wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

The role of sonography in OB

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

  1. 1. To confirm the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy

2. To evaluate a suspected ectopic pregnancy

3. To define the cause of vaginal bleeding

4. To evaluate pelvic pain

5. To estimate gestational (menstrual) age



(a)  

2.

6. To diagnose or evaluate multiple pregnancy

7. To confirm cardiac activity

8. As an adjunct to chorionic villous sampling, embryo transfer, or

localization and removal of an intrauterine device

9. To assess for certain fetal anomalies, such as anencephaly, in

patients at high risk

(a)  

3.

10. To evaluate maternal pelvic or adnexal masses or uterine

abnormalities

11. To screen for fetal aneuploidy

12. To evaluate suspected hydatidiform mole

(a)  

4.

In which trimester would you evaluate for fetal aneuploidy?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

5.

In which trimester would you evaluate suspected hydatiform mole?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

all

6.

Can scanning in the first trimester be performed transabdominally AND transvaginally?

a)

Yes

b)

No

7.

Use of Doppler ultrasound during the first trimester is (a)   recommended; it must be used only when there is medical indication and the benefits outweigh the risks

8.

In the first trimester, what is the MOST ACCURATE means for sonographic dating of pregnancy?

a)

Femur to foot length

b)

Crown-rump measurement

c)

BP

d)

APD

9.

1. Evaluation of gestational age

2. Evaluation of fetal growth

3. Evaluation of vaginal bleeding

4. Evaluation of cervical insufficiency

5. Evaluation of abdominal and pelvic pain

(a)  

10.

6. Determination of fetal presentation

7. Evaluation of suspected multiple gestation

8. Adjunct to amniocentesis or other procedure

9. Significant discrepancy between uterine size and clinical dates

10. Evaluation of pelvic mass

(a)  

11.

11. Examination of suspected hydatidiform mole

12. Adjunct to cervical cerclage placement

13. Evaluation of suspected ectopic pregnancy (rare)

(a)  

12.

14. Evaluation of suspected fetal death

15. Evaluation of suspected uterine abnormality

16. Evaluation of fetal well-being

17. Evaluation of suspected amniotic fluid abnormalities

18. Evaluation of suspected placental abruption

19. Adjunct to external cephalic version

(a)  

13.

20. Evaluation for premature rupture of membranes and/or premature labor

21. Evaluation for abnormal biochemical markers

22. Follow-up evaluation of a fetal anomaly

23. Follow-up evaluation of placental location for suspected placenta previa

24. Evaluation of those with a history of previous congenital anomaly

(a)  

14.

25. Evaluation of fetal condition in late registrants for prenatal care

26. Assessment of findings that may increase the risk of aneuploidy

27. Screening for fetal anomalies

(a)  

15.

Which of the following is NOT one of the parameters used to determine gestational age?

a)

Biparietal diameter - BPD

b)

Head circumference – HC

c)

Crown rump length - CRL

d)

Abdominal circumference – AC

e)

Femoral (diaphysis) length = Femur

length -FL

16.

BPD stands for

(a)  

17.

HC stands for

(a)  

18.

AC stands for

(a)  

19.

Femur length (FL)

(a)  

20.

Do you measure the epiphysis in the femur length measurement?

a)

yes

b)

No

21.

Measuring fetal growth by sonography at ___ to ___-week intervals permits assessment of the impact of a complicating condition of the fetus and guides pregnancy management.

a)

3-6

b)

10-12

c)

2-4

d)

4-7

22.

When the patient has an identified cause for uteroplacental insufficiency, such as severe preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, chronic renal disease, or severe diabetes mellitus, or for other medical complications of pregnancy in which fetal malnutrition, What should be suspected?

a)

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

b)

Extrauterine growth restriction (EUGR)

c)

Macrosomia

d)

Microsomia

23.

Determination of the source of bleeding and the status of the fetus

(a)  

24.

Pregnant women with increased risk or recurrent preterm birth or primary preterm birth

(a)  

25.

Ectopic pregnancy, abrupt placentae, or maternal appendicitis, renal calculi, pelvic mass, or other conditions

(a)  

26.

Accurate knowledge of presentation guides management of delivery

(a)  

27.

More than one fetal heartbeat pattern, fundal height larger than expected for dates, or prior use of fertilitilty drugs

(a)  

28.

