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pt 3 patho

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

2.

Which statement is false concerning skeletal alterations caused by chronic renal failure when GFR declines to 25%?

a)

PTH is no longer effective in maintaining serum phosphate

b)

The parathyroid gland is no longer able to secrete sufficient PTH

c)

Synthesis of 1,25-vitamin D3 is impaired → ↓ calcium absorption

d)

Impaired vitamin D3 synthesis impairs Ca/PO4 resorption

3.

Anemia of chronic renal failure can be successfully treated with which element?

a)

Intrinsic factor

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Erythropoietin

4.

When the right kidney is obstructed, how will the glomeruli and tubules in the left kidney compensate?

a)

Increase in number

b)

Increase in size

c)

Develop collateral circulation

d)

Increase speed of production

5.

Which statements are true regarding renal colic?

a)

Results in mild-to-moderate pain

b)

Pain originates in the flank area

c)

Indicates the presence of renal stones

d)

Pain radiates to the groin

e)

Indicates obstruction of the renal pelvis or proximal ureter

6.

Which conditions related to the bladder would result from lesions of the sacral segments below S1?

a)

Frequency

b)

Urge incontinence

c)

Bladder distension

d)

Urgency

e)

Urinary retention

7.

What are considered risk factors for developing bladder and kidney cancers?

4 lines
8.

Which renal disorders are considered causes of intrarenal renal failure?

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Allograft rejection

c)

Tumors

d)

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

e)

Prostatic hypertrophy

9.

Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Bilateral ureteral obstruction

b)

Renal vasoconstriction

c)

Renal artery thrombosis

d)

Hemorrhage

e)

Hypotension

10.

The functional kidney is associated with which embryonic organ?

a)

Metanephros

b)

Mesonephros

c)

Pronephros

d)

Endonephros

11.

What term is used to identify the condition when the urethral meatus is on the undersurface of the penis?

a)

Hypospadias

b)

Epispadias

c)

Hyperspadias

d)

Chordee

12.

Which anomaly is often associated with Wilms tumor?

a)

Renal anaplasia

b)

Aniridia

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypothyroidism

13.

When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?

a)

At birth

b)

At 6 months of age

c)

At puberty

d)

Between 18 and 21 years

14.

Which of the following are risk factors for bladder cancer?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Exposure to aniline dyes

c)

Below normal body weight

d)

Male gender

15.

Which statements are true regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

a)

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia characterizes HUS.

b)

Thrombocytopenia is present.

c)

Wilms tumors trigger HUS.

d)

HUS is the most common community-acquired cause of acute renal failure in young children.

e)

HUS is chronic in nature.

16.

What problems are commonly associated with the diagnosis of horseshoe kidneys?

a)

Hydronephrosis

b)

Nephritis

c)

Infection

d)

Kidney stones

e)

Pyuria

17.

Which structure synthesizes clotting factors and the vitamin K–dependent factors necessary for hemostasis?

a)

Colon

b)

Spleen

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Liver

18.

CF directly causes complications in (select all):

a)

Muscles

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Cervix

e)

Liver

19.

Chronic anemia with chronic renal failure – what is needed?

a)

Iron

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Folate

20.

Kupffer cells are in the:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Spleen

21.

Langerhans cells are found in the:

(a)  

22.

Untreated pernicious anemia can be fatal because of:

a)

Brain hypoxia

b)

Liver hypoxia

c)

Heart failure

d)

Renal failure

23.

Vitamin ___ is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the ___.

a)

K; kidneys

b)

D; kidneys

c)

K; liver

d)

D; liver

24.

Cancers associated with chronic inflammation (select all):

a)

Brain

b)

Colon

c)

Bone

d)

Thyroid gland

e)

Urinary bladder

25.

What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

a)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Kaposi sarcoma

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

26.

Meningitis

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

27.

Encephalitis

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

28.

Cryptococcus neoformans

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

29.

Brain abscess

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

30.

Lyme disease

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

31.

Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical to best prevent:

a)

Infection

b)

Paralysis

c)

Mental retardation

d)

Additional nervous system damage

32.

Which body system is the largest site for HIV infection in infants and children?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Gastrointestinal system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Musculoskeletal system

33.

Benign febrile seizures are characterized by:

a)

A temperature lower than 39°C

b)

Respiratory or ear infections

34.

What is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Klebsiella

c)

Proteus

d)

Escherichia coli

35.

Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be demonstrated in an 85-year-old individual?

a)

Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort

b)

Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain

c)

Hematuria and flank pain

d)

Pyuria, urgency, and frequency

36.

Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Viruses

d)

Parasites

37.

Which statements are true concerning struvite stones? (Select all that apply.)

a)

They are more common in women than in men.

b)

They are caused by chronic laxative use.

c)

They grow large and branch into a staghorn configuration.

d)

They are associated with UTIs from urease-producing bacteria (e.g. Pseudomonas).

e)

They are more common in men.

38.

Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Haemophilus

39.

Which structural anomalies are associated with urinary tract malformations?

a)

Low-set ears

b)

Prune-belly syndrome

c)

Broad-bridged nose

d)

Imperforate anus

e)

Malformed lips

40.

