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Weathering and Soil Formation: Rocks and Petrology

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does petrology primarily study?

a)

The movement of tectonic plates

b)

The study of rocks concerned with composition, structure, and origin

c)

The atmosphere’s layers and weather patterns

d)

The chemistry of ocean water

2.

Which statement best distinguishes intrusive from extrusive igneous rocks based on cooling history?

a)

Intrusive rocks cool fast at the surface; extrusive rocks cool slowly underground

b)

Both intrusive and extrusive rocks cool at the same rate but in different seasons

c)

Intrusive rocks cool slowly from trapped magma; extrusive rocks cool rapidly from lava

d)

Extrusive rocks do not solidify from molten material

3.

Which texture correctly matches an igneous rock description?

a)

Phaneritic: fine-textured due to lack of crystal growth

b)

Aphanitic: coarse-textured with large visible crystals

c)

Porphyritic: larger crystals (phenocrysts) surrounded by a finer groundmass

d)

Vitreous: coarse-textured due to trapped gas bubbles

4.

Sedimentary rocks primarily form through which sequence of processes?

a)

Melting, crystallization, and foliation

b)

Weathering, transport, deposition, then compaction and cementation

c)

Metamorphism followed by melting and eruption

d)

Compaction, melting, and rapid cooling

5.

What is the key difference between sedimentation and lithification as defined in the material?

a)

Sedimentation occurs after lithification

b)

Sedimentation refers to weathering, transport, and deposition; lithification refers to compaction and cementation into rock

c)

Both terms describe the same process

d)

Lithification includes only weathering and transport

6.

Which metamorphic rock correctly corresponds to its pre-existing rock?

a)

Sandstone → Marble

b)

Limestone → Quartzite

c)

Shale → Slate

d)

Granite → Schist

7.

According to the list of abundant elements in Earth’s crust, which pair correctly shows the two most abundant and their approximate percentages?

a)

Oxygen ~46.6% and Silicon ~27.72%

b)

Silicon ~46.6% and Oxygen ~27.72%

c)

Aluminum ~27.72% and Iron ~8.13%

d)

Calcium ~5.00% and Sodium ~3.63%

8.

Which statement best describes primary minerals?

a)

They form from weathering of pre-existing minerals and are a source of clay fraction.

b)

They form from crystallization of igneous rocks and are a source of sand and silt fractions.

c)

They are exclusively clay minerals formed in soils.

d)

They originate only from biological activity.

9.

Which of the following is listed as a primary mineral example?

a)

Kaolinite

b)

Hematite

c)

Olivine

d)

Halite

10.

In Bowen's Reaction Series, which branch includes Olivine, Pyroxene, Amphibole, and Biotite and is characterized by high magma temperature and low silica?

a)

Residual phase

b)

Continuous series

c)

Discontinuous series

d)

Secondary series

11.

Which process is NOT a type of physical weathering described?

a)

Exfoliation

b)

Freeze–thaw

c)

Oxidation

d)

Abrasion

12.

During chemical weathering, hydrolysis primarily results in which outcome?

a)

Loss of electrons from minerals only

b)

Attack of water causing changes in mineral composition or structure and decomposition

c)

Removal of oxygen from minerals only

d)

Cracking of rocks due to temperature changes

13.

Which example correctly pairs a chemical weathering process with its description or result given in the notes?

a)

Oxidation—gain of electrons by minerals

b)

Reduction—removal of oxygen and gain of electrons

c)

Hydration—destroys chemical structure of minerals

d)

Carbonation—rocks or minerals with hydrochloric acid

14.

Which statement about biological weathering is supported by the material?

a)

It includes root wedging that widens cracks as roots grow and animal burrowing such as by piddocks.

b)

It only involves microorganisms dissolving minerals in water.

c)

It is synonymous with carbonation.

d)

It consists solely of abrasion by wind-driven sand.

15.

According to the five factors of soil formation, how does climate influence weathering and leaching?

a)

Higher temperature slows biochemical reactions, reducing weathering.

b)

Higher precipitation decreases leaching of soluble substances.

c)

Higher temperature increases reaction rates, leading to faster weathering, and higher precipitation increases weathering and leaching.

d)

Climate has little effect on soil formation compared to other factors.

