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Chapter 12 — The Respiratory System

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary job of the respiratory system?

a)

A) Oxygen in - carbon dioxide out

b)

B) Oxygen out - carbon dioxide in

c)

C) Oxygen in - nitrogen out

d)

D) Carbon dioxide in - oxygen out

2.

One inhalation + one exhalation = _________.

a)

one respiration

b)

one inspiration

c)

one expiration

d)

one ventilation

3.

Any problem that blocks either inhalation or exhalation is:

a)

Not serious

b)

Life-threatening

c)

Easily treatable

d)

Unrelated to breathing

4.

Assessment begins the moment you see the patient. What should you start evaluating as soon as they walk in?

a)

Breathing, color, posture, and ability to talk

b)

Heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Temperature and weight

d)

Vision and hearing

5.

Which of the following is NOT a component of respiratory assessment?

a)

A) Inspection

b)

B) Palpation

c)

C) Auscultation

d)

D) Medication administration

6.

During inspection in respiratory assessment, what should you look for?

a)

Breathing pattern, skin color, and respiratory effort

b)

Heart rhythm and pulse

c)

Blood sugar levels

d)

Temperature

7.

During palpation in respiratory assessment, what should you feel for?

a)

Tracheal position, subcutaneous air (crepitus), and chest expansion

b)

Pulse rate and blood pressure

c)

Skin temperature and moisture

d)

Muscle strength

8.

What instrument is used during auscultation in respiratory assessment?

a)

Stethoscope

b)

Thermometer

c)

Sphygmomanometer

d)

Otoscope

9.

What does the prefix 'Rhino-' mean?

a)

A) Nose

b)

B) Voice box

c)

C) Windpipe

d)

D) Air passageways

10.

Fill in the blank: Rhinitis is __________ of the nose.

a)

inflammation

b)

infection

c)

fracture

d)

swelling

11.

What does the prefix 'Laryngo-' refer to?

a)

A) Nose

b)

B) Voice box

c)

C) Windpipe

d)

D) Breathing

12.

Fill in the blank: Laryngectomy is the __________ of the larynx.

a)

removal

b)

infection

c)

expansion

d)

injury

13.

What does 'Tracheo-' mean?

a)

Windpipe

b)

Air passageways

c)

Nose

d)

Surgical reconstruction

14.

Fill in the blank: Tracheostomy is a surgical opening into the __________.

a)

trachea

b)

esophagus

c)

larynx

d)

bronchi

15.

What does the prefix 'Broncho-' refer to?

a)

Nose

b)

Air passageways/lungs

c)

Breathing

d)

Difficulty breathing

16.

Fill in the blank: Bronchitis is inflammation of the __________.

a)

bronchi

b)

alveoli

c)

trachea

d)

larynx

17.

What does the suffix '-pnea' mean?

a)

A) Difficulty breathing

b)

B) Breathing

c)

C) Coughing up blood

d)

D) Nose job

18.

Fill in the blank: Tachypnea means __________ breathing.

a)

fast

b)

slow

c)

shallow

d)

irregular

19.

What does the suffix '-dyspnea' mean?

a)

A) Difficulty breathing

b)

B) Surgical reconstruction

c)

C) Nose

d)

D) Air passageways

20.

What is hemoptysis?

a)

Coughing/spitting up blood

b)

Surgical reconstruction

c)

Nose job

d)

Fast breathing

21.

What does the suffix '-plasty' mean?

a)

Surgical reconstruction

b)

Nose job

c)

Breathing

d)

Windpipe

22.

Fill in the blank: Rhinoplasty is a __________ job.

a)

nose

b)

ear

c)

eye

d)

throat

23.

Which structures are included in the upper respiratory system?

a)

Mouth, nose, nasal cavity, pharynx (throat), larynx (voice box)

b)

Lungs, bronchi, trachea

c)

Heart, veins, arteries

d)

Stomach, intestines

24.

The main function of the upper respiratory system is:

a)

to filter, warm, and humidify incoming air

b)

to pump blood throughout the body

c)

to digest food and absorb nutrients

d)

to produce hormones for body regulation

25.

