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GC solar systems Motions*

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the Celestial Sphere as presented in the lesson?

a)

A solid dome covering Earth where stars are attached

b)

A model used to represent the real sky with the Earth at the center

c)

A physical boundary between Earth and outer space

2.

What is the Zenith in the Celestial Sphere model?

a)

The point on the horizon due west

b)

The noon meridian line

c)

The point directly above an observer on Earth

3.

Which definition correctly matches Altitude?

a)

Angular distance above the horizon measured in degrees

b)

The boundary between the sky and Earth

c)

The observer’s meridian at noon

4.

Azimuth is measured from which reference direction and in which manner?

a)

From North, clockwise

b)

From East, counterclockwise

c)

From West, clockwise

5.

According to the example diagram, what are the altitude and azimuth of Star A?

a)

Altitude = 45°, Azimuth = 120°

b)

Altitude = 15°, Azimuth = 310°

c)

Altitude = 60°, Azimuth = 90°

6.

According to the example diagram, what are the altitude and azimuth of Star B?

a)

Altitude = 45°, Azimuth = 120°

b)

Altitude = 15°, Azimuth = 310°

c)

Altitude = 75°, Azimuth = 45°

d)

Altitude = 15°, Azimuth = 120°

7.

Which statement about Earth’s rotation is correct based on the material?

a)

Earth rotates counterclockwise once every 24 hours

b)

Earth revolves counterclockwise once every 24 hours

c)

Earth’s rotation rate varies with the seasons

8.

What is Earth’s rate of rotation expressed in degrees per hour?

a)

1°/hour

b)

12°/hour

c)

15°/hour

9.

What is the best definition of revolution as used in Earth science?

a)

The spinning of Earth on its axis

b)

The orbiting of one celestial object around another

c)

The tilting of Earth's axis relative to its orbit

10.

According to the material, how long does it take Earth to complete one full revolution around the Sun?

a)

24 hours

b)

30 days

c)

365 days (about 1 year)

11.

What is the stated rate of Earth's revolution around the Sun?

a)

15° per hour

b)

1° per day

c)

23.5° per day

d)

360° per day

12.

As Earth revolves around the Sun during the year, why do the constellations visible at night change?

a)

Constellations move rapidly through space

b)

Earth's nighttime side faces different directions in space during its orbit

c)

The Moon blocks certain constellations each month

13.

Which observation about the Big Dipper is emphasized in the material?

a)

It is visible all night at the equator

b)

Its position in the sky changes in a yearly cycle

c)

It disappears during summer

14.

Which pair correctly matches a cause and an effect of Earth's revolution described in the material?

a)

Cause: Earth's revolution; Effect: changing constellations at night over the year

b)

Cause: Moon's revolution; Effect: leap years

15.

Which factor primarily causes Earth’s seasons as it revolves around the Sun?

a)

Earth’s axial tilt of about 23.5°

b)

Variations in Sun’s energy output

16.

What does the phrase parallelism of the axis mean in the context of seasons?

a)

Earth’s axis flips direction every six months

b)

Earth’s axis always points in the same direction in space during its revolution

c)

Earth’s axis points toward the Sun only in June

17.

During June in the Northern Hemisphere, which condition is most accurate?

a)

The Sun’s direct rays are over the Tropic of Capricorn, giving shorter days

b)

The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, producing longer days

c)

The Earth is closest to the Sun, causing warmer temperatures

18.

Which date pair best represents an equinox when day and night are approximately equal?

a)

June 21 and December 21

b)

March 21 and September 23

c)

January 3 and July 4

19.

According to the concept of circumpolar constellations, how does the Big Dipper appear from New York State?

a)

It is always above the horizon and circles around Polaris

b)

It appears only at midnight

20.

Because Earth’s axis is tilted by about 23.5°, what happens to the daylight length at different locations throughout the year?

a)

Daylight length stays constant everywhere

b)

Daylight length varies with the seasons

c)

Daylight length only changes at the equator

d)

Only the Northern Hemisphere experiences daylight changes

21.

In the Northern Hemisphere, which season occurs when the Sun’s direct rays are in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

Summer

b)

Autumn

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

22.

Which statement correctly connects Earth’s revolution and rotation to seasonal change?

a)

Seasons are caused by Earth’s rotation once every 24 hours

b)

Seasons result from Earth’s revolution around the Sun combined with its tilted, parallel axis

c)

Seasons occur because Earth’s orbit is a perfect circle

d)

Seasons are produced by changes in the Sun’s brightness across the year

23.