16.

Which role do microorganisms primarily play in soil formation according to the material?

a)

They cause soil mixing through bioturbation

b)

They help in decomposition of organic matter

c)

They serve as the parent material for soil

d)

They increase erosion on backslopes

17.

In comparing grassland and forest soils, which statement is correct?

a)

Grassland soils have a thin surface A horizon

b)

Forest soils have a darker A horizon due to more organic matter

c)

Grassland soils have a thick surface A horizon

d)

Forest soils have no O horizon formation

18.

Which hillslope position is most prone to flooding?

a)

Summit

b)

Shoulder

c)

Backslope

d)

Toeslope

19.

Which transport agent matches the term aeolian in the context of parent material?

a)

Water

b)

Wind

c)

Gravity

d)

Ice

20.

Which statement best defines the A horizon?

a)

Layer of organic matter at various decomposition stages

b)

Zone of eluviation where clay and oxides are leached

c)

Mineral horizon in the topsoil where organic matter coats minerals causing darkening

d)

Unweathered parent material

21.

What key difference distinguishes the E horizon from the B horizon?

a)

E is the zone of illuviation while B is the zone of eluviation

b)

E is light colored due to leaching, while B is an accumulation zone of leached materials

c)

Both are considered outside the zone of pedogenesis

d)

E contains hard bedrock while B is unweathered parent material

22.

Which horizon lies outside the zone of pedogenesis and consists of partially weathered parent material?

a)

O horizon

b)

C horizon

c)

A horizon

d)

B horizon

23.

Haploidization refers to processes that do which of the following?

a)

Differentiate initial materials into many horizons such as by illuviation and eluvia tion

b)

Accelerate weathering to form hard bedrock

c)

Inhibit, decelerate, or disturb horizon development, such as by erosion and pedoturbation

d)

Create only organic horizons like Oi, Oe, and Oa

24.

According to Simonson’s model, which set of processes drive soil formation?

a)

Addition, removal, transformation, translocation

b)

Weathering, erosion, deposition, cementation

c)

Primary succession, secondary succession, climax

d)

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, carbonation

25.

Which term under Addition refers to the accumulation on the soil surface of organic litter and associated humus to a depth of less than 30 cm?

a)

Cumulization

b)

Littering

c)

Melanization

d)

Enrichment

26.

Which process is defined as the general term for washing out or eluviating soluble materials from the solum?

a)

Erosion

b)

Leaching

c)

Illuviation

d)

Lessivage

27.

Which Transformation process involves the release of minerals (inorganic) of organic matter through decomposition?

a)

Humification

b)

Ripening

c)

Mineralization

d)

Synthesis

28.

Salinization, alkalization/solonization, and dealkalization/solodization are categorized under which general process?

a)

Addition

b)

Removal

c)

Transformation

d)

Translocation

29.

Which description best matches gleyization?

a)

Chemical migration of silica out of the soil solum concentrating sesquioxides

b)

Release of iron from primary minerals with progressive oxidation causing brownish to reddish colors

c)

Reduction of iron under anaerobic waterlogged conditions producing bluish to greenish gray colors with mottles and concretions

d)

Washing in suspension of fine clay down cracks and other voids

30.

Which type of pedoturbation refers specifically to soil mixing by the action of clay shrinking and swelling?

a)

Faunalturbation

b)

Floralturbation

c)

Argilliturbation

d)

Cryoturbation

31.

What is the smallest volume of soil that should be recognized as a soil individual?

a)

Soil horizon

b)

Polypedon

c)

Pedon

d)

Saprolite

32.

Which statement best defines soil texture?

a)

Arrangement of soil aggregates into horizons

b)

Relative proportion of sand, silt, and clay in a soil

c)

Amount of organic matter present in the topsoil

d)

Degree of soil compaction due to machinery

33.

According to the particle fraction table, which size range corresponds to silt in the USDA system?

a)

> 2 mm

b)

2 – 0.05 mm

c)

0.05 – 0.002 mm

d)

< 0.002 mm

34.

A soil sample feels gritty when rubbed and is non‑sticky when moist. Which soil separate does this most likely indicate?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Gravel

35.

