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Philippine Qualification Framework: Introduction and Structure

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a qualification in the Philippine context?

a)

A formal set of competencies for a job role

b)

A temporary permit allowing short-term employment

c)

A personal portfolio of achievements and hobbies

d)

An exam score used for university admissions

2.

What is the primary purpose of the Philippine Qualifications Framework (PQF)?

a)

To replace all professional licensure exams

b)

To reduce the number of education providers

c)

To centralize all school admissions decisions

d)

To describe and align national qualification levels

3.

Which feature indicates the PQF is competency-based?

a)

It requires identical curricula for all schools

b)

It emphasizes seat time and class attendance

c)

It relies solely on written examinations

d)

It focuses on demonstrated skills and outcomes

4.

Which law or order formally established the PQF?

a)

Executive Order No. 83, series of 2012

b)

Republic Act No. 7722, CHED Law

c)

Republic Act No. 10931, Free Tuition

d)

Executive Order No. 201, series of 2016

5.

Which benefit of PQF most directly supports worker mobility internationally?

a)

Recognition and comparability of qualifications

b)

Unified global salary scales for nurses

c)

Mandatory foreign language certification

d)

Automatic visa issuance for professionals

6.

Which statement best captures how PQF supports individuals?

a)

Guarantees immediate employment after graduation

b)

Restricts movement between training sectors

c)

Eliminates the need for any formal training

d)

Provides pathways for lifelong learning and progression

7.

How does PQF assist employers?

a)

Replaces internal performance appraisals entirely

b)

Allows employers to set school curricula directly

c)

Assures qualifications match job requirements and demand

d)

Removes standards for on-the-job training

8.

Which agency combination is tasked with detailing PQF descriptors across levels?

a)

DepEd, TESDA, and CHED working jointly

b)

DOH, PRC, and PhilHealth collaboration

c)

DILG, DFA, and DOJ coordination

d)

NEDA, DTI, and DOLE partnership

9.

Which education stages are shown in the Philippine Education System diagram?

a)

Junior, Senior, Doctoral continuum

b)

Primary, Middle, Graduate sequence

c)

Elementary, Secondary, Tertiary progression

d)

Foundation, Intermediate, Advanced track

10.

At which PQF levels are NC I to NC IV typically located?

a)

Levels 3 to 7 in postgraduate

b)

Levels 2 to 6 in basic education

c)

Levels 5 to 8 in higher education

d)

Levels 1 to 4 in TESDA tracks

11.

Which outcome is a system-level benefit for authorities under PQF?

a)

Direct control of international licensing bodies

b)

Removal of accreditation requirements nationwide

c)

Harmonized standards across education and training

d)

Automatic funding for all private institutions

12.

Which statement about assessment under PQF is accurate?

a)

Assessment occurs solely at the tertiary level

b)

Assessment is optional and replaced by attendance records

c)

Only paper-based tests are permitted under PQF

d)

Qualifications are recognized based on assessment outcomes

13.

Which PQF level emphasizes manual or concrete skills with operational focus and minimal judgment due to close supervision?

a)

Level 2 with substantial guidance and support

b)

Level 3 with team coordination responsibilities

c)

Level 1 with close support and supervision

d)

Level 4 with leadership during organization

14.

At PQF Level 2, application typically occurs in what kind of contexts?

a)

Limited range of highly familiar contexts

b)

Professional work or specialized research

c)

Range of familiar and predictable contexts

d)

Mostly unfamiliar and unpredictable contexts

15.

Which qualification type corresponds to PQF Level 3?

a)

National Certificate I

b)

Diploma qualification type

c)

National Certificate II

d)

National Certificate III

16.

Which statement best describes the degree of independence at PQF Level 3?

a)

Very close support with minimum judgment

b)

Substantial support and limited discretion

c)

Individual autonomy and some responsibility for others

d)

Broad guidance with strategic initiative

17.

Which PQF level first introduces mainly theoretical or abstract knowledge with significant depth contributing to technical solutions of non‑routine issues?

a)

Level 3 balancing theory and practice

b)

Level 2 with practical operational focus

c)

Level 4 with significant theoretical depth

d)

Level 6 with broad coherent knowledge

18.

At PQF Level 4, work often involves what when organizing activities of self and others?

a)

Independent research tasks

b)

Some leadership and guidance

c)

Minimal supervision only

d)

Routine procedures without variation

19.

Which qualification type is linked to PQF Level 4?

a)

National Certificate IV

b)

Bachelor’s degree level

c)

National Certificate I

d)

Diploma qualification

20.