When observing star trails while facing north in the Northern Hemisphere, what pattern is typically seen?

a)

Straight lines rising in the east and setting in the west

b)

Concentric circles centered near Polaris

c)

Random zigzag paths across the sky

d)

Vertical lines that move only upward

24.

Which statement best explains why stars appear to move across the night sky over a single night?

a)

Earth revolves around the Sun once per year

b)

Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours

c)

Stars orbit Earth once per day

d)

The Moon’s gravity pulls stars across the sky

25.

Looking east, how do star trails typically appear in a long-exposure photograph?

a)

Arcs curving upward from the horizon

b)

Concentric circles around a point on the eastern horizon

c)

Straight vertical lines

d)

Arcs curving downward toward the horizon

26.

What are circumpolar stars?

a)

Stars that cross the meridian at midnight

b)

Stars that never rise or set and are always above the horizon

c)

Stars visible only during certain seasons

d)

Stars that are visible only from the equator

27.

Which location has no circumpolar stars according to the material?

a)

North Pole (90° N)

b)

New York (~43° N)

c)

Equator (0°)

d)

South Pole (90° S)

28.

How does the number of circumpolar stars change with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

It stays the same at all latitudes

b)

It increases as you move from the equator toward the North Pole

c)

It decreases as you move toward higher latitudes

d)

It is greatest near 30° N and least at the poles

29.

Which statement about Polaris in the Northern Hemisphere is supported by the diagrams?

a)

Polaris rises and sets like other stars

b)

Polaris is located near the center of circular star trails

c)

Polaris is directly overhead at the equator

d)

Polaris is below the horizon at 43° N

30.

Which observation describes retrograde motion as used to support Earth's rotation?

a)

A planet’s daily rising and setting due to Earth’s spin

b)

A planet’s backward (westward) motion against the background stars

c)

The Moon’s phases over a month

d)

Seasonal changes in daylight length

31.

According to the description of retrograde motion, why did early models need to account for it?

a)

It showed planets moved in perfectly circular orbits around Earth

b)

It made planets appear to wander against background stars

c)

It proved the Sun orbited Earth once per day

d)

It explained eclipses of the Sun and Moon

32.

What key idea does the Foucault Pendulum demonstrate about Earth's rotation?

a)

The pendulum’s plane of swing appears to change because Earth rotates beneath it

b)

The pendulum’s period increases as seasons change

33.

In the Foucault Pendulum evidence, which statement is emphasized?

a)

The pendulum’s plane of swing does not change direction

b)

The pendulum is pushed by winds to rotate

34.

What is the Coriolis Effect as described in the material?

a)

A change in star color due to motion

b)

The apparent curved paths of projectiles, winds, and ocean currents because Earth rotates beneath them

c)

The bending of light in Earth’s atmosphere

d)

A force that increases gravity at the poles

35.

In which direction do paths appear to curve in the Northern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis Effect?

a)

To the left

b)

To the right

c)

Toward the equator

d)

Toward the poles

36.

In which direction do paths appear to curve in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis Effect?

a)

To the right

b)

To the left

c)

Toward the equator

d)

Toward the poles

37.

Which combination best lists the three lines of evidence for Earth’s rotation presented together in this section?

a)

Moon phases, eclipses, and tides

b)

Retrograde motion, Foucault Pendulum, and Coriolis Effect

c)

Seasons, star colors, and plate tectonics

d)

Auroras, earthquakes, and volcanoes

38.

Which statement best explains why one half of Earth experiences daylight while the other half experiences night at any moment?

a)

Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit

b)

Earth’s rotation causes one half to be lit by the Sun while the other half is in shadow

c)

Cloud cover blocks sunlight from reaching half of Earth

39.

At approximately what local time is the Sun highest in the sky (solar noon) according to the material?

a)

6 a.m.

b)

12 noon

c)

6 p.m.

d)

12 midnight

40.

According to the diagram of a day-and-night clock, which time corresponds to the Sun being near the eastern horizon just after sunrise?

a)

6 a.m.

b)

10 a.m.

c)

2 p.m.

d)

8 p.m.

41.

What is the term for the apparent path the Sun follows across the sky?

a)

Equator

b)

Meridian

c)

Ecliptic

d)

Celestial pole

42.

How fast does the Sun appear to move across the sky due to Earth’s rotation?

a)

1 degree per minute

b)

15 degrees per hour

c)

360 degrees per day only during summer

43.

