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5.1 What Is Energy?

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines potential energy in the context of plants shown in the diagram?

a)

Energy of motion used by animals during movement

b)

Stored energy captured from solar radiation in plant parts such as fruits, stems, and leaves

c)

Heat energy released to the environment during respiration

d)

Chemical energy only found in animal muscles

2.

According to the figure, what form of energy does a person primarily use when walking from one location to another after eating fruit?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Nuclear energy

d)

Thermal energy

3.

What happens to some energy at every stage of energy flow in the biosphere, as indicated in the figure?

a)

It is completely stored as chemical bonds

b)

It cycles back to the Sun

c)

Some is lost as heat

d)

It is converted entirely to potential energy

4.

Which sequence correctly illustrates the energy transformations depicted?

a)

Kinetic energy in plants → solar energy → heat

b)

Solar energy → potential energy in plant → kinetic energy in person

c)

Heat → potential energy in plant → solar energy

d)

Potential energy in person → solar energy → kinetic energy in plant

5.

Food energy is measured in which unit according to the material?

a)

Joules

b)

Calories

c)

Kelvins

d)

Newtons

6.

A kilocalorie (Calorie on food labels) is equal to how many calories?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

7.

Which statement accurately describes a calorie as defined in the material?

a)

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C

b)

The energy required to move a 1-kg mass 1 meter

c)

The heat released when 1 g of sugar is burned completely

d)

The energy stored in 1 mL of water at 25°C

8.

Why is a portion of energy not available for biological work during energy transfers depicted in the figure?

a)

It is used to create matter

b)

It becomes heat that dissipates into the environment

c)

It converts back to solar energy

d)

It remains trapped as potential energy in plants indefinitely

9.

Which statement best defines a kilocalorie in the context of food energy measurement?

a)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C

b)

One thousand calories, commonly used on nutrition labels to indicate food energy

c)

The smallest measurable unit of heat energy in cells

d)

The energy released when ATP is hydrolyzed

10.

A nutrition label lists an item as 250 Calories (kcal). What does this value most directly represent?

a)

250 individual calories used by the body to synthesize glucose

b)

The energy needed to raise 250 kilograms of water by 1°C

c)

The equivalent of 250,000 calories of energy, since each Calorie on labels equals one kilocalorie

d)

The total energy stored as ATP after digestion

11.

According to the concept of entropy presented, what happens during every energy transformation?

a)

Entropy decreases as systems become more ordered

b)

Entropy increases, reflecting greater disorganization or randomness

c)

Energy is completely conserved with no loss

d)

Heat is converted fully into work

12.

What is the only way stated to maintain or bring about order in a system?

a)

Decrease temperature

b)

Remove heat

c)

Add energy

d)

Increase entropy

13.

Which statement best describes heat in the context of the entropy discussion?

a)

Heat is a highly organized form of energy

b)

Heat is a highly disorganized form of energy

c)

Heat has no relation to entropy

d)

Heat always converts to chemical energy without loss

14.

During photosynthesis as described, what form of energy is converted into what product?

a)

Chemical energy to solar energy, producing oxygen

b)

Solar energy to chemical energy (glucose)

c)

Heat energy to mechanical energy (ATP)

d)

Solar energy to kinetic energy (motion)

15.

Which balanced summary equation corresponds to photosynthesis in the material?

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

b)

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

c)

6O2 + C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

d)

CO2 + H2O → CH4 + O2

16.

Which outcome accompanies photosynthesis according to the entropy explanation?

a)

No energy is lost; entropy remains constant

b)

Some of the sun’s energy is lost as heat, increasing entropy

c)

All light energy becomes glucose, decreasing entropy

d)

Heat release lowers entropy

17.

A tidy bedroom becomes messy over time without cleaning. Which law best explains this trend?

a)

First Law of Thermodynamics only

b)

Second Law of Thermodynamics (entropy tends to increase)

c)

Law of Conservation of Matter

d)

Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium

18.

Which action aligns with the statement that order requires added energy?

a)

Leaving a room untouched to keep it tidy

b)

Opening a window to cool the room

c)

Spending effort to organize and clean a messy room

d)

Turning off the lights

19.

Why can photosynthesis be used to illustrate both thermodynamic laws in biology?

a)

It creates matter from nothing, violating conservation

b)

It converts solar energy into chemical bonds (conservation of energy) while releasing some energy as heat (increasing entropy)

c)

It decreases entropy without any energy input

d)

It transforms heat entirely into work with perfect efficiency

20.