PQF Level 5 requires application in activities that are supervisory, complex, and non‑routine. What is additionally required?

a)

Following set rules and procedures

b)

Extensive interpretation and adaptation or innovation

c)

Minimal judgment under close supervision

d)

Simple manual operational skills

21.

Which descriptor fits PQF Level 5 knowledge, skills, and values?

a)

Broad coherent knowledge for professional practice

b)

Mainly theoretical with significant depth and wide‑ranging specialized skills

c)

Balance of theory and technical practice

d)

Manual practical skills with options

22.

At PQF Level 5, degree of independence involves which of the following?

a)

Limited discretion within substantial support

b)

Close support with minimum discretion

c)

Independent teams guided by set procedures

d)

Broad guidance with planning judgment and strategic initiatives

23.

Which qualification type corresponds to PQF Level 5?

a)

National Certificate IV

b)

National Certificate II

c)

National Certificate III

d)

Diploma

24.

Graduates at PQF Level 6 demonstrate what kind of knowledge in their field?

a)

Manual and operational skills

b)

Broad and coherent knowledge and skills

c)

Balance of technical and practical

d)

Mainly theoretical with significant depth

25.

Application at PQF Level 6 commonly occurs in which settings?

a)

Limited range of predictable contexts

b)

Supervisory complex non‑routine activities

c)

Highly familiar routine procedures

d)

Professional work or specialized research

26.

What is the typical degree of independence at PQF Level 6?

a)

Independent or in teams with minimal supervision

b)

Substantial guidance with limited discretion

c)

Very close support and guidance

d)

Leadership with some guidance in organizing

27.

Which progression correctly orders qualification types from PQF Levels 1 to 5?

a)

NC I, NC II, Diploma, NC III, NC IV

b)

NC I, NC III, NC II, NC IV, Diploma

c)

NC I, NC II, NC III, NC IV, Diploma

d)

NC II, NC I, NC III, Diploma, NC IV

28.

Which qualification type corresponds to PQF Level 7 in the nursing leadership context?

a)

Post-Doctoral Programs

b)

Doctoral Degree

c)

Post-Baccalaureate Degree

d)

Baccalaureate Degree

29.

At PQF Level 7, graduates demonstrate advanced knowledge and skills primarily for which purpose?

a)

Professional practice or self-directed research

b)

General education foundation building

c)

Entry-level employment orientation

d)

Community volunteer engagement only

30.

Which statement best describes application at PQF Level 7?

a)

Leadership and management in specialized professional work

b)

Routine tasks under close supervision in basic settings

c)

Introductory exposure without leadership responsibilities

d)

Administrative clerical functions in nonclinical units

31.

What is the degree of independence expected at PQF Level 7?

a)

Independent or team-based with minimal supervision

b)

Fully dependent with continuous supervision

c)

Solo practice prohibited without oversight

d)

Independence only after doctoral completion

32.

Which qualification type is aligned with PQF Level 8?

a)

Baccalaureate Degree

b)

Secondary Education Certificate

c)

Associate Degree

d)

Post-Baccalaureate Degree

33.

Graduates at PQF Level 8 are characterized by what kind of knowledge and skills?

a)

Highly advanced systematic knowledge in complex fields

b)

Basic foundational knowledge for general learning

c)

Intermediate skills suitable for entry-level roles

d)

Non-specialized knowledge for community outreach

34.

How is application at PQF Level 8 typically manifested?

a)

Observation-only roles without responsibility

b)

Specialized or complex multidisciplinary professional work

c)

Administrative assistance with limited scope

d)

Simple routine tasks in single-discipline contexts

35.

What level of autonomy and accountability is expected at PQF Level 8?

a)

Significant expertise-based autonomy in complex settings

b)

Autonomy only within nonclinical functions

c)

Minimal autonomy with strict daily oversight

d)

No autonomy until licensure renewal

36.

Which statement best defines qualifications within the Philippine Qualifications Framework context?

a)

Certificates showing completed course units

b)

Certifications expressing recognized knowledge, skills, competencies

c)

Licenses issued solely by professional councils

d)

Diplomas granted only by higher education bodies

37.

What is the primary purpose of a qualifications framework?

a)

To rank schools by performance metrics

b)

To develop, classify, and recognize competencies across levels

c)

To replace technical education with university pathways

d)

To standardize tuition across education sectors

38.

Which agencies comprise the tri-focal Philippine education system?

a)

TESDA, PRC, CHED

b)

CHED, PRC, DepEd

c)

DepEd, TESDA, CHED

d)

DepEd, PRC, TESDA

39.

