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Fundamentals of Agronomy – Worksheet MCQs

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term 'Agriculture' is derived from which two Latin words?

a)

Agros and Nomos

b)

Ars and Scientia

c)

Ager or Agri and Cultura

d)

Ager and Nomos

2.

Agronomy is defined as a branch of agricultural science that deals with the principles and practices of field crop production and what other key element?

a)

Plant breeding and genetics

b)

Horticulture and forestry management

c)

Management of soil for higher productivity

d)

Livestock rearing and fisheries

3.

When agriculture is viewed as a business, its primary aim is:

a)

Consumption of rural population production

b)

Utilizing all scientific technologies

c)

Performing farm operations in a skillful manner

d)

Maximum net return through the management of land, labour, water, and capital

4.

Agronomy occupies a pivotal position and is regarded as the mother branch or primary branch of agriculture, having three clear branches: Crop Science, Soil Science, and:

a)

Plant Pathology

b)

Agricultural Economics

c)

Environmental Science

d)

Agricultural Engineering

5.

What is the fundamental difference between a seed and a grain, according to the source?

a)

A grain is planted to grow plants, while a seed is harvested for food.

b)

A seed provides food from the fruit part, while a grain provides food from the embryo part.

c)

A seed is an ovule containing an embryo, while a grain is a fusion of the seed coat and the fruit.

d)

Seeds are always treated chemically, while grains are not.

6.

Which classification of seed is the progeny of nucleus seed and is produced by the originating or a sponsored breeder?

a)

Certified Seed

b)

Foundation Seed

c)

Breeder Seed

d)

Nucleus Seed

7.

Which method of sowing is characterized by the scattering or spreading of seeds on the soil, making it easy, quick, and cheap, though sometimes resulting in uneven distribution?

a)

Dibbling

b)

Drilling

c)

Transplanting

d)

Broad casting

8.

Which method of sowing involves placing seeds in a hole made at a predetermined spacing and depth, which is laborious and expensive but uses less seed?

a)

Broadcasting

b)

Drilling

c)

Dibbling

d)

Planting

9.

What is the approximate optimum depth of sowing range mentioned in the source?

a)

5–10 cm

b)

1–2 cm

c)

2.5–3 cm

d)

4–6 cm

10.

Dry sowing or pre-monsoon sowing is taken up how long before the anticipated receipt of sowing rains?

a)

1–3 days

b)

4–6 days

c)

7–10 days

d)

15–20 days

11.

Who is considered the Father of tillage, having suggested that thorough ploughing is necessary to make the soil into fine particles?

a)

Henry Darcy

b)

Arnon and Stout

c)

Jethro Tull

d)

Hans Molisch

12.

The physical condition of the soil resulting from tillage, described as loose, friable, airy, powdery, granular, and crumbly, is known as:

a)

Tilting

b)

Tilth

c)

Cultivation

d)

Agronomy

13.

For irrigated agriculture, what is the desirable size range (in diameter) for a higher percentage of soil aggregates?

a)

1–2 mm

b)

2–4 mm

c)

Above 5 mm

d)

Below 1 mm

14.

What is the deepest operation normally performed during the period between two crops, done to cut and invert the soil?

a)

Secondary tillage

b)

Inter tillage

c)

Primary tillage

d)

Seed bed preparation

15.

What type of tillage is carried out immediately after the harvest of a crop to clear off weeds and crop residues and restore soil structure?

a)

Summer tillage

b)

Fallow tillage

c)

Stubble or Post harvest tillage

d)

Winter tillage

16.

The special tillage operation done to cut open/break the subsoil hard pan using a sub soil plough/chisel plough, without inverting the soil, is called:

a)

Levelling by tillage

b)

Wet tillage

c)

Subsoil tillage (sub soiling)

d)

Clean tillage

17.

What is an extreme form of minimum tillage where primary tillage is completely avoided and secondary tillage is restricted to seedbed preparation in the row zone only?

a)

Stubble Mulch Tillage

b)

Row zone tillage

c)

Zero Tillage/No Tillage/Chemical Tillage

d)

Conventional Tillage

18.

