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SECTION 1 & 2: Overview and Types of Scientific Research

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best captures the primary goal of basic research in the health sciences?

a)

Validate safety of an approved therapy

b)

Develop a market-ready clinical intervention

c)

Optimize hospital workflow and logistics

d)

Expand knowledge about biological mechanisms

2.

Which example aligns most closely with basic research methods commonly used to study biology?

a)

Community health outreach programs

b)

Insurance claims mining

c)

Phase III trials in patients

d)

Cell cultures for pathway exploration

3.

Which feature is a common reason animals are selected as research models?

a)

Infinite lifespan for long studies

b)

Guaranteed zero ethical concerns

c)

Physiological similarity to humans

d)

Identical genomes across all species

4.

Which contribution is a documented outcome of animal research in medicine?

a)

Development of vaccines like polio

b)

Replacement of clinical trials entirely

c)

Discovery of astrology-based cures

d)

Elimination of all surgical risks

5.

Which statement differentiates applied research from basic research?

a)

Rejects knowledge expansion as a goal

b)

Prohibits use of computational models

c)

Targets a specific biomedical problem

d)

Avoids all experiments with organisms

6.

A team uses computer simulations to understand viral replication without immediate patient application. Which research type fits best?

a)

Quality improvement in hospitals

b)

Clinical research testing therapies

c)

Basic research focusing on mechanisms

d)

Public health surveillance study

7.

Which rationale supports using controlled genetics in animal models?

a)

Guarantee faster approval of new drugs

b)

Ensure identical clinical outcomes in humans

c)

Reduce biological variability across subjects

d)

Replace regulatory oversight entirely

8.

Which scenario illustrates applied research in biomedicine?

a)

Designing a targeted therapy to block a pathway

b)

Mapping cellular metabolism across species

c)

Modeling protein folding without clinical aims

d)

Cataloging microorganisms in soil ecosystems

9.

Which setting qualifies as clinical research in drug development?

a)

Bench tests on inert materials

b)

Experiments on live animals or humans

c)

Field surveys of consumer opinions

d)

Simulations using computer models only

10.

Before a new drug is approved, what must occur?

a)

Certification by hospital boards

b)

FDA-required clinical research

c)

Approval from insurance providers

d)

Peer review by journal editors

11.

Which activity is part of clinical research?

a)

Ethnographic studies of culture

b)

Behavioral assessments in subjects

c)

Market analysis of price points

d)

Calibration of lab equipment

12.

What distinguishes a control group from an experimental group?

a)

Receives placebo or no treatment

b)

Has larger sample size always

c)

Includes only healthy volunteers

d)

Uses more advanced diagnostics

13.

Which statement best defines an experimental group?

a)

Receives treatment or intervention

b)

Is blinded to study purpose

c)

Is matched by demographics

d)

Is analyzed with meta‑analysis

14.

Which is an intrinsic variable in animal or human studies?

a)

Diet provided by staff

b)

Age of the subject

c)

Light cycle in vivarium

d)

Room temperature during trials

15.

Which item is an extrinsic variable?

a)

Species used in the study

b)

Genetic background of subjects

c)

Environmental housing conditions

d)

Biological sex of participants

16.

A researcher wants to minimize bias from extrinsic variables. Which strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Select only one biological sex

b)

Increase placebo dosage levels

c)

Randomize and standardize environment

d)

Alter subjects’ genetic traits

17.

Which item is a housing or environmental variable that can affect laboratory animal studies?

a)

Drug dose selected for treatment

b)

Route used to administer medication

c)

Temperature within the animal room

d)

Feeding schedule timing variations

18.

Which factor is classified as a dietary variable rather than an experimental variable?

a)

Restraint method used during procedures

b)

Water quality provided to animals

c)

Route of drug administration chosen

d)

Anesthesia techniques applied

19.

Which option best fits under experimental variables in a preclinical study?

a)

Food composition offered daily

b)

Humidity maintained in housing

c)

Drug dose assigned per subject

d)

Noise levels in the room

20.

A research team wants to reduce confounding. Which adjustment targets a housing variable?

a)

Match feeding schedules across cages

b)

Control lighting cycles consistently

c)

Standardize anesthesia techniques used

d)

Fix the route of administration used

21.