Refer to the diagrams of hydrogen ion (H+) distribution across a membrane. Which condition corresponds to a lower entropy state?

a)

Equal distribution of H+ on both sides of the membrane

b)

Unequal distribution with H+ concentrated on one side

c)

Random motion of H+ in a large volume with no membrane

d)

No H+ present on either side

21.

According to the ion distribution diagrams, what creates a potential for work across a membrane?

a)

Equal distribution of ions (high entropy)

b)

Difference in H+ concentration across the membrane

c)

Absence of a membrane channel

d)

Complete absence of ions

22.

Which statement best explains why equal distribution of H+ has higher entropy?

a)

Ions are confined to a smaller space and become ordered

b)

Ions possess less freedom of movement

c)

Ions are spread out evenly and can occupy a greater volume

d)

Ions stop moving entirely

23.

A cell establishes a high H+ concentration on one side of the membrane. Which outcome is most directly implied by the figure?

a)

The system becomes more disordered and gains entropy

b)

The system becomes more ordered and stores potential for work

c)

No change in order or energy potential occurs

d)

Entropy increases because ions are in a smaller space

24.

From the ATP summary, which feature makes ATP an effective short-term energy carrier in cells?

a)

It is a stable molecule that rarely changes

b)

It easily loses a phosphate group to become ADP

c)

It contains no phosphate groups

d)

It does not participate in a cycle of breakdown and regeneration

25.

Which set correctly lists the three structural components of an ATP molecule, as depicted in the model?

a)

Adenine, ribose, and one phosphate group

b)

Adenine, deoxyribose, and three phosphate groups

c)

Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

d)

Guanine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

26.

What does the abbreviation ATP stand for?

a)

Adenosine triphosphate

b)

Adenine triphosphate

c)

Adenosine diphosphate

d)

Adenine phosphate

27.

During the ATP cycle, ATP breakdown typically yields which immediate products?

a)

AMP only

b)

ADP and phosphate

c)

Ribose and adenine

d)

Two phosphates and adenine

28.

According to the ATP cycle figure, what process supplies the energy needed to regenerate ATP from ADP and P?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Photosynthesis only

d)

Passive diffusion

29.

Which statement best explains why ATP is suited as the cell’s energy currency?

a)

It stores large, uncontrollable bursts of energy

b)

Its breakdown releases energy slowly and cannot be coupled

c)

It releases just enough energy quickly and can be easily coupled to required reactions

d)

It cannot be regenerated once used

30.

In the coupled reactions diagram, the energy-releasing reaction that commonly powers an energy-requiring reaction is identified as which process?

a)

ADP phosphorylation

b)

ATP breakdown

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Electron transport chain

31.

Which component differs between ATP and ADP?

a)

The nitrogenous base

b)

The sugar group

c)

The number of phosphate groups

d)

The presence of ribose

32.

A cell needs energy for muscle contraction. Based on the ATP cycle, which immediate chemical change provides this energy?

a)

ADP gains a phosphate to form ATP

b)

ATP breaks down to ADP and phosphate

c)

Adenine converts to ribose

d)

Phosphate converts to ribose

33.

Which statement aligns with the depiction of ATP structure in the figure?

a)

The phosphate groups are directly attached to adenine

b)

Ribose connects adenine to the chain of phosphate groups

c)

ADP contains no phosphate groups

d)

ATP contains deoxyribose sugar

34.

In energy coupling as shown, what is the role of ATP in converting reactants C + D into products A + B?

a)

ATP acts as a substrate incorporated into A + B

b)

ATP provides energy upon hydrolysis to drive the reaction forward

c)

ATP inhibits the energy-requiring reaction

d)

ATP is regenerated from ADP during the reaction, releasing energy

35.

Which statement best defines a coupled reaction in cellular processes?

a)

Two reactions that occur independently without energy transfer

b)

A reaction in which energy released by one process drives another process

c)

Two reactions that both consume ATP at the same time

d)

A reaction that can occur only in the presence of oxygen

36.

During muscle contraction, which sequence occurs as ATP interacts with myosin?

a)

Myosin releases ADP and Pi, then binds ATP, causing contraction to stop

b)

Myosin binds ATP; ATP splits to ADP + Pi; release of ADP + Pi causes myosin to change shape and pull on actin

c)

Myosin binds actin first; then ATP forms from ADP + Pi, powering the stroke

d)

ATP binds actin directly, causing it to slide over myosin

37.

What immediate role does ATP breakdown play in muscle movement?

a)

It releases oxygen to the muscle fiber

b)

It provides heat to warm the muscle

c)

It provides energy that causes myosin to change shape and pull on actin

d)

It stores glucose as glycogen

38.