Which sequence aligns with key milestones in PQF development?

a)

1998 TVET start; 2003 formal PTQF; 2004 EO 358; 2012 EO 83; 2014 RA 10647; 2018 RA 10968; 2019 IRR

b)

1998 EO 83; 2003 RA 10968; 2004 PTQF; 2012 EO 358; 2014 IRR; 2019 ladderization

c)

2003 TVET start; 1998 PTQF; 2012 RA 10647; 2018 EO 358; 2019 RA 10968

d)

2004 ladderization; 2012 RA 10968; 2018 EO 83; 2019 PTQF

40.

RA 10968 accomplished which of the following for the PQF?

a)

Abolished the National Coordinating Council

b)

Transferred PQF oversight to private accrediting bodies

c)

Institutionalized the PQF and established the PQF-NCC

d)

Limited PQF to higher education credentials only

41.

Which are core PQF domains used to describe qualifications?

a)

Theory, Practice, Ethics; Placement; Regulation

b)

Knowledge, Skills, Values; Application; Degree of Independence

c)

Learning Outcomes, Modules, Credits; Internship; Licensure

d)

Curriculum, Assessment, Accreditation; Delivery; Funding

42.

How does the PQF function as a national system for learners and workers?

a)

By enforcing uniform curricula in all institutions

b)

By assuring development, recognition, and award of qualifications based on standards

c)

By delegating qualification outcomes to sectoral associations only

d)

By prioritizing academic degrees over vocational awards

43.

Which outcome best reflects the PQF Act’s aim of standardization and transparency in qualifications?

a)

Unified criteria for awarding credentials

b)

Institution-specific grading flexibility

c)

Informal peer endorsements of skills

d)

Ad hoc certification by private tutors

44.

What recommendation for the PQF IRR strengthens alignment with national contexts?

a)

Limiting consultation to tertiary schools

b)

Prioritizing foreign industry representation

c)

Creating global-only qualification standards

d)

Enhancing relevance to local and regional needs

45.

Which PQF IRR element improves balanced stakeholder input?

a)

Government-only drafting authority

b)

Exclusive academic committee membership

c)

Economic and industry sector representation

d)

Public polling for certification

46.

In human resource development, which benefit addresses workforce mobility?

a)

Time-bound licenses without transfer

b)

Regional bans on skill recognition

c)

Static roles within single institutions

d)

Mobility of workers, students, and services

47.

Which PQF-driven practice can help correct mismatches between education and industry needs?

a)

Disallowing prior experiential learning

b)

Fixed curricula without industry input

c)

Mandatory uniform college diplomas

d)

Recognition of learning outside formal systems

48.

An industry player demystifies the college diploma by hiring based on competence. Which engagement best supports this approach?

a)

Outsourcing all evaluation overseas

b)

Favoring only university credentials

c)

Ignoring certification assessments

d)

Partnering with TESDA for training regulations

49.

Which collaboration clarifies competencies for industry-oriented disciplines and SHS tracks?

a)

Student-run certification councils

b)

Consultations limited to employers

c)

Exclusive deals with private tutors

d)

Engagement with CHED and DepEd

50.

Looking ahead, which future potential aligns with PQF’s vision for validation of skills?

a)

Industry-accredited certification units

b)

Unverified on-the-job experience logs

c)

Self-declared competency portfolios

d)

Open badges without assessment

51.

Which best describes the typical Filipino organizational structure in many institutions?

a)

Matrix, project-based, flexible

b)

Networked, team-driven, autonomous

c)

Hierarchical, line, centralized

d)

Flat, decentralized, egalitarian

52.

In Filipino management, which value emphasizes belonging and group harmony across peers?

a)

Hiya, shame and delicadeza

b)

Kapwa, being part of others

c)

Utang na loob, debt of gratitude

d)

Dangal, personal honor and dignity

53.

What social framework highlights elderly concern where leaders act like responsible elders?

a)

Familism in group decisions

b)

Personalism in interactions

c)

Paternalism in leadership

d)

Emotionalism in expression

54.

Foreign management techniques are often described as which in Filipino contexts?

a)

Academically attractive, seldom suited

b)

Highly practical, widely suited

c)

Emotionally resonant, always suited

d)

Legally mandated, universally suited

55.

Which practice typically starts Filipino meetings and aids relationship-building?

a)

Extended small talk, rapport first

b)

Immediate agenda, strict timing

c)

Formal presentations, data-heavy

d)

Silent review, written updates

56.

