment for cancer. Which one of the following would be a potential target drug for cancer treatment?

a)

Drug that disrupts microtubule assembly

b)

Drug that disrupts cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase complex

c)

Drug that stabilizes microtubule structure

d)

Drug that inhibits proteasome function

e)

All options are potential target drug

66.

Extracellular signal interacts with its receptor to initiate signal transduction. Which of the following plasma membrane receptors activate signalling pathways usually by forming molecular dimers upon binding of their specific ligand?

a)

Acetylcholine receptors

b)

Steroid hormone receptors

c)

Receptor tyrosine kinases

d)

Ligand-gated ion channels

e)

G protein-coupled receptors

67.

Signal sequences are

a)

Short peptide sequences attached to a protein that initiates its degradation by digestive enzymes

b)

Short peptide sequences to transport a protein to the nucleus

c)

Short peptide sequences that serve as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location

d)

Glycoproteins that serve as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location

e)

Short peptide sequences that are synthesized by signal peptidase

68.

DNA damage has been long recognized as causal factor for cancer development. When inaccurate DNA repair leads to mutations or chromosomal aberrations affecting cancer critical genes, cells undergo malignant transformation resulting in cancerous growth. In which of the following DNA repair pathways do cell rely on BRCA1 function?

a)

Nucleotide excision repair

b)

Base excision repair

c)

Homologous end-joining

d)

Non-homologous end-joining

e)

Mismatch repair

69.

Marasmus is a form of serve malnutrition characterized by energy deficiency. It can occur in anyone with serve malnutrition but usually occurs in children. What type of cellular adaptation happens in this case?

a)

Metatrophy

b)

Hyperplasia

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Metaplasia

e)

Atrophy

70.

Which one of the following sequences best describe the steps leading to tumor angiogenesis? 1) Endothelial cell activation 2) Endothelial cell proliferation 3) HIF1-alpha activation 4) Sprouting 5) VEGF expression 6) Basement membrane degradation

a)

5,3,1,2,6,4

b)

5,1,3,2,4,6

c)

5,1,6,3,2,4

d)

3,5,1,6,2,4

e)

3,1,2,5,4,6

71.

Embryonic stem cells are self-renewal, immortal and have an almost unlimited differentiation potential. Those characteristics are results of inhibiting differentiation and apoptosis. Which of the following is the correct network for the regulation of embryonic stem cell self-renewal?

a)

Myc-FGF-LIF

b)

FGF-Nanog-Oct4

c)

cMyc-FGF-Oct4

d)

LIF-Sox2-cMyc

e)

Sox2-Nanog-Oct4

72.

A 21-year-old woman is presented to the Emergency Room with extreme muscle weakness, difculty in swallowing and breathing. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis was made based on the history, examination and laboratory test. Myasthenia gravis is a condition of an improper functioning at the neuromuscular junction. What is blocked at neuromuscular junction in this case?

a)

blocked acetylcholine receptor

b)

defect in Na+ coltage-gated receptor

c)

damage in dendrites

73.

Cells fall into one of two broad categories: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. The single-celled organisms of the domains Bacteria and Archaea are classified as prokaryotes. Animal cells, plant cells, fungi, and protists are eukaryotes. Which of the following is a feature found in BOTH prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Extensive array of intermediate filaments

b)

Multiple linear chromosomes in each cell

c)

Mitotic spindles that partition chromosomes into the daughter cells

d)

Ribosomes that accomplish protein synthesis

e)

All of the above are found in both types of cells

74.

Tissue in which the cellular component is very dominant and contains very few extracellular components is known as

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue

d)

Connective tissue

e)

None of the above

75.

A scientist collects cells from a phase of embryonic development and wants to test if those cells are pluripotent. What are two ways to demonstrate pluripotency?

a)

In vitro producing teratoma and in vivo producing GVHD

b)

In vitro producing embryoids bodies and in vivo producing GVHD

c)

In vitro producing embryoids bodies and in vivo producing teratoma

d)

In vitro producing teratoma and in vivo producing embryoids bodies

e)

In vitro producing three layers and in vivo producing immune rejection

76.

Which of the following enzyme groups can catalyse oxidation reactions?

a)

Hydrolases

b)

Isomerases

c)

Lyases

d)

Ligases

e)

Dehydrogenases

77.

In Mendel’s experiment with the pea plants, which trait was observed in the F1 generation?

a)

Recessive

b)

Incomplete recessive

c)

Co-dominant

d)

Dominant

e)

Incomplete dominance

78.

A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) refers to any position in the nuclear genome where there is at least one variant nucleotide that occurs at a frequency of 1% or more within the population. A SNP may alter function of a protein due to

a)

Synonymous change in exon

b)

Synonymous change in promoter

c)

Non-synonymous change in intron

d)

Non-synonymous change in exon

e)

Synonymous change in intron

79.

A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of more than 200200 mg/dL. Patient has associated symptoms such as polyuria and polydipsia. Further test showed that patient’s pancreas has a defect in glucose transport thus affects the insulin production and release process. Pancreas takes up glucose from blood through …

a)

GLUT 2

b)

GLUT 1

c)

GLUT 5

d)

GLUT 4

e)

GLUT 3

80.