Zero tillage is also referred to as chemical tillage because weeds are controlled using:

a)

Insecticides

b)

Fungicides

c)

Fertilizers

d)

Herbicides

19.

In which planting arrangement are plants restricted in their growth habit in order to switch over from the vegetative to the productive phase, often facilitating intercropping?

a)

Square planting

b)

Triangular planting

c)

Skip row planting

d)

Rectangular planting

20.

Which crop geometry is generally preferred for perennial vegetations like trees/shrubs?

a)

Rectangular planting

b)

Paired row planting

c)

Square planting

d)

Skip row planting

21.

What is the practice called when the inter row spacing is reduced between two rows and the spacing between two such pairs are increased, generally done to introduce an inter crop?

a)

Triangular planting

b)

Skip row planting

c)

Paired row planting

d)

Random planting

22.

What are the three essential criteria for a mineral element to be considered essential, as revised by Arnon (1954)?

a)

It must be abundant, naturally occurring, and non-toxic.

b)

It must be easily manufactured, cheap, and soluble.

c)

It is directly involved in plant metabolic function; plants are unable to complete their lifecycle if absent; and deficiency can only be corrected by supplying that element.

d)

It must be a macronutrient, primary nutrient, and mobile within the plant.

23.

Which elements are considered the structural or basic nutrients, constituting 96% of the total dry matter of the plant?

a)

Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

b)

Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur

c)

Zinc, Iron, Copper

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen

24.

Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K) are collectively categorized as:

a)

Secondary elements

b)

Micronutrients

c)

Primary elements

d)

Basic nutrients

25.

Which beneficial element is essential for the growth of symbiotic microorganisms such as Rhizobia?

a)

Silicon (Si)

b)

Sodium (Na)

c)

Aluminium (Al)

d)

Cobalt (Co)

26.

Deficiency symptoms of highly mobile nutrients, such as N, P, and K, typically appear first on which part of the plant?

a)

New leaves or growth tips

b)

Stem

c)

Flowers or fruit

d)

Older leaves or plant parts

27.

Which essential nutrient has a central role in energy transfer and protein metabolism and is most readily available between a pH of 6 and 7.5?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Phosphorus

28.

In well-decomposed Farmyard Manure (FYM), what is the approximate percentage content of N, P2O5, and K2O, respectively?

a)

3% N, 1% P2O5, 2% K2O

b)

10–12% N, 1–2% P2O5, 1.0% K2O

c)

0.5% N, 0.2% P2O5, and 0.5% K2O

d)

7.3% N, 1.5% P2O5, 1.3% K2O

29.

What is the typical percentage of nitrogen (N) content in Poultry Manure?

a)

0.5%

b)

1.4%

c)

3.03%

d)

7.9%

30.

In green manuring, what is the optimum stage for turning the crop into the soil to ensure maximum green matter production and succulence?

a)

Initial seedling stage

b)

Maturity stage

c)

At the flowering stage or just before the flowering

d)

After seed setting

31.

If 100 kg of Ammonium Sulphate is applied, how much CaCO3 is required for its neutralization (Equivalent Acidity)?

a)

80 kg

b)

93 kg

c)

110 kg

d)

128 kg

32.

The phosphatic fertilizer known as Single Superphosphate (SSP) contains how much P2O5?

a)

32% P2O5

b)

46–48% P2O5

c)

20% P2O5

d)

16% P2O5

33.

Under flooded or submerged conditions in rice fields, the use efficiency of nitrogenous fertilizers is approximately:

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

28–34%

d)

10%

34.

Which natural source of water, other than precipitation, helps in reducing evaporation and transpiration, making crop growth possible even with scanty rainfall (e.g., in North Bihar)?

a)

Ground water

b)

Flood water

c)

Dew, fog, cloud, and atmospheric humidity

d)

Melting snow

35.

The upward movement of water above the water table due to capillary movement is greater in which type of soil?

a)

Coarser soil like sandy soils

b)

Heavy soils with macro pores

c)

Finer soils like silt or clay

d)

Compacted soils

36.