Which chemical is commonly used as a dispersing agent to separate soil particles in the hydrometer method?

a)

Lime

b)

Calgon (Sodium hexametaphosphate)

c)

Gypsum

d)

Aluminum sulfate

36.

Which pairing correctly matches a texture group comparison?

a)

Coarse‑textured soils have low permeability

b)

Fine‑textured soils have good drainage

c)

Coarse‑textured soils have high bulk density

d)

Fine‑textured soils have high water‑holding capacity

37.

Which statement about aggregate stability and the slake test is most accurate?

a)

Aggregate stability refers only to resistance against tillage tools

b)

The slake test measures the stability of soil aggregates in water; stable macropores allow water movement without breaking aggregates

c)

Aggregate stability is unrelated to wind erosion

d)

The slake test is performed in dry air to prevent swelling

38.

Which soil structure type is correctly matched with its typical occurrence or property?

a)

Granular—forms in B horizon; very slow permeability

b)

Blocky—common in A horizon; influenced by humus

c)

Prismatic—forms in B horizon; moderate water permeability

d)

Platy—forms due to good natural aggregation; rapid permeability

39.

Which statement best defines bulk density (B.D.) of soil?

a)

Ratio of mass of soil solids to the volume of soil

b)

Mass of water per volume of pores

c)

Ratio of pore space to total soil volume

d)

Mass of soil solids per mass of water

40.

Which is a listed effect of high bulk density in soils?

a)

Improved porosity

b)

High soil compaction and potential waterlogging

c)

Increased organic matter

d)

Enhanced soil aggregation

41.

According to the notes, which factor lowers bulk density by improving soil aggregation?

a)

Excessive tillage

b)

Greater profile depth

c)

Organic matter addition

d)

Coarse soil texture

42.

What is the typical particle density (PD) for mineral soils given in the material?

a)

1.0 g/cm³

b)

2.65 g/cm³

c)

2.00 g/cm³

d)

3.10 g/cm³

43.

Which formula expresses percent pore space (porosity) in terms of bulk density and particle density?

a)

% Pore space = (bulk density / particle density) × 100

b)

% Pore space = 1 − (bulk density / particle density) × 100

c)

% Pore space = (particle density − bulk density) × 100

d)

% Pore space = (bulk density × particle density) / 100

44.

Which pair correctly matches a water movement term with its description?

a)

Infiltration: downward movement through soil layers by gravity

b)

Percolation: entry of water via the soil surface

c)

Infiltration: downward entry of water via the soil surface

d)

Percolation: upward capillary movement

45.

Which condition corresponds to the upper limit of available water for plants?

a)

Saturation (0 bar)

b)

Field Capacity (1/3 bar)

c)

Permanent Wilting Point (15 bar)

d)

Hygroscopic coefficient (31 bar)

46.

How does soil moisture tension (SMT) change as moisture content decreases?

a)

SMT decreases

b)

SMT remains constant

c)

SMT increases

d)

SMT first increases then decreases

47.

Which factor tends to slow infiltration according to the material?

a)

Dry soil moisture content

b)

Sandy (coarse) texture

c)

Clayey (fine) texture

d)

Well-aggregated soil structure

48.

Available water is defined as the difference between which two moisture conditions?

a)

Saturation and field capacity

b)

Field capacity and permanent wilting point

c)

Permanent wilting point and hygroscopic coefficient

d)

Saturation and hygroscopic coefficient

49.

According to the summary of water potential and tension, which situation makes water extraction difficult?

a)

Low soil moisture tension

b)

High soil moisture tension

c)

High water potential in plant than soil

d)

Water moving from higher to lower potential

50.

Which soil behavior pairing with moisture content is stated in the table?

a)

Dry: sticky and plastic

b)

Wet: friable

c)

Super saturated: viscous

d)

Dry: viscous

51.

Which list shows the Atterberg limits included in the material?

a)

Liquid, Plastic, Friable, Hard

b)

Liquid, Plastic, Elastic, Brittle

c)

Liquid, Sticky, Plastic, Hard

d)

Plastic, Viscous, Friable, Hard

52.