Which species category is covered under the Animal Welfare Act (AWA)?

a)

All cold-blooded vertebrates

b)

Guinea pigs used in studies

c)

Rats bred specifically for research

d)

Birds bred for laboratory research

22.

Which animal group is exempt from AWA coverage according to federal definitions?

a)

Rabbits housed for testing

b)

Primates used in behavioral trials

c)

Birds bred specifically for research

d)

Hamsters in breeding colonies

23.

You are designing a dosing study. Which choice reflects a controllable experimental variable that directly affects pharmacologic exposure?

a)

Drug dose magnitude per animal

b)

Feeding schedule before dosing

c)

Humidity setpoint in the vivarium

d)

Handling differences among technicians

24.

Which facility obligation is specifically aimed at canine well-being under AWA requirements?

a)

Environmental enrichment for dogs

b)

Daily outdoor exercise for every species

c)

Behavioral training for all species

d)

Expanded kennel size for all animals

25.

How often must the IACUC conduct facility inspections?

a)

Every 3 months

b)

Every 12 months

c)

Every month

d)

Every 6 months

26.

Which trio represents the required IACUC membership composition?

a)

Scientist, compliance officer, non-scientist

b)

Veterinarian, animal technician, ethicist

c)

Two scientists, one administrator, veterinarian

d)

Veterinarian, non-scientist, scientist

27.

What authority does the IACUC hold regarding institutional decisions?

a)

It advises, but administrators have final say

b)

It can be overruled by the attending veterinarian

c)

It enforces policies only during inspections

d)

Its decisions cannot be overridden by administrators

28.

Which requirement addresses primate mental health in research settings?

a)

Daily cognitive testing sessions

b)

Psychological well-being for primates

c)

Species-specific sedation protocols

d)

Enhanced group housing policies

29.

What is the primary aim of the Three Rs principle of Replacement?

a)

Use non-animal methods when possible

b)

Reduce the number of animals used

c)

Refine techniques to minimize pain

d)

Replace dogs with farm animals

30.

Which IACUC role ensures humane endpoints and adequate anesthesia?

a)

The attending administrator

b)

The committee as a whole during protocol review

c)

The non-scientist member independently

d)

External auditors on annual visits

31.

Under AWA, which of the following is a facility-level requirement related to documentation?

a)

Open-access data repositories

b)

Daily publication of animal counts

c)

Public posting of all protocols

d)

Comprehensive recordkeeping

32.

Which action best represents the Reduction principle in humane research?

a)

Use the minimum number of animals required

b)

Replace animals with computer modeling when feasible

c)

Increase sample size to improve statistical power

d)

Modify procedures to reduce stress and pain

33.

What is the primary goal of the Refinement principle?

a)

Decrease total study duration

b)

Modify procedures to reduce stress and pain

c)

Separate clean and dirty hallways

d)

Require shower-in for all staff

34.

A conventional facility is characterized by which design feature?

a)

Air exits through HEPA sterilization

b)

Autoclave-only sterile supply entry

c)

Two hallways with clean–dirty separation

d)

Single hallway with no clean–dirty separation

35.

Which facility design reduces contamination risk by separating traffic flow?

a)

Barrier facility with airlocks only

b)

Double-corridor facility with two hallways

c)

Conventional facility with one hallway

d)

Containment facility at highest biosafety

36.

In a barrier facility, which practice is standard for maintaining sterility?

a)

Shower-in required for all personnel

b)

Two hallways separating clean and dirty

c)

Unfiltered air exits the building

d)

Reusable street clothing for staff

37.

Which facility type is intended to house infectious or zoonotic organisms?

a)

Conventional facility for routine housing

b)

Double-corridor with separated hallways

c)

Barrier facility with disposable clothing

d)

Containment facility with highest biosafety

38.

Air leaving the building is filtered or sterilized in which setting?

a)

Double-corridor laboratory

b)

Containment facility

c)

Conventional animal facility

d)

Barrier housing unit

39.