Water accounts for what percentage of the body weight of an actively growing young plant?

a)

20 to 50 percent

b)

50 to 75 percent

c)

75 to 80 percent

d)

85 to 90 percent

37.

Which state in India is noted as having the highest gross irrigated area?

a)

Punjab

b)

Haryana

c)

Rajasthan

d)

Uttar Pradesh

38.

The largest source of irrigation water in India is accounted for by:

a)

Canals (26%)

b)

Other sources (9%)

c)

Tanks (3%)

d)

Tube wells and other wells (62%)

39.

Canals constructed by putting some form of barrage across the river and flowing throughout the year are known as:

a)

Inundation canals

b)

Lateral supply channels

c)

Distributaries

d)

Perennial canals

40.

What is the term used to describe the free water that moves downwards under the force of gravity and is generally not available to plants?

a)

Capillary water

b)

Hygroscopic water

c)

Gravitational water

d)

Available water

41.

At what soil water tension (in atmospheres) is hygroscopic water held tenaciously, making it non-liquid and immobile, and thus unavailable to plants?

a)

0.1 to 0.33 atm

b)

1/3 to 15 atm

c)

31 atmospheres

d)

10,000 atmospheres

42.

Field capacity denotes the water content retained by an initially saturated soil against the force of gravity, and the commonly accepted soil water tension value for field capacity is:

a)

0.1 atm

b)

1.0 atm

c)

0.33 atm

d)

15 atm

43.

Which plant is often used as an indicator plant in determining the Permanent Wilting Point?

a)

Maize

b)

Rice

c)

Sunflower

d)

Cotton

44.

A soil water tension of 1000 cm of water is equal to a pF value of:

a)

1.0

b)

2.52

c)

3.0

d)

4.2

45.

The total soil water potential is the sum of which three potentials?

a)

Kinetic, Thermal, and Osmotic

b)

Gravitational, Adsorptive, and Capillary

c)

Gravitational potential, Pressure or matric potential, and Osmotic potential

d)

Volume, Mass, and Surface Tension

46.

What is the phenomenon where the soil moisture content at a given suction is greater in desorption (drying) than in sorption (wetting)?

a)

Field Capacity

b)

Laminar flow

c)

Hydraulic Gradient

d)

Hysteresis

47.

In infiltration rate classification, very clay soils typically have a rate of:

a)

Rapid (more than 2.5 cm/h)

b)

Moderate (1.25 to 2.5 cm/h)

c)

Slow (0.25 cm to 1.25 cm/h)

d)

Very Slow (less than 0.25 cm/h)

48.

Plants that grow best in moist but aerated soils generally in semi-humid to semi-arid climates, and to which most crop plants belong, are called:

a)

Hydrophytes

b)

Halophytes

c)

Xerophytes

d)

Mesophytes

49.

What percentage of evapotranspiration losses does the water utilized by plants in their metabolic activities typically account for?

a)

5%

b)

10–15%

c)

About 1%

d)

About 50%

50.

The period during the growing season when the water use rates are highest (usually 6–10 days) is referred to as:

a)

Seasonal consumptive use

b)

Actual crop evapotranspiration

c)

Peak period consumptive use

d)

Reference crop evapotranspiration

51.

Reference crop evapotranspiration refers to the evapotranspiration rate from an extended surface of green grass cover of what approximate height?

a)

2–5 cm

b)

8–15 cm

c)

20–30 cm

d)

40–50 cm

52.

The total quantity of water required to mature an adequately irrigated crop, including losses and special needs, is called:

a)

Consumptive Use (CU)

b)

Effective Precipitation (EP)

c)

Irrigation Requirement (IR)

d)

Water Requirement (WR)

53.

What is the approximate water requirement (in mm) for Puddled Rice?

a)

350–400 mm

b)

1100–1200 mm

c)

1800–2000 mm

d)

500–600 mm

54.