Sonography permits guidance of the needle to avoid the placenta and fetus, to increase the chance of obtaining amniotic fluid, and to decrease the chance of pregnancy loss

(a)  

29.

suspected on the basis of clinical signs of hypertension,

proteinuria, or the presence of ovarian cysts felt on pelvic examination or

failure to detect fetal heart tones with a Doppler ultrasound device after 12

weeks. US permits accurate diagnosis and differentiation of this neoplasm from

fetal death

(a)  

30.

US aids in timing and proper

placement of the cerclage for patients with incompetent cervix

(a)  

31.

Tubal pregnancies generally rupture between which weeks?

a)

6-10

b)

4-12

c)

3-9

d)

5-11

32.

Biophysical evaluation for fetal well-being

after (a)   weeks of gestation may include assessment of amniotic fluid, fetal

tone, body movements, breathing movements, and heart rate patterns

33.

Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) increases the risk for open defects

such as neural tube defects. Other biochemical markers may indicate increased

risk for certain obstetric or fetal conditions

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

34.

What examination is performed at 13 weeks and 6 days of GA?

a)

First trimester risk assessment

b)

First trimester examination

c)

First trimester nuchal transluceny

d)

Standard obstetric examination

35.

In which examination would you examine Uterus, the cervix, and the

maternal adnexa, as well as the gestational sac and embryo?

a)

First trimester examination

b)

Second trimester examination

c)

Limited OB examination

d)

Standard OB exam

36.

In the (a)   examination you check for GA (CRL, GS), fetal heart activity, uterine anomalies, pelvic masses, chronicity/amniocity of multiple gestations

37.

AKA Nuchal translucency examination, this is performed between weeks 11-14

(a)  

38.

Which condition must be met to warrant a first trimetster nuchal translucency exam?

a)

When women choose first trimester screening for BP

b)

When women choose first trimester screening for aneuploidy

c)

When women choose first trimester heartbeat scans

d)

All of the above

39.

Includes measurement of fetal crown- rump length and measurement of nuchal translucency using standard criteria

(a)  

40.

Which OB examination is performed during the 2nd trimester around week 18?

a)

Specialty OB examination

b)

Limited OB sonography examination

c)

Repeat OB sonography examination

d)

Standard OB sonography examination

41.

This exam includes:

  1. Evaluation of GA (by fetal biometry), fetal number, placental position, cardiac activity, amniotic volume, fetal anatomic survey



(a)  

42.

This exam is similar to standard OB exams, Performed when a previous standard

obstetric examination has been recorded and the second examination is ordered for the same indication

(a)  

43.

This examination includes:

Biometry to evaluate fetal growth

Reevaluation of anatomy that may or may not have been visualized during standard exam

(a)  

44.

This examination is only done when a previous standard OB exam has been reported, and is used to answer a specific clinical question

(a)  

45.

This exam is used to answer:

Presentation of fetus

Placental location

Cervical length

Amniotic fluid volume

Verification of fetal heart motion

(a)  

46.

AKA Detailed fetal anatomical sonogram

(a)  

47.

Performed when an anomaly is suspected based on maternal history, biochemistry, or results of a previous OB sonogram when there is a known fetal growth disorder, or when there is an increased risk for a fetal condition

(a)  

48.

Includes all components of the standard examination plus a more in-depth view of fetal anatomy (additional views of the fetal heart and may include color Doppler views of the heart)

(a)  

49.

It is important to document the clinical date reported by the patient and the date determined by the earliest sonographic examination

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Number of pregnancies, INCLUDING the present one

(a)  

51.

IS a numeric system that describes all pregnancy outcomes

(a)  

52.

In TPAL, T stands for:

a)

Full term deliveries

b)

Premature births and stillborns

c)

Early pregnancy loss or termination

d)

Living children

53.

In TPAL, P stands for

a)

Full term deliveries

b)

Premature births and stillbirths

c)

Early pregnancy loss and stillborns

d)

Living children

54.

In TPAL, A stands for

a)

Full term deliveries

b)

Premature births and stillborns

c)

Early pregnancy loss or termination

d)

Living children

55.

In TPAL, L stands for

a)

Full term deliveries

b)

Premature births and stillborns

c)

Early pregnancy loss or termination

d)

Living children

56.

What is the standard way to date pregnancy in the USA?

a)

Last date of ovulation

b)

First date of last normal menstrual period

c)

Last date of bleeding

57.

If conception on day 14 from LMP pregnancy duration is:

a)

365 days or 52 weeks

b)

280 days or 40 weeks

c)

266 days or 38 weeks

58.