A simple method to distinguish two types of bacteria is their ability in retaining the crystal violet dye (Gram staining). What is the characteristic of Gram positive bacteria?

a)

Releases endotoxin

b)

A lower peptidoglycan and higher lipid content

c)

A larger periplasmic space

d)

A higher peptidoglycan and lower lipid content

e)

Two outer membranes

81.

Among the common causes of cancer are infection by cancer-causing (oncogenic) viruses. The following statement is true for oncogenic viruses except: Select one:

a)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) expresses E6 oncogenic protein

b)

Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) integrates viral genome into cellular DNA

c)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) increases alternative splicing of angiogenesis-related genes

d)

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) promotes DNA repair

e)

Epstein Barr Virus oncogene LMP1 inhibits p53 function

82.

Enzymes involved in phosphorylation cascade are kinase and phosphatase. The following is the function of phosphatase:

a)

Amplifying signal

b)

Removing phosphate group from the intracellular signalling protein

c)

Activating intracellular protein signalling

d)

Phosphorylation

e)

Adding phosphate group onto the intracellular signalling protein

83.

Which of the following definitions is NOT properly matched with the respective proteins?

a)

Insulin: Controls glucose metabolism

b)

Antibody: Immune system molecule

c)

Collagen: Structural protein

d)

Actin: Required for muscle contraction

e)

Amylase: Transport/storage protein

84.

Which of the following statements about the synthesis of fatty acids is correct?

a)

NADH is used for fatty acid synthesis

b)

NADH is formed from fatty acid synthesis

c)

NADPH is used for fatty acid synthesis

d)

NADPH is formed from fatty acid synthesis

e)

None of these

85.

Which enzymes remove supercoiling during DNA replication ahead of the replication fork?

a)

Ligases

b)

Primases

c)

Helicases

d)

DNA polymerases

e)

Topoisomerases

86.

Insulin is a protein that is produced by certain pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production in the rough ER to its exit from the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus, plasma membrane

b)

Lysosomes, transport vesicles, plasma membrane

c)

Transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, plasma membrane

d)

Lysosome, plasma membrane

e)

Golgi apparatus, smooth ER, cell membrane

87.

Parthenogenesis is …

a)

A process of asexual reproduction that involves development of egg without reutilization

b)

A process of development where egg is fertilized in petri dish

c)

A process of obtaining tetraploid pluripotent cells

d)

A process of obtaining stem cells from bone marrow mesenchymal tissue

e)

A process of development where stem cell is fused with somatic cell to produced tetraploid cell

88.

Two broad classes of genes - proto-oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes - play a key role in cancer induction. Of the many known oncogenes, all but a few are derived from normal cellular genes (i.e., proto-oncogenes) whose products participate in cellular growth-controlling pathways. Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms except: Select one:

a)

During a viral infection cycle

b)

Radiation induced mutation

c)

Elimination of their start signals for translation

d)

Chemically induced mutagenesis

e)

Chromosomal rearrangements

89.

Which one of the following statements describe non-essential amino acids?

a)

They are ingested but not used in protein synthesis

b)

They are stored in adequate amounts so are not needed in the diet

c)

They only can be found in complete proteins

d)

They can be synthesized from metabolic intermediates

e)

They are less important in cells than essential amino acids

90.

Endocytosis is a cellular process in which substances are brought into the cell. Which of the following substances is most likely to be brought into a cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis?

a)

A sodium ion

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

LDL particle

e)

An amino acid

91.

The process of translation requires the presence of:

a)

mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase

b)

Free nucleotide bases, amino acids and ribosomes

c)

mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes

d)

DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase

e)

Chromatin, DNA and amino acids

92.

Intracellular connection that facilitates intracellular communication by allowing the movement of various small molecules between adjunct cell is known as

a)

Tight junction

b)

Macula adherens

c)

Zonula adherens

d)

Fascia adherens

e)

Gap junction

93.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

a)

Ionic bonds between charged side chains of amino acids

b)

Covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone

c)

Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues

d)

Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds

e)

Peptide bonds between amino acids

94.

Peritoneal dialysis is methods to remove excess waste and water from the blood of patients suffering from kidney disease. In this process, patient receives injection of dialysis liquid into the peritoneum. The removal of water into the peritoneum in this process is an example of osmosis. Which of the following statement is correct for osmosis?

a)

A process that lead to isotonic condition in blood

b)

Movement of solute from high concentration to low concentration area

c)

Movement of ion from the high concentration to low solute concentration

d)

Movement of ion from the lower concentration to high concentration area

e)

A process that lead to hypotonic condition in blood

95.

In eukaryotes, there are three different RNA polymerases. The RNA polymerase responsible for synthesis of mRNA is

a)

RNA polymerase I

b)

RNA polymerase II

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

RNA polymerase IV

e)

None of these

96.

The followings are characteristic of X-linked dominant inheritance, except:

a)

Affected women have milder phenotype than affected men

b)

Males and females may be affected

c)

No male to male transmission

d)

Both sons and daughters of affected women have 50% risk of being affected

e)

Half of daughters of affected male will be affected