What does the Munsell color chart describe soil color based on?

a)

Hue and brightness only

b)

Hue, Value, and Chroma

c)

Value and saturation only

d)

Chroma and texture

53.

In the Munsell system, which term refers to the lightness or darkness of soil color and runs from 0 (pure black) to 10 (pure white)?

a)

Hue

b)

Chroma

c)

Value

d)

Tint

54.

Which statement best describes soil colloids?

a)

They are large sand-sized particles with low reactivity

b)

They are very fine particles with high surface area and are chemically reactive

c)

They are only organic in nature and non-reactive

d)

They are visible to the naked eye and have no effect on soil properties

55.

Which are the basic structural units of silicate clays?

a)

Silica tetrahedron and aluminum octahedron

b)

Calcium cube and magnesium prism

c)

Iron hexagon and sodium pyramid

d)

Carbon ring and hydrogen sheet

56.

Kaolinite is categorized as which type of crystalline silicate clay and which property is typical of it?

a)

1:1 non-expanding; low CEC and low surface area

b)

2:1 highly expanding; high swelling and shrinkage

c)

2:1 limited expanding; highest CEC

d)

2:1 non-expanding; potassium ions dominate the interlayer

57.

In montmorillonite, substitution of which ion by magnesium leads to a net negative charge?

a)

Silicon is replaced by potassium

b)

Aluminum is replaced by magnesium

c)

Iron is replaced by calcium

d)

Magnesium is replaced by aluminum

58.

Which source of negative charge in clays is permanent and especially important for 2:1 layer silicates?

a)

Isomorphous substitution within the crystal lattice

b)

Ionization of exposed hydroxyl groups

c)

Protonation of hydroxyl groups

d)

Adsorption of organic acids from humus

59.

What role do potassium ions (K+) play in illite (a 2:1 non-expanding clay)?

a)

They cause high swelling by repelling sheets

b)

They act as binding agents in the interlayer, holding tetrahedral sheets together

c)

They substitute for aluminum in the octahedral sheet to create negative charge

d)

They increase pH-dependent charges by deprotonation

60.

Which statement about cation exchange in soils is correct?

a)

It is an irreversible process that consumes cations

b)

It is the movement of anions only in the soil solution

c)

It is the reversible adsorption of cations on charged sediment surfaces and is stoichiometric

d)

It occurs only in organic soils and not in clays

61.

Which statement best defines Cation Exchange Capacity (CEC) in soils?

a)

The total positive charges within the soil

b)

A measure of the soil’s ability to hold and exchange positively charged ions

c)

The percentage of soil organic matter

d)

The mass of clay per 100 g of soil

62.

Which soil property combination generally results in higher CEC?

a)

Sandy texture with low organic matter

b)

Clayey texture with high organic matter

c)

Kaolinitic clay with low pH

d)

Sandy loam with neutral pH

63.

According to the table, what is the computed CEC (in me/100 g soil) from the listed exchangeable cations H+, Al3+, Na+, K+, Mg2+, and Ca2+?

a)

12

b)

18

c)

23

d)

27

64.

Percent Base Saturation (%BS) is defined as the percentage of CEC occupied by which group of ions?

a)

Anions such as NO3− and HPO42−

b)

Hydrogen ions only

c)

Basic cations such as Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, and Na+

d)

Aluminum ions only

65.

Using the provided example, what is the calculated percent base saturation if the sum of exchangeable bases is 1.5 + 2.5 + 6.0 + 9.0 and CEC is 23?

a)

65.2%

b)

78.3%

c)

82.61%

d)

90.0%

66.

Which statement about soil pH is correct?

a)

Acidic soils are dominated by OH− below pH 7

b)

Neutral soils have pH 0

c)

Alkaline soils are dominated by OH− above pH 7

d)

pH equals log[H+]

67.

Which of the following is a pool of acidity in soils?

a)

Carbonate alkalinity in soil solids

b)

Active acidity: H+ dissolved in soil solution

c)

Base saturation: Ca2+ on exchange sites

d)

Hydroxide ions in soil solution

68.

Which source would most directly increase soil acidity according to the material?

a)

Lime application

b)

Crop removal and excess nitrogen fertilizers

c)

High base saturation

d)

Neutral pH water irrigation

69.