Obstruction in the upper respiratory system can cause:

a)

Difficulty in breathing

b)

Improved oxygen intake

c)

Faster heart rate

d)

Enhanced lung capacity

26.

What is the main function of the epiglottis?

a)

A) Speech production

b)

B) Protect airway during swallowing

c)

C) Pull air from upper tract

d)

D) Cause tongue swelling

27.

If the epiglottis fails, what risk does it pose?

a)

Speech loss

b)

Aspiration risk

c)

Tonsillitis

d)

Anaphylaxis

28.

Where is the epiglottis located?

a)

At the entrance to the larynx

b)

In the bronchioles

c)

In the alveoli

d)

In the trachea

29.

The larynx is responsible for ________ production.

a)

speech

b)

digestion

c)

hearing

d)

vision

30.

True or False: The larynx protects the lower respiratory tract from aspiration.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

If a patient is unconscious or under anesthesia, why is there a risk for aspiration?

a)

Speech production stops

b)

Cough/gag reflexes don’t work

c)

Airway is blocked by tonsils

d)

Trachea is swollen

32.

Never lay an intoxicated or unconscious patient flat on their back—if they vomit, they’ll ________.

a)

aspirate

b)

suffocate

c)

recover

d)

cough

33.

Which of the following can block the airway?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Tonsillitis / “kissing tonsils”

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Bronchioles

34.

Which drugs may cause tongue swelling and a medical emergency?

a)

ACE inhibitors (-pril drugs)

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Steroids

d)

Bronchodilators

35.

Anaphylaxis (seafood, etc.) can cause itchy throat/tongue swelling leading to airway obstruction. This is considered a(n) ________.

a)

emergency

b)

routine checkup

c)

minor inconvenience

d)

scheduled procedure

36.

The lower respiratory system includes which of the following structures?

a)

Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli (lungs)

b)

Epiglottis, Larynx, Tonsils, Trachea

c)

Alveoli, Tonsils, Larynx, Bronchi

d)

Bronchioles, Epiglottis, Trachea, Alveoli

37.

The main function of the lower respiratory system is to ________ air from the upper tract.

a)

pull

b)

push

c)

filter

d)

block

38.

What is the primary function of alveoli?

a)

Absorb CO₂ and release O₂

b)

Absorb O₂ and release CO₂

c)

Filter blood

d)

Store air

39.

What is the normal O₂ saturation percentage?

a)

80-90%

b)

95-100%

c)

70-85%

d)

60-75%

40.

Normal respiratory rate is ______ breaths/min.

a)

12-20 breaths/min.

b)

8-15 breaths/min.

c)

20-30 breaths/min.

d)

25-35 breaths/min.

41.

Barrel chest is seen in late-stage COPD.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Clubbing of fingers/toes is due to chronic low oxygen levels over years.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What does COPD stand for?

a)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

b)

Chronic Obstructive Peripheral Disease

c)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Dysfunction

d)

Chronic Obstructive Pressure Disorder

44.

Which of the following is a major type of COPD?

a)

Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Tuberculosis

45.

The primary cause of COPD is _______.

a)

Smoking

b)

Air pollution

c)

Genetic factors

d)

Lack of exercise

e)

Cold weather

46.

Obstructive means something blocks the airway (like a clogged straw).

a)

True

b)

False

47.

COPD leads to air trapping and CO₂ retention.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom listed for lung conditions?

a)

Clubbing

b)

Wheezing

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Barrel chest

e)

Fever

49.

What is the recommended oxygen therapy for patients according to the worksheet?

a)

Use HIGH flow only (95-100% SaO2)

b)

Use LOW flow only (88-92% SaO2)

c)

Use room air only

d)

Use 100% O2 at all times

50.

Fill in the blank: Too much O2 retains _____ and can be fatal.

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

N2

d)

O3

51.

Normal Lung Sounds: Which type is described as 'Low-medium pitch, soft “mushy,” inspiration > expiration (2-3× longer)'?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Bronchovesicular

c)

Bronchial

52.

Normal Lung Sounds: Which type has a high pitch, loud/harsh, longer expiration?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Bronchovesicular

c)

Bronchial

53.