The duration of human pregnancy is 266 days, give or take 10 days

a)

true

b)

false

59.

How many weeks is each trimester?

a)

15

b)

12

c)

16

d)

13

60.

13 weeks and 6 days of GA describes the (a)   trimester

61.

14-26 weeks of GA describes the (a)   trimester

62.

This trimester begins last 27 weeks and last until term

(a)  

63.

GA’s by US during 1st and 2nd Trimesters take

precedence over menstrual dates when

discrepancy > 7 days (1st trimester) or >10 days

(2nd trimester)

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Should GA's be dated using ultrasound measurements in the 3rd term?

a)

Yes

b)

No

65.

Measurement of GA is often precise

a)

true

b)

false

66.

Month 1 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

1-4

b)

5-8

c)

9-13

d)

14-17

67.

Month 2 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

1-4

b)

5-8

c)

14-17

d)

9-13

68.

Month 3 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

1-4

b)

5-8

c)

9-13

d)

14-18

69.

Month 4 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

1-4

b)

5-8

c)

9-13

d)

14-17

70.

Month 5 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

18-21

b)

22-26

c)

27-30

d)

31-35

71.

Month 6 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

1-4

b)

22-26

c)

27-30

d)

31-35

72.

Month 7 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

22-26

b)

27-30

c)

31-35

d)

36-40

73.

Month 8 corresponds to which weeks?

a)

22-26

b)

27-30

c)

31-35

d)

36-40

74.

Month 9 corresponds roughly to which weeks?

a)

22-26

b)

27-30

c)

31-35

d)

36-40

75.

EDD = 1st day of LNMP + 1 year − 3 months + 7 days

OR

EDD = 1st day of LNMP + 9 months +7 days

(a)  

76.

Factors that may affect the risk of producing. a fetus with congenital abnormalities include:

a)

Increased maternal age

b)

1st or 2nd trimester maternal serum biochemistry values

c)

1st trimester increased nuchal translucent, maternal disease

d)

1st or 2nd trimester abnormal CRL

e)

Pregnant uterine cavity that is too small or too large for dates

77.

•a previous child born with a chromosomal disorder

•exposure to a known teratogenic drug or infectious agent

known to cause birth defects

(a)  

78.

The sonographer should ONLY perform the ultrasound evaluation when there are CLEAR clinical indications

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The (a)   possible ultrasonic exposure settings should be used to gain the necessary diagnostic information

80.

A definitive diagnosis of intrauterine pregnancy can be made when the following is present:

a)

An intrauterine gestational sac

b)

A yolk sac

c)

Embryo/Fetus

d)

Cardiac activity

e)

Movement of baby

81.

No independently confirmed adverse

effects caused by exposure from present diagnostic ultrasound instruments

have been reported in human patients in the absence of contrast agents

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Doppler imaging produces (a)   levels of energy

83.

Sonographers have a responsibility to be knowledgeable regarding

ultrasound bioeffects and to use the least amount of energy necessary

to obtain the clinical information needed

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which type of doppler is used in the fetus?

a)

Continuous wave

b)

Color doppler

c)

Power doppler

d)

Pulsed wave doppler

85.

Doppler is NOT used to detect flow in the maternal vessels, the fetal vessels

(umbilical artery and vein, aorta and inferior vena cava, renal arteries,

and cerebral vessels), the fetal ductus venosus, the fetal heart, and the

placenta

a)

True

b)

False

86.

1. Uterus and adnexa should be evaluated for the presence of a gestational sac.

2. Presence or absence of cardiac activity should be reported.

3. Fetal number should be documented.

4. Evaluation of the uterus, adnexal structures, and cul-de-sac should be performed.

(a)  

87.

5. During late 1st trimester (11 to 14 weeks) a

nuchal translucency measurement may be

performed according to standard criteria for

women desiring to assess their individual risk for

fetal aneuploidy

(a)  

88.

1. Biometric and anatomic survey of the fetus

2. A qualitative or semi quantitative estimate of the volume of amniotic fluid

(a)  

89.

3. Placental localization, appearance, and relationship to the internal cervical os should be recorded. Umbilical cord , number of vessels

4. Gestational (menstrual) age should be assessed by sonographic biometry

(a)  

90.

5. Evaluation of maternal anatomy

6. Fetal anatomy

(a)  

91.

(a)   may be estimated by using the AC measurement in

mathematical formulations along with other sonographic parameters