Shoebox cages for rodents are best described as what within laboratory housing?

a)

Least common enclosure type

b)

Used only in barrier facilities

c)

Most common caging option

d)

Specialized for containment only

40.

Which feature best characterizes suspended cages used for laboratory animals?

a)

Wire mesh with excellent ventilation

b)

Heavy plastic walls with filters

c)

Solid bottom with deep bedding

d)

Sealed sides for maximum insulation

41.

What is a known drawback of suspended cages compared to solid-bottom cages?

a)

Inadequate space for enrichment devices

b)

Poor microenvironment, drafty and stressful

c)

Excessive accumulation of bedding materials

d)

Higher risk of fecal–urine mixing

42.

Metabolism cages are specifically designed to do which of the following?

a)

Separate urine and feces for collection

b)

Provide large group housing spaces

c)

Offer enclosed, quiet resting areas

d)

Enable long-distance animal transport

43.

Select the study most appropriately conducted using metabolism cages.

a)

Hydration balance assessments

b)

Long-term transport tolerance

c)

Behavioral social bonding tests

d)

Endurance running performance

44.

Transport cages are best described by which combination of features?

a)

Used for moving animals only, short-term use

b)

Optimized for breeding, long-term housing

c)

High ventilation, stable microenvironment

d)

Large enrichment capacity, permanent housing

45.

Which statement about transport cages is most accurate for planning a shipment?

a)

They provide limited ventilation and are short-term

b)

They offer excellent ventilation for long-term use

c)

They are equipped with running wheels for rodents

d)

They prevent urine–feces mixing during studies

46.

Environmental enrichment primarily aims to achieve which outcome in captive animals?

a)

Eliminate all grooming and nesting behaviors

b)

Maximize cage density and throughput

c)

Increase caloric intake and weight gain

d)

Reduce stress and promote natural behaviors

47.

Which set lists suitable enrichment items for rodents?

a)

Nestlets, chew blocks, running wheels, PVC tubes

b)

Puzzle feeders, climbing structures, heavy ropes

c)

Heat lamps, metal perches, feeding troughs

d)

Mirror toys, sand baths, scent diffusers

48.

Which enrichment examples are most appropriate for primates in research housing?

a)

Wire mesh and solid-bottom bedding

b)

Running wheels and chew blocks

c)

Nestlets and PVC tubes

d)

Puzzle feeders and climbing structures

49.

Which feature best explains why purpose-bred animals are preferred for biomedical studies?

a)

Higher genetic uniformity across colonies

b)

Greater age diversity within groups

c)

More variable behavioral responses

d)

Increased exposure to wild pathogens

50.

What is the primary goal of quarantine when introducing new research animals?

a)

Standardize cage enrichment devices

b)

Reduce feed consumption during acclimation

c)

Prevent introduction of disease agents

d)

Identify animals with superior genetics

51.

During quarantine, which procedure directly screens for gastrointestinal pathogens?

a)

Observation for behavioral stress

b)

Fecal testing using culture or PCR

c)

Serology for systemic antibodies

d)

Physical exam of body condition

52.

Which activity in quarantine most relies on visual assessment over laboratory testing?

a)

Observation for stress indicators

b)

Serology for specific antigens

c)

Fecal testing for parasites

d)

Palpation during physical exam

53.

Axenic animals require which husbandry approach to maintain their status?

a)

Open housing with standard cages

b)

Periodic probiotic supplementation

c)

Routine room air exchanges

d)

Sterile food, bedding, and water

54.

Compared with conventional animals, axenic animals typically show which physiological trait?

a)

Slower growth across early life stages

b)

Enlarged cecum due to germ-free status

c)

Normal gut morphology without changes

d)

Higher baseline adaptive immunity

55.

In gnotobiology, “SPF” animals are best described as:

a)

Colonized with defined probiotic strains

b)

Exposed to all environmental microbes

c)

Sterile and completely germ-free

d)

Free of specific known pathogens

56.

Which combination best represents a standard quarantine workup in laboratory animal facilities?

a)

Genetic typing, pedigree review, breeding

b)

Diet change, cage transfer, social pairing

c)

Physical exams, fecal testing, serology

d)

Radiography, anesthesia, surgical screening

57.