Which item reflects constrained conformity noted in Filipino cultural orientation?

a)

Preference for solitary decision-making

b)

Rigid adherence to group norms

c)

Formal protests against leadership

d)

Encouraging open dissent publicly

57.

Which statement captures the concept of reciprocity in Filipino cultural themes?

a)

Social obligations are optional favors

b)

Moral obligation must be repaid

c)

Respect is given without conditions

d)

Authority is obeyed without question

58.

What does "kayod" signify in the Filipino manager style taxonomy?

a)

Hybrid reconciler, highly adaptable

b)

Sweating it out, realist hard work

c)

Playing by ear, opposite of libro

d)

Capitalizing on loopholes, extrovert

59.

A manager who literally goes by the book and seeks quality results is labeled as what style?

a)

Manager by UGNAYAN

b)

Manager by LUSOT

c)

Manager by LIBRO

d)

Manager by OIDO

60.

Which leadership style is passive, friendly, and fails to provide needed guidance?

a)

Takutan, oppressive and hostile

b)

Pakiramdam, passive and friendly

c)

Pa tsamba-tsamba, trial and error

d)

Kulit, micromanaging subordinates

61.

Which Filipino cultural value involves shame, propriety, and delicadeza?

a)

Damdamin, emotional standard

b)

Kapwa, social harmony focus

c)

Dangal, personal honor duty

d)

Hiya, social propriety cues

62.

What is a common communication tendency among Filipinos in professional contexts?

a)

Silence indicates clear dissent

b)

Say yes while meaning no

c)

Use technical jargon exclusively

d)

Direct refusals with firm tone

63.

Which management approach emphasizes consultation, persuasion, and consensus?

a)

Transactional reward mechanisms

b)

Participatory management process

c)

Bureaucratic rules enforcement

d)

Authoritarian unilateral directives

64.

Which manager style seeks easy settlements through shaky deals and avoids hard work?

a)

Manager by LUSOT

b)

Manager by LIBRO

c)

Manager by OIDO

d)

Manager by UGNAYAN

65.

What does "barkada/peer group" signify within Filipino organizational themes?

a)

Economic status and resource control

b)

Prestige and acceptance in community

c)

Formal authority and hierarchy

d)

Primary unit of kinship obligations

66.

Which value underscores responsibility, respect, and a sense of honor?

a)

Hiya and amor propio

b)

Utang na loob

c)

Dangal and galang

d)

Kapwa and pakikisama

67.

Which manager style is hybrid, reconciles different approaches, and is highly adaptable?

a)

Manager by OIDO

b)

Manager by UGNAYAN

c)

Manager by KAYOD

d)

Manager by LIBRO

68.

In Filipino workplace culture, which trait reflects emotionalism?

a)

Avoiding facial expressions

b)

Suppressing all emotions

c)

Using logic exclusively

d)

Displaying emotion freely

69.

Executives must familiarize themselves with which to manage Filipino teams effectively?

a)

Basic cultural orientations

b)

Only technical procedures

c)

Foreign corporate statutes

d)

Strict Western dress codes

70.

Which description fits the "Manager by OIDO" style?

a)

Hybrid reconciler, contingency

b)

Loophole seeker, informal extrovert

c)

Formal training, by the book

d)

Practical experience, plays by ear

71.

Which behavior illustrates personalism in Filipino social framework?

a)

Avoiding interpersonal contact

b)

Prioritizing face-to-face ties

c)

Relying solely on emails

d)

Delegating to anonymous teams

72.

Which term describes kinship obligation to assist in times of need?

a)

Personal loyalties to barkada

b)

Social reciprocity expectation

c)

Kin group counter-on support

d)

Collectivity ideal belonging

73.

Which statement best defines a nurse entrepreneur in the health sector?

a)

A public health nurse coordinating government vaccination drives

b)

A proprietor offering nursing services directly to clients as self-employed

c)

A salaried nurse leading internal projects within a hospital

d)

A clinician providing bedside care under physician supervision

74.

Which term describes a salaried nurse who develops and delivers innovative programs within an organization?

a)

Nurse entrepreneur

b)

Nurse consultant

c)

Nurse intrapreneur

d)

Clinical specialist

75.

Which role typically includes correspondence and record keeping in a nursing enterprise?

a)

Employer

b)

Receptionist

c)

Secretary

d)

Accountant

76.

In a nursing business, which function most closely aligns with financial accountability including taxes and benefits?

a)

Teacher

b)

Market analyst

c)

Clinician

d)

Accountant

77.

Which activity is most central to the market analyst role in a nurse-led business?

a)

Direct nursing care for chronically ill clients

b)

Market research and business presentation development

c)

Preliminary contacts and triage for potential clients

d)

Bookkeeping and tariff or fee development

78.