Abnormal Lung Sounds: Which sound is described as 'Small clicking/popping/bubbling' and is commonly caused by pneumonia or CHF?

a)

Rales (Crackles)

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Stridor

54.

Abnormal Lung Sounds: Which sound is described as 'Low snoring/gurgling' and is commonly caused by bronchitis or COPD mucus?

a)

Rales (Crackles)

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Stridor

55.

Abnormal Lung Sounds: Which sound is described as 'Harsh high-pitched sound on inspiration (upper airway)' and is an emergency – upper airway problem?

a)

Rales (Crackles)

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Stridor

56.

Identify the abnormal lung sound described by the following instructor note:

"Sounds like snoring – air through mucus."

a)

Stridor

b)

Rales (Crackles)

c)

Rhonchi

d)

Wheezing

e)

Pleural friction rub

57.

What is the characteristic sound of wheezing?

a)

Musical / whistling high pitch

b)

Low pitch

c)

No sound

d)

Crackling

58.

Wheezing is commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Asthma (bronchospasm)

b)

Heart failure

c)

Pneumonia

d)

COPD

59.

If wheezing stops, it means there is no air movement and the patient may crash.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Cheyne-Stokes is an ______ pattern.

a)

end-of-life

b)

respiratory

c)

cardiac

d)

digestive

61.

What is the usual outcome when a patient exhibits the 'death rattle' associated with Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

a)

Recovery

b)

Death within 24 hours

c)

Hospitalization

d)

No change

62.

Which of the following is a cause of respiratory disorders?

a)

Trauma

b)

Perfusion issues

c)

Cardiac conditions

d)

All of the above

63.

Fill in the blank: Trauma causing respiratory disorders is often due to injury to the ______.

a)

chest

b)

abdomen

c)

leg

d)

arm

64.

What is the main issue in perfusion-related respiratory disorders?

a)

Inadequate blood flow to tissues

b)

Excess oxygen delivery

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Fluid retention

65.

Pulmonary Embolism (PE) is caused by a clot in the lungs. What is the usual origin of the clot?

a)

Heart

b)

Leg (DVT)

c)

Brain

d)

Liver

66.

Which medication is first-line treatment for Pulmonary Embolism (PE) in the hospital?

a)

Warfarin (PO)

b)

Heparin IV

c)

Lovenox (SQ)

d)

Aspirin

67.

Fill in the blank: Lovenox (SQ) is a ______-molecular-weight heparin used as bridge therapy for PE.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

medium

d)

ultra

68.

Which lab tests are used to monitor therapy for PE?

a)

PT, aPTT, INR

b)

CBC, BMP

c)

LFT, TFT

d)

ESR, CRP

69.

Pulse oximetry is used to continuously monitor which parameter?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

Heart rate

d)

Temperature

70.

D-Dimer is a lab test used to rule out which conditions?

a)

Diabetes

b)

DVT / PE

c)

Asthma

d)

Pneumonia

71.

Sputum analysis differentiates between ______ and viral infections.

a)

bacterial

b)

fungal

c)

parasitic

d)

allergic

72.

ABG (arterial blood gas) checks the levels of which gases?

a)

O2 / CO2

b)

N2 / H2

c)

O3 / CO

d)

CH4 / O2

73.

What condition is associated with thick, tenacious, ropy sputum?

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Pulmonary infection

d)

Dehydration

74.

Scant, rust-colored sputum is most commonly seen in which condition?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Strep pneumonia (bacterial)

c)

Asthma

d)

Tuberculosis

75.

Frothy, pink or blood-tinged sputum is an emergency and is seen in _________.

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Bronchial asthma

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Tuberculosis

76.

Yellow/green, foul odor sputum is indicative of which condition?

a)

Asthma

b)

Pulmonary infection

c)

Dehydration

d)

Chronic bronchitis

77.

Bloody or streaked sputum is called hemoptysis and is seen in _________.

a)

Tuberculosis (TB) / Lung CA

b)

Asthma

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pneumonia

78.

Scant mucus is most commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Asthma

b)

Dehydration

c)

Pulmonary infection

d)

Chronic bronchitis

79.

Very thick, viscous sputum is a sign of _________?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Allergy

c)

Asthma

d)

Tuberculosis

80.