Which statement best defines Relative Neutralizing Value (Calcium Carbonate Equivalent, CCE) as presented?

a)

It measures the soil’s ability to carry electrical current.

b)

It compares a liming material’s neutralizing ability to pure CaCO3.

c)

It indicates the amount of exchangeable sodium in soil.

d)

It is the percentage of organic matter in a soil sample.

70.

Based on the table of liming materials, which has the highest Relative Neutralizing Value (RNV or CCE)?

a)

CaCO3 (Calcium carbonate)

b)

Ca(OH)2 (Slaked or Hydrated lime)

c)

CaMg(CO3)2 (Dolomitic limestone)

d)

CaO (Burned or Quick lime)

71.

A soil with pH less than 7 and potential aluminum toxicity most likely falls under which problem soil category?

a)

Saline soil

b)

Acidic soil

c)

Sodic soil

d)

Saline-sodic soil

72.

Which characteristic distinguishes saline soils from sodic soils according to the material?

a)

Saline soils have high soluble salts; sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium.

b)

Saline soils have pH above 9; sodic soils have pH below 5.

c)

Saline soils show black surface crusts; sodic soils show white crusts.

d)

Saline soils occur only in humid regions; sodic soils occur only in arid regions.

73.

What is soil electrical conductivity primarily used to indicate in the field?

a)

Soil texture class

b)

Soil salinity

c)

Soil organic matter content

d)

Soil bulk density

74.

How does flooding typically affect soil pH in acidic versus alkaline soils, according to the notes?

a)

It decreases pH in both acidic and alkaline soils.

b)

It increases pH in both acidic and alkaline soils.

c)

It increases pH in acidic soils and decreases pH in alkaline soils.

d)

It has no effect on pH but increases redox potential.

75.

What product is primarily formed when methanogens use carbon dioxide as the terminal electron acceptor in highly reduced soils?

a)

CO2

b)

NO3−

c)

SO42−SO4^2−

d)

CH4

76.

Which soil texture characteristic near beaches most directly makes maintaining a flooded rice field difficult?

a)

High clay content causes waterlogging

b)

Sandy composition causes rapid drainage

c)

High organic matter retains too much water

d)

Peat layers cause capillary rise

77.

Rice generally prefers which soil pH range for optimal growth?

a)

3.0 to 4.0

b)

4.5 to 5.0

c)

5.5 to 7.0

d)

8.0 to 9.5

78.

Why can low Cation Exchange Capacity (CEC) in coastal sandy soils hinder rice growth?

a)

Low CEC increases nitrogen fixation by microbes

b)

Low CEC reduces the soil’s ability to hold and exchange essential cations like Ca, Mg, K, and Na

c)

Low CEC prevents soil aeration

d)

Low CEC raises soil pH to optimal levels for rice

79.

Which factor best explains why salinity near beaches can inhibit rice seed germination and plant growth?

a)

Rice is tolerant to high salt levels

b)

Sea spray and tidal action lower salt concentrations

c)

Proximity to seawater elevates soil salt concentrations, and rice is sensitive to salt

d)

High salinity increases nutrient availability

80.

Which function is NOT listed as a role of soil organisms?

a)

Decomposition

b)

Nutrient cycling

c)

Soil structure formation

d)

Photosynthesis of leaves

81.

Photoautotrophs are classified by which combination of energy and carbon sources?

a)

Light for energy and carbon dioxide for carbon

b)

Inorganic compounds for energy and organic compounds for carbon

c)

Organic compounds for both energy and carbon

d)

Light for energy and organic compounds for carbon

82.

Which domain is characterized by prokaryotic cells without peptidoglycan in their cell walls and often inhabits extreme environments?

a)

Eukarya

b)

Bacteria

c)

Archaea

d)

Protozoa

83.

Gram-negative bacteria are identified by which gram stain result and cell wall structure?

a)

Purple stain; thick peptidoglycan layer, no outer membrane

b)

Pink/red stain; thin peptidoglycan layer with outer membrane

c)

Purple stain; thin peptidoglycan layer with outer membrane

d)

Pink/red stain; thick peptidoglycan layer, no outer membrane

84.