Which statement about the Sun’s position at solar noon is supported by the material for the local region shown?

a)

The Sun is directly overhead at solar noon

b)

The Sun is always due south at solar noon

c)

The Sun is always due north at solar noon

d)

The Sun rises due north and sets due south

44.

What causes the Sun’s rising and setting positions to change during different seasons?

a)

Changes in Earth’s distance from the Sun

b)

Earth’s tilt on its axis

c)

Variations in the Sun’s energy output

d)

Daily weather patterns

45.

Which observation about the apparent motion of stars is illustrated by circular star trails around a point in the sky?

a)

Stars appear to circle around the celestial pole due to Earth’s rotation

b)

Star trails show the actual orbits of stars around Earth

c)

Stars remain fixed and do not show any trails in long-exposure images

46.

Which statement best describes the geocentric model presented in the lesson?

a)

Earth is at the center and the Sun, Moon, and stars revolve around Earth.

b)

The Sun is at the center and the stars orbit the Sun.

c)

Earth orbits the Moon while the Sun is fixed far away.

47.

In the geocentric system, epicycles were introduced primarily to account for which observed phenomenon?

a)

Phases of the Moon

b)

Retrograde motion of planets

c)

Solar eclipses

48.

According to the material, which observation the geocentric model cannot explain?

a)

Day and night on Earth

b)

Seasons

c)

Foucault pendulum demonstrating Earth’s rotation

d)

Tides

49.

Which feature is central to the heliocentric model described in the lesson?

a)

Earth is stationary at the universe’s center.

b)

The Sun is at the center of the solar system and planets revolve around it.

c)

Stars orbit Earth on deferents.

d)

Planets move on epicycles around Earth.

50.

What does the term deferent refer to in the geocentric framework shown?

a)

The large circle around which an epicycle’s center moves

b)

The path of Earth around the Sun

c)

A fixed point off-center used by Copernicus

51.

Which statement best describes how Earth's shape affects insolation?

a)

Because Earth is spherical, sunlight strikes different latitudes at different angles, changing intensity.

b)

Because Earth is flat, all places receive the same angle of sunlight.

c)

Earth’s oval shape makes the Sun closer in winter than in summer.

52.

At low latitudes, what is the typical angle and intensity of insolation?

a)

High angle, high intensity

b)

Low angle, high intensity

c)

High angle, low intensity

53.

What happens to the angle and intensity of insolation as latitude increases from the equator toward the poles?

a)

Angle increases and intensity increases

b)

Angle increases and intensity decreases

c)

Angle decreases and intensity decreases

d)

Angle decreases and intensity increases

54.

Which term describes sunlight that hits Earth at a low angle, spreading energy over a larger area?

a)

Direct rays

b)

Diffuse rays

c)

Oblique rays

d)

Refracted rays

55.

On which date does the direct ray from the Sun strike the equator, marking an equinox?

a)

June 21

b)

December 21

c)

March 21 or September 21

d)

July 4

56.

Which latitude line is located at approximately 23.5° N?

a)

Arctic Circle

b)

Tropic of Cancer

c)

Equator

d)

Tropic of Capricorn

57.

High latitudes are most accurately characterized by which combination?

a)

High angle, high intensity

b)

Low angle, low intensity

c)

High angle, low intensity

d)

Low angle, high intensity

58.

Which time of day typically has the greatest intensity of insolation at a location?

a)

Sunrise

b)

Mid-morning

c)

Noon

d)

Late afternoon

59.

According to the relationship between Sun height and shadows, when are shadows the shortest?

a)

When the Sun is lowest in the sky

b)

When the Sun is highest in the sky

c)

At midnight

d)

During sunset

60.

What does duration of insolation describe?

a)

How strong the Sun’s rays are at noon

b)

How long the Sun is above the horizon

c)

How fast Earth rotates

d)

How much heat is stored in oceans

61.

On days when the Sun is high in the sky and the days are long, what kind of days result?

a)

Cold days

b)

Warm days

c)

Windy days

d)

Cloudy days

62.

On days when the Sun is low in the sky and the days are short, what kind of days result?

a)

Warm days

b)

Cold days

c)

Stormy days

63.

Which statement best describes temperature lag as explained in the section?

a)

Maximum temperature occurs exactly at the time of maximum insolation

b)

Maximum and minimum temperatures occur after the times of maximum and minimum insolation because the surface keeps heating or cooling until energy in equals energy out

64.