Which service falls under the clinician role in entrepreneurial nursing practice?

a)

Health assessments and direct nursing care

b)

Corporate branding and stationery preparation

c)

Family planning education only

d)

Human resources planning consultancy

79.

Which teaching focus is commonly offered by nurse entrepreneurs as part of health promotion?

a)

High-level biomedical equipment calibration

b)

International trade compliance policies

c)

Stress reduction and nutrition programs

d)

Advanced surgical techniques for physicians

80.

Which consultant service is within the scope of a nurse entrepreneur?

a)

Occupational health consultancy and infection control

b)

Civil engineering safety inspections and audits

c)

Pharmaceutical drug formulation and synthesis

d)

Advanced radiology interpretation and reporting

81.

Which therapy service could a nurse entrepreneur legally offer within nursing practice?

a)

Respiratory therapy and psychotherapy

b)

Advanced orthopedic surgery procedures

c)

Prescription of all controlled substances

d)

Diagnostic radiography interpretation

82.

Which business opportunity is realistic for Filipino nurse entrepreneurs?

a)

Operating air ambulance pilot services

b)

High-frequency currency trading and hedging

c)

Developing proprietary cardiac stents

d)

Independent or private practice and consultancies

83.

Which question is essential when establishing a nurse-led business?

a)

Who are the customers and competitors involved

b)

What are the latest celebrity health trends

c)

Which hospital has the most floors available

d)

How many years nurses have been licensed locally

84.

Which item fits under operations in a business plan for a clinic?

a)

Description of facilities, equipment, and personnel

b)

Philosophical arguments about health ethics

c)

Historical overview of nursing in the 1800s

d)

Personal reflections on clinical placements

85.

Which Filipino initiative promoted nurse entrepreneurship starting in 2010?

a)

Project EntrepreNurse with DOLE and partners

b)

Universal Health Care Act implementation

c)

Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction Plan

d)

K-12 Basic Education Curriculum rollout

86.

Which statement best distinguishes debt from equity when financing a nursing startup?

a)

Equity involves short-term loans with fixed schedules

b)

Debt requires repayment with interest by a set date

c)

Equity must be repaid in full like principal loans

d)

Debt sells ownership shares to outside investors

87.

In sponsorship for intrapreneurs, what is the sponsor’s primary role?

a)

Negotiate loan terms and interest rates

b)

Own shares and control strategic decisions

c)

Handle external marketing and client acquisition

d)

Provide trusted resources and moderate internal concerns

88.

Which action is essential before marketing nursing services to potential clients?

a)

Define the service being offered clearly

b)

Secure equity from investor partners

c)

Hire clinical nurse specialists immediately

d)

Draft advertisements as the first step

89.

Which task is included in effective marketing for nursing services?

a)

Focus solely on bedside clinical procedures

b)

Avoid brochures to limit printing expenses

c)

Develop a strategic business plan with budget

d)

Delay workplace setup until after launch

90.

A nurse entrepreneur chooses equity financing. What does this involve?

a)

Selling part of the business for investment

b)

Borrowing principal with identified interest

c)

Taking a short-term loan with fixed dates

d)

Seeking sponsorship to moderate staff fears

91.

Which communication channels align with effective marketing calls?

a)

Face-to-face meetings exclusively

b)

Internal memos for staff training

c)

Radio only, avoiding digital platforms

d)

Printed paper, email, SMS, social media

92.

An advanced practice nurse engaging in entrepreneurship most likely holds which roles?

a)

NPs, nurse midwives, CNSs, APNs

b)

Hospital administrators and accountants

c)

Pharmacists, dietitians, social workers

d)

Medical technologists and radiographers

93.

Which purpose best describes the Comprehensive Nursing Specialty Program under BON Article IV Sec. 31?

a)

Upgrade skills and competence of specialty nurses

b)

Mandate hospital marketing campaigns nationwide

c)

Define equity regulations for private investors

d)

Provide loan subsidies for nurse entrepreneurs

94.

Which clinical areas are indicated for specialty program development?

a)

Pediatrics, dermatology, psychiatry

b)

Orthopedics, obstetrics, neurology

c)

Community health, geriatrics, trauma

d)

Critical care, oncology, renal

95.

A nurse-led clinic plans marketing. Which sequence shows strategic planning at DoK 3?

a)

Buy equipment, then decide target audience

b)

Estimate clients, set budget, furnish workplace

c)

Print brochures first, define services later

d)

Launch ads, then create a business card