Actinomycetes are especially known for decomposing which resistant material?

a)

Cellulose from plant cell walls

b)

Chitin from insect exoskeletons

c)

Lignin from woody plants

d)

Starch from seeds

85.

Which feature is associated with algae in soil and aquatic habitats?

a)

Lack of photosynthesis and presence of flagella only

b)

Presence of heterocyst (specialized cell) and photoautotrophic nature

c)

Obligate anaerobic metabolism

d)

Exclusively marine habitat with no freshwater members

86.

Which pairing of bacterial oxygen requirement and description is correct?

a)

Obligate aerobes: cannot survive in the presence of oxygen

b)

Facultative anaerobes: use oxygen when available but can switch to anaerobic metabolism

c)

Microaerophiles: require no oxygen at all

d)

Aerotolerant: require high oxygen levels (20–100%)

87.

Which type of earthworm lives in permanent burrows and drags surface leaf litter down into them?

a)

Epigeic

b)

Endogeic

c)

Anecic

d)

Parasitic

88.

Soil organic matter includes decomposed or decomposing plant and animal material, microorganisms, and substances synthesized by soil organisms. Which of the following is NOT listed as one of its four components?

a)

Living organisms (soil biota) <5%

b)

Fresh residue ~10%

c)

Stable OM (humus) 33–50%

d)

Sand particles 33–50%

89.

Which component of humus has the highest molecular weight and is darkest in color, and is insoluble in both acid and alkali?

a)

Fulvic acid

b)

Humic acid

c)

Humin

d)

Lignin

90.

A lower C/N ratio in organic matter generally indicates which outcome?

a)

Slower rate of decomposition

b)

Faster rate of decomposition

c)

No change in decomposition rate

d)

Inhibition of microbial activity

91.

During which composting stage do thermophiles replace mesophilic microorganisms to break down complex carbon sources, typically at 65–50°C?

a)

Mesophilic stage

b)

Thermophilic stage

c)

Cooling stage

d)

Maturation stage

92.

Which process converts atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into a usable form primarily as ammonia (NH3) or related compounds?

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Ammonification

93.

In nitrification, which bacteria convert NO2− to NO3−?

a)

Nitrosomonas

b)

Nitrobacter

c)

Azotobacter

d)

Rhizobium

94.

According to Mitscherlich's Law, what happens as nutrient levels approach sufficiency in the soil?

a)

Growth response to added nutrient increases sharply

b)

Each additional unit of nutrient gives progressively smaller growth increases

c)

Plant growth stops regardless of added nutrient

d)

Toxicity symptoms immediately appear

95.

Which nutrient level is defined as adequate for optimal growth and results in healthy foliage and robust yields?

a)

Deficient

b)

Sufficient

c)

Excess

d)

Toxic

96.

A plant shows chlorosis of older leaves, stunted growth, poor fruit and seed development, and overall reduced vigor. Which deficiency is most likely?

a)

Nitrogen deficiency

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Calcium deficiency

d)

Sulfur deficiency

97.

Which symptom best indicates phosphorus deficiency in plants?

a)

Interveinal chlorosis on younger leaves

b)

Dark green or purplish leaves, especially on older leaves

c)

Leaf tip burn and marginal scorch on young leaves

d)

Water-soaked lesions on stems

98.

Potassium-deficient corn is most likely to show which field problem during the growing season?

a)

Lodging late in the season due to poor stalk strength

b)

Purple coloring of upper leaves only

c)

Leaf tips sticking to the next lower leaf

d)

Blossom end rot in fruits

99.

Magnesium deficiency first appears as which pattern on corn leaves?

a)

Uniform yellowing of the youngest leaves

b)

Yellow to white interveinal striping of the lower corn leaves

c)

Dark green banding along the margins of new leaves

d)

Brown necrosis at the very tips of new leaves only

100.

Which deficiency primarily shows symptoms in new leaves because the element is relatively immobile in plants?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Magnesium

101.

A plant exhibits interveinal chlorosis along the length of the upper leaves that become pale green to nearly white. Which nutrient is deficient?

a)

Iron

b)

Zinc

c)

Copper

d)

Boron

102.