Which proteins directly interact to produce the sliding motion in muscle contraction?

a)

Actin and tubulin

b)

Myosin and actin

c)

Keratin and myosin

d)

Actin and collagen

39.

Which organelle primarily produces ATP used for cellular work such as muscle contraction?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Ribosome

40.

According to the flow-of-energy summary, which statement accurately links photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria and directly produces ATP for muscles

b)

Cellular respiration in mitochondria breaks down carbohydrates to make ATP, while photosynthesis in chloroplasts uses light to synthesize carbohydrates

c)

Both processes only occur in animals

d)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both release oxygen as a final product

41.

Which organelle captures solar energy to produce chemical energy in carbohydrates?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

42.

In the depicted energy flow, which molecules are inputs to the chloroplast during photosynthesis?

a)

O2 and glucose

b)

CO2 and H2O

c)

ATP and heat

d)

NADH and FADH2

43.

According to the diagram, what leaves the mitochondrion as a byproduct of cellular respiration?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Heat

c)

Glucose

d)

CO2 only

44.

What is the primary energy currency produced by mitochondria to power chemical, transport, and mechanical work?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

GTP

d)

FADH2

45.

Humans contribute to the cycling of molecules by performing which pair of actions?

a)

Exhaling oxygen; eating only plants

b)

Inhaling oxygen; eating plants and animals

c)

Inhaling carbon dioxide; eating animals only

d)

Exhaling carbon dioxide; producing glucose

46.

Which statement best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration shown?

a)

Both occur in chloroplasts and release O2

b)

Photosynthesis uses CO2 and H2O to make carbohydrates and O2; respiration uses O2 to extract ATP from food

c)

Respiration produces carbohydrates from heat; photosynthesis consumes ATP

d)

Both processes convert heat into solar energy

47.

By cellular respiration, humans use O2 and energy-rich food primarily to do what?

a)

Store solar energy in chloroplasts

b)

Make ATP to maintain the body and carry on activities

c)

Convert heat directly into chemical energy

d)

Produce only mechanical work without ATP

48.

In the metabolic pathway figure, what do E1–E6 represent?

a)

Substrates

b)

Products

c)

Enzymes

d)

Coenzymes

49.

Which statement about enzymes in metabolic pathways is supported by the material?

a)

Enzymes make impossible reactions occur

b)

Enzymes are protein catalysts that speed up reactions

c)

Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they catalyze

d)

Enzymes only function in mitochondria

50.

Which scenario illustrates feedback inhibition as shown in the figure?

a)

The first substrate binds E1, activating E2–E4 sequentially

b)

The end product binds to E1 and reduces the pathway’s activity

c)

Heat from mitochondria accelerates E1

d)

ATP binding to chloroplast activates photosynthesis

51.

What happens when the enzyme in the pathway is inactive, according to the figure?

a)

The pathway accelerates to produce more product

b)

The first substrate is converted directly to ATP

c)

The metabolic pathway becomes inactive and no product forms

d)

Photosynthesis compensates to maintain product level

52.

Which statement best describes the role of enzymes in metabolism?

a)

They are substrates that are consumed during reactions.

b)

They are organic catalysts that act on substrates to facilitate reactions.

c)

They are products formed at the end of reactions.

d)

They are inorganic cofactors that always increase reaction temperature.

53.

According to the diagram of enzymatic action, what happens at the active site?

a)

The enzyme is permanently altered and becomes a product.

b)

The substrate binds and the reaction occurs, producing products.

c)

Products bind to form substrate.

d)

Energy is stored without chemical change.

54.

Which statement about an enzyme's active site aligns with the induced fit model?

a)

The active site is rigid and never changes shape.

b)

The active site undergoes a slight shape change to accommodate the substrate.

c)

The active site is identical for all enzymes.

d)

The active site only binds products but not substrates.

55.

What comparison is used to describe substrate specificity of an enzyme's active site?

a)

Gears and belt

b)

Lock and key

c)

Plug and socket

d)

Key and map

56.

Which statement is TRUE regarding enzymes after they catalyze a reaction?

a)

They are used up and must be replaced.

b)

They are denatured by the products.

c)

They return to their original shape after releasing product(s).

d)

They become inactive permanently.

57.

Which scenario best illustrates enzyme inhibition as described?

a)

A substrate binds faster due to higher temperature.

b)

An active enzyme is prevented from combining with its substrate.

c)

Additional substrate increases reaction rate.

d)

An enzyme increases activation energy.

58.

Cyanide is described as a poison because it binds to and inhibits which enzyme?

a)

ATP synthase

b)

Rubisco

c)

Cytochrome c oxidase

d)

Amylase

59.