During the year in the Northern Hemisphere, when does maximum insolation occur and when are the warmest days typically experienced?

a)

Max insolation in June; warmest days in July

b)

Max insolation in March; warmest days in April

c)

Max insolation in September; warmest days in October

65.

Which statement about energy gain and loss best explains why late afternoon is usually cooler than mid-afternoon?

a)

After noon, the amount of energy received is less than the amount of energy lost, so temperature decreases

b)

After noon, the Sun is closer to Earth, so temperature decreases

c)

After noon, Earth rotates faster, causing cooling

66.

At high latitudes, how does the Sun’s apparent height in the sky generally compare between summer and winter?

a)

Higher in summer and lower in winter

b)

Higher in winter and lower in summer

c)

Same height year-round

67.

Which statement best describes the Sun’s apparent path at the equator across seasons?

a)

Always low in the sky throughout the year

b)

Always high in the sky throughout the year

c)

High in summer only, low in winter

68.

During the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Sun’s direct rays are located at which latitude?

a)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S)

b)

Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N)

69.

During the winter solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, where do the Sun’s direct rays strike?

a)

Equator (0°)

b)

Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N)

c)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S)

d)

Arctic Circle (66.5° N)

70.

On the equinoxes, which sunrise and sunset directions are correctly paired for a Northern Hemisphere observer?

a)

Rises NE, sets SW

b)

Rises E, sets W

c)

Rises SE, sets NW

d)

Rises due N, sets due S

71.

Which choice correctly compares noon Sun altitude and shadow length between summer and winter for a mid‑latitude Northern Hemisphere location?

a)

Higher noon Sun and shorter shadows in summer

b)

Same noon Sun altitude and equal shadows year‑round

72.

As the year progresses from June 21 to December 21, how do the Sun’s direct rays migrate?

a)

From the Tropic of Capricorn to the Tropic of Cancer

b)

From the Equator to the Arctic Circle

c)

From the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn

d)

Remain fixed at the Equator

73.

At a mid‑latitude Northern Hemisphere site, which season has the shortest period of daylight and the Sun rising the farthest southeast?

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

74.

According to Kepler's First Law, what is the general shape of a planet’s orbit around the Sun?

a)

Circle

b)

Ellipse

c)

Parabola

d)

Straight line

75.

Which definition best matches orbital eccentricity as presented: E = d/L equals what ratio?

a)

Distance between a focus and the center divided by orbital period

b)

Distance between foci divided by length of major axis

c)

Length of minor axis divided by length of major axis

76.

As the distance between the foci of an ellipse increases while the major axis length stays the same, how does the ellipse change?

a)

It becomes more circular

b)

It becomes more oval (more elongated)

c)

Its area stays the same and shape does not change

d)

It becomes a straight line

77.

Which labeled eccentricity value corresponds to a perfect circle?

a)

E = 0.0

b)

E = 0.25

c)

E = 0.5

78.

What does E = 1.0 represent in the context of orbital shapes shown?

a)

A circle

b)

A highly elongated ellipse

c)

A parabola

d)

A straight line (degenerate ellipse)

79.

Kepler's Second Law states that a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times. What consequence does this have for a planet’s speed?

a)

Speed is fastest at perihelion and slowest at aphelion

b)

Speed is fastest at aphelion and slowest at perihelion

c)

Speed is random and unrelated to position

80.

Which statement about gravity in the section is supported by the notes?

a)

Only large objects have gravity

b)

All objects have mass and therefore gravity

c)

Gravity depends only on temperature

81.

Why does a planet move fastest when it is closest to the Sun, according to the material?

a)

Because the gravitational force of the Sun is greater at smaller distances

b)

Because the planet gains mass near the Sun

c)

Because the orbit becomes circular near perihelion

82.

According to Kepler's Third Law (Orbital Periods), how does the orbital period of a planet change with its distance from the Sun?

a)

It increases as distance increases

b)

It stays constant regardless of distance

83.

Which group is correctly identified as terrestrial planets?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

b)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

c)

Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Mars

d)

Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Neptune

84.

Which characteristic best distinguishes Jovian planets from terrestrial planets?

a)

They are small and rocky

b)

They are close to the Sun

c)

They are large, low density, gas giants

d)

They have no moons

85.

Based on the summary, which statement about orbital speed is correct?

a)

Planets farther from the Sun have faster orbital speeds

b)

Planets closer to the Sun have slower orbital speeds

c)

Planets closer to the Sun have faster orbital speeds

86.