Which symptom is most characteristic of manganese deficiency in plants?

a)

Olive green newly emerged leaves that may be slightly streaked

b)

Purpling of stems with necrotic spots

c)

Bronzing of leaves with iron plaques

d)

Water-soaked lesions on older leaves

103.

Sulfur deficiency is often confused with nitrogen deficiency. Which feature helps distinguish sulfur deficiency?

a)

Yellowing is more pronounced on younger upper leaves

b)

Yellowing appears first on the oldest lower leaves

c)

Leaves develop interveinal purple coloration

d)

Leaf margins curl downward while remaining dark green

104.

Which soil and pH conditions favor copper deficiency according to the material?

a)

Organic soils with high soil organic matter and high soil pH (above 7.5)

b)

Acid sandy soils with low organic matter and low pH

c)

Heavy clay soils with neutral pH

d)

Waterlogged soils with low redox potential

105.

A plant shows interveinal, light striping or a whitish band beginning at the base of the leaf and extending toward the tip, with the midrib and margins remaining green. Which nutrient is most likely deficient?

a)

Zinc

b)

Boron

c)

Sulfur

d)

Manganese

106.

Which symptom is commonly associated with boron deficiency?

a)

Leaves have small dead spots and are brittle

b)

Purple coloration on older leaves only

c)

Severe rolling of leaves with water-soaked lesions

d)

Shortened internodes with dark green leaves

107.

According to the fertilizer computation example, how many kg/ha of complete fertilizer (15-15-15) are needed to meet a 90-90-90 recommendation?

a)

600 kg/ha

b)

300 kg/ha

c)

900 kg/ha

d)

150 kg/ha

108.

Using the provided example, approximately how many 50-kg bags of complete fertilizer (15-15-15) are required to meet the 90-90-90 recommendation?

a)

12 bags

b)

9 bags

c)

6 bags

d)

3 bags

109.

For a fertilizer recommendation of 90-0-0, how many 50-kg bags of urea (46-0-0) are needed per hectare, based on the example?

a)

About 4 bags

b)

About 2 bags

c)

About 6 bags

d)

About 8 bags

110.

How many tons of chicken manure (3-2-2) are needed to supply the limiting nutrients for a 90-90-90 recommendation, according to the example?

a)

4.5 tons

b)

3.0 tons

c)

6.0 tons

d)

1.5 tons

111.

Which list shows the correct order of the six main hierarchical levels in the USDA Soil Taxonomy from highest to lowest?

a)

Order, Suborder, Great Group, Subgroup, Family, Series

b)

Series, Family, Subgroup, Great Group, Suborder, Order

c)

Order, Great Group, Suborder, Subgroup, Series, Family

d)

Family, Series, Subgroup, Suborder, Great Group, Order

112.

Which soil order is described as recently formed soils with little or no evidence of pedogenic horizon development?

a)

Inceptisols

b)

Entisols

c)

Alfisols

d)

Mollisols

113.

In the Philippines, which soil orders are explicitly noted as not found due to their defining conditions?

a)

Gelisols, Aridisols, Spodosols

b)

Ultisols, Oxisols, Histosols

c)

Alfisols, Andisols, Vertisols

d)

Mollisols, Inceptisols, Entisols

114.

Which characteristic best distinguishes Andisols from many other soil orders?

a)

Presence of permafrost

b)

High base saturation in B horizons

c)

Dominance of short-range-order compounds and high phosphorus-fixing capacity

d)

Very low organic carbon content

115.

A farmer in a dry region with limited water availability is most likely managing which soil order that forms in arid regions with limited change in parent material due to dryness?

a)

Aridisols

b)

Gelisols

c)

Spodosols

d)

Histosols

116.

Which soil order is commonly utilized for rice production due to shrinking and swelling dark clay soils dominated by montmorillonite?

a)

Vertisols

b)

Ultisols

c)

Oxisols

d)

Spodosols

117.

A soil is described as low-base status with finer-textured subsoils formed in acidic parent materials, commonly called “low activity clay,” and dominated by kaolinite. Which soil order fits this description?

a)

Mollisols

b)

Ultisols

c)

Alfisols

d)

Oxisols