Penicillin’s mode of action, as noted, is to:

a)

Activate human enzymes in respiration.

b)

Interfere with a bacterial enzyme that kills the bacteria.

c)

Increase the affinity of bacterial substrates for human enzymes.

d)

Bind to DNA to stop transcription.

60.

Which statement best describes feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway?

a)

An initial substrate activates all downstream enzymes.

b)

A product, when abundant, competes with the substrate for the active site to speed up the pathway.

c)

An end product binds to a site other than the active site on the first enzyme, causing a shape change that shuts the pathway down.

d)

Enzymes in a pathway are permanently inactivated by heat.

61.

Which feature distinguishes competitive interaction at the active site from allosteric feedback inhibition as presented?

a)

Competitive interaction involves product abundance at the active site, while allosteric feedback involves binding at a different site causing shape change.

b)

Both involve binding at the same nonactive site.

c)

Allosteric feedback increases substrate concentration at the active site.

d)

Competitive interaction occurs only in nonbiological systems.

62.

According to the diagram, what is the immediate consequence when the product P accumulates and binds to enzyme E1 at a site other than the active site?

a)

Substrate S binds more quickly

b)

E1 changes shape and loses function

c)

E1 increases catalytic rate

d)

P is converted back to S

63.

In the active pathway illustration, which sequence correctly represents the ordered action of enzymes leading from the first substrate to the end product?

a)

E4 → E3 → E2 → E1

b)

E1 → E2 → E3 → E4

c)

E2 → E1 → E3 → E4

d)

E1 → E3 → E2 → E4

64.

Which statement best defines feedback inhibition as depicted?

a)

The first substrate blocks the active site of E1 to start the pathway

b)

An end product binds allosterically to an early enzyme to downregulate the pathway

c)

Each enzyme competes for the same active site on E1

d)

Heat denatures all enzymes simultaneously to stop the pathway

65.

What happens to substrate binding when E1 is inactivated by product binding in feedback inhibition?

a)

Substrate S binds more tightly to the altered active site

b)

Substrate S cannot bind, and the reaction stops

c)

Substrate S is converted directly into P without E1

d)

Substrate S binds to E4 instead

66.

Which regulatory mechanism is illustrated by the product binding at the 'other site' on E1 rather than the active site?

a)

Competitive inhibition

b)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

c)

Allosteric regulation

d)

Coenzyme activation

67.

When product levels drop after feedback inhibition has occurred, what is the next event in the pathway according to the figure?

a)

E1 remains permanently inactive

b)

E1 returns to its original shape and the pathway resumes

c)

S is degraded to prevent waste

d)

E4 converts P back to S to restart the pathway

68.

Which statement best defines energy of activation (Ea) as presented?

a)

The total energy released by a reaction

b)

The energy needed to cause molecules to react with one another

c)

The heat lost to the surroundings during a reaction

d)

The energy stored in products compared to reactants

69.

According to the material, how do enzymes affect the energy of activation for a reaction?

a)

They increase Ea, slowing the reaction

b)

They do not change Ea but increase temperature

c)

They lower Ea, making reactions easier/faster

d)

They convert substrates directly into products without affecting Ea

70.

Which action is directly attributed to enzymes to facilitate reactions, besides lowering Ea?

a)

They supply ATP for the reaction

b)

They bring substrates into contact and may participate in the reaction

c)

They convert endergonic reactions to exergonic reactions

d)

They increase the potential energy of products

71.

A reaction pathway shows a smaller activation energy barrier when an enzyme is present. What consequence does the material state follows from this change?

a)

The reaction becomes slower due to reduced collisions

b)

The reaction becomes easier/faster to occur

c)

The overall energy of products increases

d)

The reaction stops at the transition state

72.

In the context of cellular processes that depend on enzymes, which transport process would most likely require additional energy input from the cell regardless of enzyme action?

a)

Passive transport down a concentration gradient

b)

Active transport against a concentration gradient

c)

Simple diffusion across the membrane

d)

Facilitated diffusion through channels

73.

Which statement best defines passive transport across a cell membrane?

a)

Movement of molecules using ATP against their concentration gradient

b)

Movement of molecules down their concentration gradient without additional energy input

c)

Endocytosis of large particles into vesicles

d)

Pumping ions through proteins using energy from respiration

74.

According to the notes on passive transport, which type of molecule most easily crosses the phospholipid bilayer by simple diffusion?

a)

Large polar molecules

b)

Ions with charge

c)

Non-polar, hydrophobic molecules

d)

Small peptides

75.

Which transport process specifically requires membrane proteins such as channels or carriers but does not require cellular energy?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

76.