Which planet is not a Jovian planet?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Mars

d)

Neptune

87.

From the solar system data and classifications, which planet type typically has many moons and rings?

a)

Terrestrial planets

b)

Jovian planets

c)

Dwarf planets

88.

Which description matches terrestrial planets according to the section?

a)

Large, mostly hydrogen and helium, far from the Sun

b)

Small, rocky, dense, close to the Sun

c)

Low density, slow rotation

d)

Many moons and rings

89.

The graph of Kepler's 3rd Law relates which two quantities on its axes?

a)

Orbital speed and planet mass

b)

Cubic of the semimajor axis and square of the orbital period

c)

Planet diameter and distance from the Sun

d)

Number of moons and orbital speed

90.

Which group of planets rotates relatively slowly?

a)

Terrestrial planets

b)

Jovian planets

c)

Both groups rotate at the same rate

91.

Which statement aligns with the section’s summary of orbital periods?

a)

Closer planets have longer orbital periods

b)

Farther planets have longer orbital paths and periods

92.

What is the primary cause of tides on Earth as described in the lesson?

a)

Wind-driven currents in the oceans

b)

The Moon’s gravitational pull as it revolves around Earth

c)

Earth’s rotation causing water to slosh

d)

Volcanic activity on the seafloor

93.

If there were no Moon (or Sun), what would be true about ocean water height on Earth?

a)

It would form a permanent bulge on one side

b)

It would be the same height everywhere at all times

c)

It would rise and fall only once per year

94.

Why does a water bulge also occur on the side of Earth opposite the Moon?

a)

Because the Sun pulls harder there

b)

Due to centrifugal force from the Earth–Moon system

c)

Because mountains block water on the near side

d)

Due to heating by the Sun

95.

During which lunar phases do Spring Tides occur, producing the highest high tides and the lowest low tides?

a)

First Quarter and Third (Last) Quarter

b)

New Moon and Full Moon

c)

Waxing Crescent and Waning Crescent

d)

Only during eclipses

96.

What causes Spring Tides to be stronger than average?

a)

The Sun’s gravitational pull adds to the Moon’s in the same direction

b)

Earth’s rotation stops temporarily

c)

Centrifugal force is reduced to zero

d)

The Moon is farther from Earth

97.

Neap Tides occur when which relationship between the Sun and Moon is true?

a)

They are aligned in a straight line

b)

They are at a right angle to each other’s pull

c)

The Moon is directly overhead at the equator

98.

During Neap Tides, what is observed about the tidal range?

a)

It is the greatest of the month

b)

There is no change in sea level

c)

The difference between high and low tide is minimized

d)

Only one high tide occurs

99.

Which location is highlighted as an example of dramatic tides in the material?

a)

Gulf of Mexico, USA

b)

Bay of Fundy, Nova Scotia, Canada

c)

Mediterranean Sea, Europe

d)

Great Barrier Reef, Australia

100.

What is an eclipse in astronomy?

a)

The brightening of a star due to a planet

b)

The blocking of one celestial body by another

c)

A change in the Moon’s phases

101.

During which lunar phase does a lunar eclipse occur?

a)

New Moon

b)

First Quarter

c)

Full Moon

102.

Which shadow region produces a partial eclipse?

a)

Antumbra

b)

Penumbra

103.

In a total lunar eclipse, what color can the Moon appear and why?

a)

Blue, due to scattering by Earth’s oceans

b)

Deep red, due to sunlight refracted through Earth’s atmosphere

c)

White, because it reflects full sunlight

d)

Green, from auroras reaching the Moon

104.

Which alignment is required for a solar eclipse to occur?

a)

Sun–Earth–Moon

b)

Earth–Sun–Moon

c)

Sun–Moon–Earth

d)

Moon–Sun–Earth

105.

What condition allows a total solar eclipse to happen?

a)

The Moon is near its closest distance to Earth and appears the same angular size as the Sun

b)

The Moon is far from Earth and appears smaller than the Sun

c)

It is always possible at any New Moon regardless of distance

d)

It only occurs during a Full Moon

106.

Which term refers to the darkest central part of a shadow during an eclipse?

a)

Corona

b)

Umbra

c)

Penumbra

d)

Terminator

107.

What is seen during a partial solar eclipse?

a)

A ring of sunlight around the Moon

b)

A larger, fainter penumbral shadow hits Earth

108.