The ratio of the economic crop yield to the amount of water required for crop growing ( Y/WRY/WR ) is defined as:

a)

Crop water use efficiency ( ECUE_{CU} )

b)

Project Efficiency ( EpE_{p} )

c)

Water Distribution Efficiency ( EdE_{d} )

d)

Field water use efficiency ( EfuE_{fu} )

55.

In arid and semi-arid regions, what percentage of the average seasonal rainfall is typically assumed to be effective precipitation?

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

90%

56.

Irrigation scheduling decisions are primarily focused on maximizing crop production per unit of applied water when water is expensive, or maximizing crop production per unit of planted area when:

a)

Capital is scarce

b)

Labor is expensive

c)

Good land is scarcer than water

d)

Soil moisture storage is low

57.

According to the feel and appearance method for determining soil moisture content, what is the description for a fine textured soil (clay loamy and silty clay loamy) at Field Capacity (100%)?

a)

Tends to form a ball under pressure but seldom holds together

b)

Forms a weak ball, breaks easily, don’t stick

c)

Tends to stick together slightly, sometimes forms a very weak ball under pressure

d)

Easily ribbons out between fingers, has slick feeling

58.

Which tool is used to measure available water in soils in terms of corresponding range of soil water potential or soil water tension, and is most useful for orchards and vegetable crops on coarse textured soils?

a)

Lysimeter

b)

Gravimetric sampler

c)

Tensiometers/Irrometers

d)

Electrical resistance blocks

59.

The approach to irrigation scheduling suggested by Prihar et al (1974) that uses Pan Evaporation ( EpanE_{pan} ) in a ratio is known as the:

a)

PET measurement approach

b)

Visual plant symptoms approach

c)

IW/CPE approach

d)

Stress Degree Day Index

60.

Which growth stage is the most critical for water demand in wheat?

a)

Tillering

b)

Jointing

c)

Flowering

d)

Crown root initiation

61.

Which type of surface irrigation method involves dividing the field into long parallel strips using small earthen bunds or levees?

a)

Check basin method

b)

Furrow irrigation

c)

Border strip method

d)

Wild flooding

62.

The Basin method of irrigation, often adopted for soil submergence, is commonly used for which crop, with an optimum size of 0.25–0.40 ha for efficient water management?

a)

Sugarcane

b)

Cotton

c)

Low land rice

d)

Vegetable crops

63.

Which specialized irrigation method involves applying water intermittently in a series of short on and off time periods during the irrigation cycle?

a)

Corrugation irrigation

b)

Ring basin

c)

Surge irrigation

d)

Subsurface irrigation

64.

Sprinkler irrigation is highly suitable for which type of soil due to its high infiltration rate?

a)

Clayey soil

b)

Loamy soil

c)

Silty clay soil

d)

Sandy soil

65.

In drip irrigation, the components that control the water drops and the quantity of water delivered at the crop root zone are called:

a)

Laterals

b)

Risers

c)

Emitters or drippers

d)

Main lines

66.

The harmful effects of saline water on crops increase with an increase in:

a)

Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR)

b)

Boron concentration

c)

Residual Sodium Carbonate (RSC)

d)

Total salt concentration

67.

As per USDA classification, water with an Electrical Conductivity ( ECwEC_{w} ) between 0.75 and 2.25 mhos/cm is classified into which salinity class?

a)

C1 – Low

b)

C2 – Medium

c)

C3 – Medium to high

d)

C4 – High

68.

The Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) indicates the relative proportion of sodium to other cations and is used to determine which hazard?

a)

Salinity hazard

b)

Boron toxicity hazard

c)

Sodium or alkali hazard

d)

Magnesium deficiency hazard

69.

Water with a Residual Sodium Carbonate (RSC) value greater than 2.5 meq/L is considered:

a)

Safe for use

b)

Marginally suitable for irrigation

c)

Not suitable for irrigation

d)

Suitable only for tolerant crops

70.

What is the fraction of total crop water requirement that must be leached down below the crop root zone depth to control salts within the crop tolerance level?

a)

Gross Irrigation Requirement (GIR)

b)

Net Irrigation Requirement (NIR)

c)

Water Use Efficiency (WUE)

d)

Leaching Requirement (LR)

71.