What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora?

a)

Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids

b)

Breaking down proteins into amino acids

c)

Facilitating motility of the colon

d)

Metabolizing aldosterone and insulin

41.

Gastric emptying is delayed by the presence of which substances?

a)

Solids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nonisotonic solutions

d)

Bacteria

e)

Fats

42.

Why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender in infection?

a)

B lymphocytes proliferate

b)

Nodes are inflamed

c)

Nodes fill with pus

d)

Nodes aren’t working

43.

A Schilling test is:

a)

Radioactive cobalamin → measure urinary excretion

b)

Immune complex measurement

c)

Serum ferritin/TIBC

d)

Oral folate challenge

44.

What are common triggers for sickle cell crisis?

a)

Fever

b)

Infection

c)

Dehydration

d)

Alkalosis

e)

Exposure to the cold

45.

Urinary Bence-Jones protein is associated with which condition?

a)

hepatic, germ cells → AFP

b)

retinoblastomas

c)

GI, pancreas → CEA

d)

Wilms tumor

e)

multiple myeloma

46.

Chemo skin-related risk:

(a)  

47.

Most common causes of nosocomial infections in cancer pts (select all):

a)

Indwelling medical devices

b)

Suppressed immune system

c)

Visitor-introduced microorganisms

d)

Poor appetite

e)

Inadequate wound care

48.

In the mouth and stomach, salivary α-amylase initiates the digestion of which nutrients?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Fiber

49.

Which elements in saliva protect against tooth decay?

a)

Salivary α-amylase and ptyalin

b)

Secretin and IgA

c)

Endogenous enamelin and salivary α-amylase

d)

Exogenous fluoride and a pH of 7.4

50.

Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

51.

Food enters the stomach via which sphincter?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Upper esophageal

c)

Gastric

d)

Fundal

52.

Which cells in the stomach secrete histamine?

a)

Oxynic

b)

Chief

c)

D

d)

Enterochromaffin-like

53.

The presence of chyme in the duodenum stimulates which hormones?

a)

Motilin and histamine

b)

Secretin and cholecystokinin

c)

Enteroglucagon and gastric inhibitory peptide

d)

Somatostatin and acetylcholine

54.

Which enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Pepsin

c)

Gastrin

d)

Secretin

55.

Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach?

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Aspirin

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Regurgitated bile

56.

The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of peritoneum that contain an extensive vascular and nervous network. What are these folds called?

a)

Ligament of Treitz

b)

Mesentery

c)

Auerbach folds

d)

Lamina propria

57.

Where in the small intestines are lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages produced?

a)

Brush border

b)

Microvilli

c)

Lamina propria

d)

Crypts of Lieberkühn

58.

Which statement best describes the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

A muscular tube that transports food from mouth to stomach

b)

A hollow tube that extends from the mouth to the anus

c)

A baglike structure that propels chyme

d)

A 5-m structure with three segments

59.

Which statement is incorrect regarding vitamin B12?

a)

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum.

b)

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in its free form but only in small amounts.

c)

Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet maturation.

d)

Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor.

60.

Which vitamin facilitates the absorption of iron by the epithelial cells of the duodenum and jejunum?

a)

B6

b)

C

c)

E

d)

B12

61.

How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestine to be replaced?

a)

30–45

b)

15–25

c)

7–15

d)

4–7

62.

Which statement is true regarding the state of the intestinal tract at birth?

a)

Colonized by E. coli

b)

The intestinal tract is sterile.

c)

Clostridium welchii is present

d)

Streptococcus colonization has begun

63.

Which statements are true regarding the ileogastric reflex?

a)

Its purpose is to inhibit gastric motility.

b)

Ileum distension triggers it.

c)

It relaxes the ileocecal sphincter.

d)

Increased gastric secretion triggers it.

e)

It increases ileal motility.

64.

Which hormones are involved in the relaxation of the stomach’s fundus during swallowing?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Glucagon

c)

Motilin

d)

Gastrin

e)

Cholecystokinin

65.

What requirements are necessary for calcium to be absorbed through the ileum at concentrations <5 mmol/L?

a)

Receptor site on the ileum

b)

Vitamin D3

c)

Vitamin K

66.

The adult intestine processes approximately how many liters of luminal content per day?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

67.

A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following except the:

a)

Stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Esophagus

68.

After partial gastrectomy/pyloroplasty, hypotension, tachycardia, sweating, dizziness are due to:

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Postop hemorrhage

c)

Hyperglycemia → polyuria → shock

d)

Rapid gastric emptying → fluid shift into intestine (dumping)

69.

Colon stays in RUQ, rotation didn’t happen →

a)

Intestinal malrotation

b)

Ileocecal displacement

c)

Duodenal obstruction

d)

Pyloric stenosis

70.

Sticky meconium that blocks terminal ileum →

a)

Meconium cecum

b)

Meconium ileus

c)

Meconium obstruction

d)

Meconium vivax

71.

Telescoping of ileum into cecum → obstruction:

a)

Hirschsprung

b)

Malrotation

c)

Intussusception

d)

Volvulus

72.