Water is polar. Which protein type explained in the notes accounts for its faster-than-expected movement across membranes?

a)

Sodium-potassium pumps

b)

Aquaporins

c)

Clathrin-coated pits

d)

Dynein motors

77.

In the three-panel fishbowl diagram showing dye dispersal over time, what outcome does the final panel illustrate?

a)

Active transport of dye into fish

b)

Equal distribution of dye and water molecules (equilibrium)

c)

Aggregation of dye at the bottom due to gravity

d)

Pumping of dye through a membrane

78.

Based on the dye crystal demonstration, which factor primarily drives the movement observed?

a)

ATP hydrolysis by membrane pumps

b)

A concentration gradient causing diffusion

c)

Bulk flow created by cilia

d)

Chemical reactions converting dye to water

79.

In the facilitated diffusion figure, what role does the orange structure spanning the membrane play?

a)

It acts as a carrier protein that changes shape to move solute down its gradient

b)

It is a proton pump that expends ATP

c)

It is a cellulose wall limiting transport

d)

It is a vesicle that engulfs extracellular fluid

80.

Which statement best contrasts simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion across the plasma membrane?

a)

Both require ATP but use different proteins

b)

Simple diffusion needs carrier proteins; facilitated diffusion does not

c)

Simple diffusion moves non-polar molecules directly through the bilayer; facilitated diffusion uses specific transport proteins

d)

Facilitated diffusion moves molecules against their gradient; simple diffusion moves down the gradient

81.

A polar molecule needs to cross the plasma membrane without energy expenditure. Which mechanism is most appropriate according to the notes and figure?

a)

Simple diffusion through phospholipids

b)

Facilitated diffusion via a specific channel or carrier

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Active transport using ATP

82.

At equilibrium in diffusion, which description is accurate based on the dye demonstration?

a)

Net movement of molecules continues from low to high concentration

b)

Net movement of molecules stops; distribution is uniform though individual molecules still move randomly

c)

All molecular motion ceases

d)

Molecules become larger and sink

83.

Which statement best defines facilitated diffusion in cellular membranes?

a)

Passive transport using carrier proteins without ATP

b)

Active transport using ATP to move solutes up their gradient

c)

Bulk transport via vesicles across membranes

d)

Random movement of any molecules without membrane involvement

84.

In osmosis, which component must be selectively permeable to allow the process shown to occur?

a)

Solute only

b)

Water only

c)

Both solute and water equally

d)

Neither solute nor water

85.

According to the demonstration, water moves in response to which gradient?

a)

Solute concentration gradient directly

b)

Water concentration gradient, inversely related to solute concentration

c)

Electrical gradient only

d)

Hydrostatic pressure gradient only

86.

What is the expected direction of net water movement when solute cannot cross the membrane and one side has higher solute concentration?

a)

From the higher solute side to the lower solute side

b)

From the lower solute side to the higher solute side

c)

No net movement will occur

d)

It oscillates randomly with no trend

87.

Which statement correctly distinguishes osmosis from simple diffusion?

a)

Osmosis requires ATP while simple diffusion does not

b)

Osmosis involves movement of water across a semipermeable membrane

c)

Osmosis moves solutes across membranes only

d)

Osmosis can occur only in gases

88.

A cell places a membrane that is permeable to water but not solute between two solutions. Which outcome matches the model?

a)

Water moves until the water concentration gradient reaches zero

b)

Solute diffuses until its gradient reaches zero

c)

Water moves up its own concentration gradient

d)

No gradients change because the membrane blocks all movement

89.

Carrier proteins in facilitated diffusion primarily function to

a)

Hydrolyze ATP to power transport

b)

Bind specific solutes and move them down their concentration gradient

c)

Create pores that allow any molecule to pass

d)

Pump solutes against their gradient

90.

Which condition would increase the rate of osmosis across a semipermeable membrane as depicted?

a)

Increasing the solute size so it can cross the membrane

b)

Increasing the difference in solute concentration across the membrane

c)

Decreasing the water permeability of the membrane to zero

d)

Equalizing solute concentrations on both sides

91.

In the diagram, why does the final water level differ between the two compartments after osmosis proceeds?

a)

Water accumulates on the side with higher solute concentration due to lower free water concentration

b)

Solute particles physically push water molecules across the membrane

c)

Water is actively pumped by carrier proteins

d)

Hydrostatic pressure instantly equalizes levels on both sides

92.

Which description best captures the relationship between solute concentration and free water concentration in osmosis?

a)

They are directly proportional

b)

They are inversely proportional

c)

They are unrelated

d)

Both remain constant during osmosis