Which occupational hazard is most directly associated with handling needles during animal procedures?

a)

Zoonotic infections from animal contact

b)

Chemical exposure from disinfectants

c)

Allergens from dander and bedding

d)

Needlestick injuries during injections

58.

Which PPE item is specifically emphasized for work with nonhuman primates (NHPs)?

a)

Surgical caps only

b)

Open-front lab coats

c)

Face shields for splash protection

d)

Single-use cotton gloves

59.

An animal handler updates required vaccinations. Which set best reflects common recommendations?

a)

Rabies, tetanus, hepatitis B

b)

Influenza, measles, varicella

c)

Polio, mumps, rubella

d)

Yellow fever, cholera, typhoid

60.

Why is genetic consistency in inbred rodent strains valuable to researchers?

a)

It eliminates the need for control groups

b)

It guarantees disease resistance in colonies

c)

It allows reproducible experimental outcomes

d)

It increases variability across cohorts

61.

A lab needs rapid generational turnover for a study. Which rodent advantage fits this need?

a)

High reproductive rate producing litters

b)

Low cost reducing budget demands

c)

Short lifespan enabling quick cohorts

d)

Documented normal values aiding baselines

62.

Which PPE combination best reduces risk when working with NHPs prone to aerosolized pathogens?

a)

Double gloves and ear protection

b)

Lab coat and safety glasses

c)

Respiratory protection and face shields

d)

Gowns and shoe covers only

63.

Which statement best explains a primary reason rodents are widely used in research?

a)

They lack documented normal physiological values

b)

They require complex housing infrastructure

c)

They have short lifespans aiding longitudinal work

d)

They are universally germ-free animals

64.

A technician experiences sneezing after cage changes. Which hazard is most likely involved?

a)

Zoonotic infections from bites

b)

Needlestick injuries from sharps

c)

Allergens from rodent dander

d)

Chemical exposure from formaldehyde

65.

Which disease is specifically associated with mice and often called mouse pox?

a)

Ectromelia virus infection

b)

Sendai respiratory virus

c)

Tyzzer’s bacterial disease

d)

Mouse Hepatitis Virus

66.

Which virus commonly affects both mice and rats in laboratory colonies?

a)

Sendai virus

b)

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis

c)

Mycoplasma pulmonis

d)

Bordetella bronchiseptica

67.

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is a notable pathogen primarily listed under which rodent?

a)

Rats category

b)

Gerbils category

c)

Mice category

d)

Hamsters category

68.

Tyzzer’s disease in mice is caused by what general type of pathogen?

a)

Helminthic worm

b)

Protozoan parasite

c)

Bacterial organism

d)

Fungal organism

69.

Mycoplasma pulmonis in rats most characteristically affects which body system?

a)

Respiratory tract

b)

Gastrointestinal tract

c)

Dermatologic system

d)

Renal system

70.

Sialodacryoadenitis in rats primarily involves which tissues?

a)

Peripheral lymph nodes

b)

Intestinal mucosal lining

c)

Pulmonary alveolar tissue

d)

Salivary and lacrimal glands

71.

RingtaiI in rats is most commonly linked to which environmental issue?

a)

Humidity imbalance

b)

Low dietary protein

c)

Excessive light exposure

d)

High ambient ammonia

72.

Which condition appears in both rats and guinea pigs and involves abnormal tooth alignment?

a)

Wet tail

b)

Epilepsy

c)

RingtaiI

d)

Malocclusion

73.

Wet tail in hamsters is another name for which gastrointestinal condition?

a)

Gastric dilatation

b)

Colonic diverticulitis

c)

Pancreatic insufficiency

d)

Proliferative ileitis

74.

A hamster with sudden heart failure is most likely suffering from which listed condition?

a)

Cardiomyopathy

b)

Antibiotic toxicity

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Scurvy

75.

Antibiotic toxicity is highlighted as a concern for which rodent species in this section?

a)

Mice

b)

Gerbils

c)

Rats

d)

Hamsters

76.

Gerbils commonly exhibit which neurologic condition from the list?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Cardiomyopathy

c)

Wet tail

d)

Tyzzer’s disease

77.