Why doesn’t an eclipse occur at every New Moon and Full Moon?

a)

Earth’s rotation is too fast

b)

The Moon’s orbit is tilted so its shadow usually passes above or below Earth

c)

The Sun’s brightness varies

d)

Clouds usually block the view

109.

When does an annular solar eclipse occur?

a)

When the Moon is too far from Earth to completely block the Sun, leaving a ring

b)

When the Moon is at perigee and covers the Sun entirely

c)

During a Full Moon

d)

When Earth passes into the Moon’s umbra

110.

Which phase is required for any solar eclipse (total or annular)?

a)

First Quarter

b)

New Moon

c)

Full Moon

d)

Third Quarter

111.

Which statement about the Moon’s motion explains why we always see the same lunar face from Earth?

a)

The Moon does not rotate

b)

The Moon’s rate of rotation equals its rate of revolution around Earth

c)

The Moon rotates twice as fast as it orbits

d)

The Moon keeps one side dark permanently

112.

According to the seasonal summary, on the Vernal Equinox (Mar 21) where does the Sun rise and set?

a)

NE and NW

b)

Due E and Due W

c)

SE and SW

d)

ESE and WSW

113.

Which season has the longest day length (about 15 hours of daylight and 9 hours of night) and the highest noon Sun altitude (about 71°)?

a)

Vernal Equinox

b)

Summer Solstice (June 21)

c)

Autumnal Equinox (Sept 21)

d)

Winter Solstice (Dec 21)

114.

On which date is the noon Sun altitude the lowest (about 23°) with short days (about 9 hours of daylight) and long nights (about 15 hours)?

a)

Mar 21

b)

June 21

c)

Sept 21

d)

Dec 21

115.

During the equinoxes, what is the location of the vertical ray and the length of day and night?

a)

Equator; equal 12-hour day and 12-hour night

b)

Equator; long day, short night

116.

Which season is associated with moderate insolation intensity and a noon Sun altitude midway around 47°?

a)

Vernal Equinox (Mar 21)

b)

Summer Solstice (June 21)

c)

Autumnal Equinox (Sept 21)

117.

What phase occurs directly opposite the New Moon in its orbit around Earth?

a)

First Quarter

b)

Full Moon

c)

Third Quarter

118.

What causes the phases of the Moon?

a)

Moon’s rotation changing its color

b)

Moon’s revolution around Earth changing the sunlit portion we see

119.

Which sequence correctly lists the phases from New Moon to Full Moon as shown: 1 → 5?

a)

New Moon, Waxing Crescent, First Quarter, Waxing Gibbous, Full Moon

b)

New Moon, Waning Crescent, Third Quarter, Waning Gibbous, Full Moon

c)

New Moon, First Quarter, Waxing Crescent, Waxing Gibbous, Full Moon

120.

Which statement best explains why Earth has seasons?

a)

Seasons result from changes in the angle and intensity of insolation during the year.

b)

Earth spins faster in summer than in winter.

121.

According to the material, Earth is closest to the Sun during which month?

a)

January

b)

April

c)

October

122.

In the northern hemisphere, when Earth is closest to the Sun, which season is occurring there?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Winter

123.

Which factor increases the intensity of insolation at a location?

a)

Higher angle of insolation

b)

Greater distance from the Sun

c)

Longer shadow length

124.

A flashlight held at 90° to a surface creates a bright, concentrated spot. What does this demonstrate about sunlight on Earth?

a)

Low angles produce high intensity energy.

b)

Perpendicular rays deliver direct, high-intensity energy.

c)

Angle has no effect on energy intensity.

125.

Which list names four factors that affect the intensity of insolation at Earth’s surface?

a)

Shape of the Earth, observer’s latitude, season of the year, time of day

b)

Ocean currents, plate tectonics, cloud type, air pressure

126.

At which time of day is the angle of insolation generally highest, producing the shortest shadows?

a)

Solar noon (midday)

b)

Midnight

127.

During an equinox, what daylight condition occurs at the Equator and across Earth?

a)

12 hours of day and 12 hours of night everywhere

b)

24 hours of daylight everywhere

128.

On which date are direct rays of the Sun at their most northern point (23.5° N)?

a)

June 21

b)

December 21

129.

On December 21, where are the Sun’s direct rays located?

a)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S)

b)

Arctic Circle (66.5° N)

130.

Which statement correctly describes day length at high latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere during the Summer Solstice?

a)

Equal day and night

b)

Long days/short nights