In terms of yield losses due to weeds in India, they are generally reported to be:

a)

Less than those from pests and diseases

b)

More than those from pests and diseases

c)

Negligible

d)

Equal to those from pests

72.

Which harmful characteristic of weeds is noted for reducing the quality of sugarcane juice?

a)

Wild rice (Oryza longistaminata)

b)

Itch grass (Rottboelliaco chinchinensis)

c)

Cyperus rotundus

d)

Sida

73.

Weeds that live only for a season or a year and complete their life cycle in that time are classified as:

a)

Biennials

b)

Perennials

c)

Annual Weeds

d)

Aquatic weeds

74.

A parasitic weed that is only partially parasitic, possessing its own chlorophyll and photosynthetic ability (green colour), is known as:

a)

Holo parasite

b)

Obligate parasite

c)

Total parasite

d)

Hemi parasite (Semi parasite)

75.

The relationship between two plants (weed/crop, crop/crop, weed/weed) in which the supply of a growth factor falls below their combined demand is known as:

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Competition (allelosopy)

d)

Predation

76.

The minimum period of time during which a crop must be free of weeds to prevent yield loss is defined as the:

a)

Post-emergence period

b)

Critical moisture period

c)

Critical Period of Weed competition/interference

d)

Allelopathic period

77.

Which process involves the release of chemicals or exudates by living and decaying plant species that interfere with the germination, growth, or development of another plant species sharing the same habitat?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Amensalism (Allelopathy)

78.

Which method of weed control involves actions that seek to restrict the spread of weeds and destroy or reduce their population in a given location?

a)

Weed eradication

b)

Weed prevention

c)

Weed control

d)

Integrated weed management

79.

The Stale Seed Bed technique for managing Phalaris minor resistance involves allowing flushes of weeds to sprout, followed by killing them using which type of herbicide?

a)

Selective, Pre-emergence

b)

Selective, Post-emergence

c)

Non-selective

d)

Amide-based

80.

A herbicide that kills weeds in a germinating or growing crop without harming the crop beyond the point of recovery is defined as:

a)

Non-selective herbicide

b)

Contact herbicide

c)

Systemic herbicide

d)

Selective herbicide

81.

Which type of herbicide kills only the plant parts covered by the herbicide, has little or no translocation, and is directly toxic to living cells?

a)

Systemic herbicides

b)

Soil Sterilants

c)

Contact herbicides

d)

Non-selective herbicides (unless specified as contact)

82.

Herbicides like Trifluralin and EPTC, which are applied to the soil before the crop is sown and mixed into the soil to prevent loss, are classified by timing of application as:

a)

Pre-Emergence

b)

Post-Emergence

c)

Pre-Plant Soil Incorporated

d)

Soil Sterilants

83.

Which class of herbicides blocks the normal function of the Acetolactate Synthase (ALS) enzyme, essential for amino acid synthesis, causing plants to starve to death?

a)

Inhibitors of acetyl CoA carboxylase (ACCase)

b)

Synthetic auxins

c)

ALS/AHAS inhibitors

d)

Microtubule assembly inhibitors

84.

The mechanism of action for herbicides like 2,4-D and Dicamba (Phenoxy and Benzoic acids) involves:

a)

Inhibiting lipid synthesis

b)

Inhibiting amino-acid synthesis

c)

Inhibiting cell division in roots

d)

Disrupting plant cell growth in newly forming stems and leaves (Synthetic auxins)

85.

Which chemical family is Glyphosate classified under, based on its mechanism of action (Inhibitors of EPSP synthesis)?

a)

Phenoxy acids

b)

Triazines

c)

None (as listed in the table)

d)

Dinitroanilines

86.

What is the primary mechanism of selectivity for all pre-emergence herbicides?

a)

Differential translocation

b)

Differential metabolism (e.g., conjugation)

c)

Depth protection (Weed seeds are shallow, crop seeds are deep)

d)

Difference in leaf morphology

87.