Nasal dermatitis, often called sore nose, is listed under which rodent?

a)

Gerbils

b)

Guinea pigs

c)

Rats

d)

Hamsters

78.

Scurvy in guinea pigs results from a deficiency of which nutrient?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

79.

Which bacterial pathogen is specifically associated with guinea pig respiratory disease in the list?

a)

Pasteurella multocida

b)

Salmonella enterica

c)

Mycoplasma pulmonis

d)

Bordetella bronchiseptica

80.

Cervical lymphadenitis is a notable condition for which rodent in the content?

a)

Guinea pigs

b)

Rats

c)

Mice

d)

Gerbils

81.

Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV) primarily affects which species listed?

a)

Rat population

b)

Guinea pig population

c)

Hamster population

d)

Mice population

82.

Which two rodent categories explicitly list Sendai virus as a common disease?

a)

Rats and guinea pigs

b)

Hamsters and gerbils

c)

Mice and rats

d)

Mice and guinea pigs

83.

Which condition name includes a parenthetical synonym indicating colloquial usage?

a)

Scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency)

b)

Ectromelia (“mouse pox”)

c)

Nasal dermatitis (“sore nose”)

d)

RingtaiI (humidity issues)

84.

Which listed disease group includes both a nutrient deficiency and bacterial infections?

a)

Rats set

b)

Gerbils set

c)

Mice set

d)

Guinea pigs set

85.

Which feature best distinguishes New World Primates from Old World Primates?

a)

Greater body size compared to macaques

b)

Prehensile tails present in many species

c)

Opposable thumbs absent in most species

d)

Longer gestation than Old World Primates

86.

Which animals are typical examples of Old World Primates used in research?

a)

Macaques and baboons

b)

Marmosets and tamarins

c)

Capuchins and squirrel monkeys

d)

Lorises and tarsiers

87.

Which research area commonly employs nonhuman primates due to immune system similarities?

a)

Orthopedic implant metallurgy

b)

Dermatophyte mycology

c)

Plant-based nutrition studies

d)

HIV/AIDS research

88.

When handling nonhuman primates, which safety measure is most appropriate to protect personnel?

a)

Wear full PPE during all contact

b)

Avoid eye protection to improve visibility

c)

Skip masks unless animals are coughing

d)

Rely on minimal glove protection

89.

Which statement about restraint for nonhuman primates is accurate?

a)

Chemical restraint is often necessary

b)

Net capture is universally preferred

c)

Manual restraint is always sufficient

d)

Restraint is rarely required

90.

Which feature of avian anatomy supports efficient one‑way airflow?

a)

Dual choanae behind tongue

b)

Four‑chambered crop system

c)

Air sacs integrated with lungs

d)

Large caudal vena cava

91.

For venipuncture in birds, which vessel is most commonly selected?

a)

Right jugular vein

b)

Median cubital vein

c)

Caudal tail vein

d)

Left femoral vein

92.

Why should caudal injections be avoided in many reptiles?

a)

High infection rates uniquely in tail skin

b)

Tail musculature absorbs medications poorly

c)

Renal portal system directs drugs to kidneys

d)

Risk of damaging air sacs in tail

93.

A patient is a dehydrated amphibian in a lab. Which immediate care choice avoids harm while restoring balance?

a)

Warm with dry heating pad

b)

Rub disinfectant foam on limbs

c)

Mist non-chlorinated water gently

d)

Apply petroleum jelly to skin

94.

A ferret presents with episodic weakness and tremors after fasting. Which likely diagnosis fits best?

a)

Adrenal cortical carcinoma

b)

Nutritional myopathy deficiency

c)

Insulinoma causing hypoglycemia

d)

Generalized distemper infection

95.

During a deep-clean, staff rush the process. What error most undermines disinfection efficacy?

a)

Using labeled solutions

b)

Allowing full contact time

c)

Wiping before dwell time ends

d)

Rinsing after proper dilution

96.

A room handles sharps and tissue samples. Which waste stream should be prioritized?

a)

Green compost program

b)

Mixed recyclables bin

c)

Regular landfill trash

d)

Biohazard container stream