Which statement about folic acid is false?

a)

Folic acid absorption is dependent on folacin

b)

Folic acid is stored in the liver

c)

Folic acid is essential for RNA/DNA synthesis

d)

Folic acid is absorbed in upper small intestine

73.

A carrier protein

a)

Carboxypeptidase

b)

A carrier protein

74.

Which statement supports benign polyps → colon cancer?

a)

Cancer cells accumulate slower

b)

An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required

c)

Tumor invasion progresses slowly

d)

Apoptosis is triggered

75.

Brachytherapy is used for:

a)

Lung

b)

Colon

c)

Cervical

d)

Brain

76.

What term is used to identify the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma?

a)

Tubular secretion

b)

Ultrafiltration

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Tubular excretion

77.

What is the end-product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?

a)

Glucose

b)

Ketones

c)

Bile

d)

Urea

78.

What is the action of urodilatin?

a)

Causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles

b)

Causes vasodilation of efferent arterioles

c)

Inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion

d)

Inhibits salt and water reabsorption

79.

In glomerulonephritis, what damages epithelial cells resulting in proteinuria?

a)

Ischemia

b)

Lysosomal enzymes

c)

Compression from edema

d)

Activated complement

e)

Altered membrane permeability

80.

Which gastric hormone inhibits acid and pepsinogen secretion and decreases the release of gastrin?

a)

Bombesin

b)

Histamine

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Acetylcholine

81.

Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?

a)

Sodium

b)

Phosphate

c)

Potassium

d)

Chloride

82.

The formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the by-products of lipid hydrolysis is accomplished by:

a)

Micelles

b)

Phospholipase

c)

Chylomicrons

d)

Colipase

83.

Which water-soluble vitamins are dependent on sodium for absorption?

a)

Pantothenic acid

b)

Vitamin B1

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin B12

e)

Folic acid

84.

SBO at the pylorus or high small bowel causes metabolic alkalosis because of:

a)

Gain of pancreatic bicarbonate

b)

Excessive loss of H+ from gastric juice

c)

Loss of K+

d)

Loss of bile acids

85.

What is a cause of chronic antral gastritis?

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Autoantibodies to H+/K+ ATPase

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Bile reflux

86.

Primary cause of peptic ulcers?

a)

Hypersecretion of acid

b)

Hyposecretion of pepsin

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Escherichia coli

87.

Which statement is false re: alcoholic cirrhosis?

a)

Inflammation/damage begin in bile canaliculi.

b)

Alcohol → acetaldehyde → fibrosis

c)

Mitochondria impaired → ↓ FA oxidation

d)

Acetaldehyde inhibits protein export

88.

Which statement is false re: acute pancreatitis?

a)

Duct obstruction → backup → enzyme activation

b)

Can result from drugs/viral injury

c)

It’s an autoimmune IgG coating acinar cells

d)

Usually mild, self-limited

89.

Med that compensates for CF digestive deficit:

a)

Salt tabs

b)

Pancreatic enzymes

c)

Antihypertensives

d)

Antibiotics

90.

Why CF → exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

a)

Pancreatic ducts obstructed with mucus

b)

Ischemia

c)

Pancreas can’t make enzymes

d)

Volvulus

91.

Why fatty maldigestion in CF?

a)

Bile ducts blocked

b)

Fail to metabolize fat-soluble vits

c)

Deficiency of pancreatic enzymes

d)

Jejunal fat malabsorption

92.

Why infant with celiac bruises/bleeds?

a)

Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption

b)

Marrow depression

c)

Anemia

d)

On warfarin

93.

Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron in children?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

94.

the tonic neck reflux observed in a newborn should be no longer be obtainable by

a)

2 years

b)

1 year

c)

10 months

d)

5 moths

95.

What are tumor cell markers?

a)

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells

b)

Receptor sites on tumor cells

c)

Cytokines against cancer cells

d)

ID marks for radiation therapy

96.

Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headaches?

a)

Preheadache aura

b)

Severe unilateral tearing

c)

Gradual onset of a tight band around the head

d)

Significant unilateral, temporal pain

e)

Pain lasting from 30 to 120 minutes

97.

Which statement is false about abdominal pain production?

a)

Chemical mediators (histamine, bradykinin, serotonin) can cause pain.

b)

Edema and vascular congestion cause stretching → pain.

c)

Ischemia from obstruction or thrombosis causes pain.

d)

Low concentrations of anaerobes produce abdominal pain.

98.

How can visceral abdominal pain best be described?

a)

Diffuse, vague, poorly localized, dull

b)

Travels from a specific organ to spinal cord

c)

Lateralizes to one side

d)

Associated with peristalsis only

99.

Cardinal symptoms of small intestinal obstruction:

a)

Constant dull pain relieved by defecation

b)

Acute intermittent pain 30–120 min after eating

c)

Colicky pain from distention, followed by vomiting

d)

Excruciating hypogastric ischemic pain

100.

Which statement is false about duodenal ulcers?

a)

Bleeding → hematemesis or melena

b)

Gastric emptying is slowed

c)

Pain 30 min–2 h after eating

d)

More common than other PUD

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