Which of the following is NOT an altered breathing pattern listed under Airway Management?

a)

Dyspnea (SOB)

b)

Tachypnea > 20/min

c)

Use of accessory muscles

d)

Productive cough

81.

Cyanosis refers to:

a)

Blue lips/fingertips

b)

Use of accessory muscles

c)

Early hypoxia

d)

Late sign of fatigue

82.

Restlessness/agitation is an early sign of _________

a)

early hypoxia

b)

late hyperglycemia

c)

acute dehydration

d)

chronic anemia

83.

Fatigue/exhaustion is a late sign and may indicate possible _________

a)

intubation

b)

dehydration

c)

infection

d)

allergy

84.

What is the orthopneic position?

a)

Lying flat on the back

b)

Sitting up, leaning forward on pillows or bedside table

c)

Lying on the side

d)

Standing upright

85.

What is the main benefit of the orthopneic position?

a)

Reduces airway resistance

b)

Opens airways, reduces work of breathing

c)

Increases mucus production

d)

Causes fatigue

86.

What is the first line of defense against common respiratory infections?

a)

HAND HYGIENE!

b)

Wearing sunglasses

c)

Taking vitamin supplements

d)

Using air fresheners

87.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention strategy for respiratory infections?

a)

Avoid crowds

b)

Encourage smoking cessation

c)

Maintain hydration and nutrition

d)

Ignore hand hygiene

88.

Influenza (flu) vaccine should be given:

a)

Yearly

b)

Every 5 years

c)

Only after age 50

d)

Never

89.

Who should NOT receive the influenza (flu) vaccine?

a)

People with egg allergy

b)

Selected older adults

c)

High-risk adults

d)

Children

90.

Pneumococcal (pneumonia) vaccine protects against:

a)

Viral pneumonia

b)

Bacterial pneumonia

c)

COVID-19

d)

RSV

91.

At what age is the pneumococcal (pneumonia) vaccine recommended?

a)

Age ≥ 50 / high-risk

b)

Age ≥ 18

c)

Age ≥ 65 only

d)

Age ≥ 30

92.

COVID-19 vaccine is recommended by:

a)

WHO

b)

CDC

c)

Provider

d)

Nurse

93.

What is the main purpose of the COVID-19 vaccine?

a)

Prevents respiratory complications.

b)

Improves eyesight.

c)

Increases muscle strength.

d)

Reduces hair loss.

94.

What is the first step in Smoking Cessation Education (Ask-Assess-Assist-Arrange)?

a)

Advise to quit

b)

Ask about tobacco use

c)

Assess readiness

d)

Arrange follow-up

95.

Which step involves educating on health benefits in Smoking Cessation Education?

a)

Advise to quit — educate on health benefits.

b)

Assess readiness to quit.

c)

Arrange follow-up support.

d)

Assist with coping strategies.

96.

What is the nursing intervention for maintaining a patent airway in respiratory patients?

a)

Maintain patent airway (head of bed ↑, suction PRN).

b)

Administer pain medication only.

c)

Restrict fluid intake completely.

d)

Encourage bed rest without monitoring.

97.

What should a nurse monitor to assess breathing in respiratory patients?

a)

Monitor O₂ sat + resp rate.

b)

Monitor blood pressure only.

c)

Monitor heart rate only.

d)

Monitor temperature only.

98.

What is the nursing intervention for circulation in respiratory patients?

a)

Monitor color, cap refill, vitals.

b)

Administer pain medication only.

c)

Encourage high-calorie diet.

d)

Limit fluid intake excessively.

99.

What nutritional advice should be given to respiratory patients?

a)

Encourage small frequent meals – breathing takes energy.

b)

Advise fasting to reduce energy expenditure.

c)

Recommend high-sugar snacks between meals.

d)

Suggest skipping breakfast to conserve energy.

100.

What are the infection prevention interventions for respiratory patients?

a)

Oral care daily, hand hygiene, vaccines.

b)

Skipping oral care, avoiding hand hygiene, no vaccines.

c)

Only using antibiotics, no hygiene measures, no vaccines.

d)

Daily exercise, no oral care, no hand hygiene.

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