The selectivity of Atrazine in sorghum is due to the conjugation of Atrazine in the sorghum leaf by which enzyme?

a)

Aryl-acyl amidase

b)

P-450 monooxygenase

c)

Benzoxazinone

d)

Glutathione-S-Transferase (GST)

88.

Allelopathy refers to the beneficial or harmful effects of one plant on another from the release of biochemicals, which are a subset of secondary metabolites known as:

a)

Phytotoxins

b)

Hormones

c)

Allelochemicals

d)

Auxins

89.

The term 'allelopathy' was first used in 1937 by which Austrian scientist?

a)

Henry Darcy

b)

JethroTull

c)

Hans Molisch

d)

Donald

90.

What are the two types of allelopathy?

a)

Positive and Negative

b)

Interspecific and Intraspecific

c)

True and Functional

d)

Active and Passive

91.

What effect does low fertility typically have on allelopathic effects?

a)

Decreases allelopathic effects due to reduced growth.

b)

Has no effect.

c)

Increases allelopathic effects due to more production of allelochemicals.

d)

Increases susceptibility to all weeds.

92.

What is the process defined as the irreversible, quantitative increase in size, mass, and/or volume of a plant or its parts, which occurs with an expenditure of metabolic energy?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Development

c)

Plant growth

d)

Cell enlargement

93.

The environmental factors influencing plant growth are divided into two main groups: biotic factors (living) and abiotic factors (non-living or dead), which include topography and:

a)

Genetic factors

b)

Soil

c)

Differentiation

d)

Cellular composition

94.

What climatic factor primarily influences all plant growth processes, including photosynthesis, respiration, and translocation, and generally allows plants to survive within a range of 0 to 50°C?

a)

Light

b)

Relative humidity

c)

Air

d)

Temperature

95.

The parameter that indicates the rate of growth per unit dry matter, similar to compound interest, is known as:

a)

Crop growth rate (CGR)

b)

Net Assimilation rate (NAR)

c)

Leaf Area Index (LAI)

d)

Relative growth rate (RGR)

96.

Who coined the term 'ideotype' in 1968 while working on wheat?

a)

Jennings

b)

Asana

c)

Mock and Pearce

d)

Donald

97.

One of the main features proposed by Donald for the wheat ideotype was 'Erect leaves.' What was the physiological rationale for this?

a)

To reduce water loss due to transpiration.

b)

To increase lodging resistance.

c)

To increase the production of grains per ear.

d)

To provide better arrangement for proper light distribution resulting in high photosynthesis.

98.

In rice breeding, the concept of plant type was introduced by Jennings (1964), suggesting that an ideal plant type consists of semi dwarf stature, high tillering capacity, and:

a)

Few small leaves

b)

Larger ear

c)

Short, erect, thick and highly angled leaves

d)

Low tillers

99.

For Upland Cotton Ideotype, Singh et al. (1974) proposed a short duration of approximately:

a)

90-120 days

b)

150-165 days

c)

180-200 days

d)

210-240 days

100.

The order in which crops are cultivated on a piece of land over a fixed period, with the objective of maximizing profit without impairing soil fertility, is defined as:

a)

Cropping pattern

b)

Cropping system

c)

Crop Rotation

d)

Monoculture

101.

A key principle of crop rotation states that crops with tap roots should be followed by crops that have which type of root system?

a)

Deep tap root system

b)

Fibrous root system

c)

Shallow tap root system

d)

None, as root type does not matter

102.

An ideal crop rotation aims to reduce the risk of financial loss and pest/disease damage through:

a)

Intensive tillage

b)

Uniform use of fertilizers

c)

Continuous monoculture

d)

Diversification of crops

103.

The ratio of the economic yield to the total biological yield, expressed as a percentage, is known as the:

a)

Yield Index

b)

Harvest Index (H.I.)

c)

Production Efficiency (PE)

d)

Agronomic Efficiency (AE)

104.

Which symptom indicates physiological maturity in Maize and Sorghum?

a)

Loss of the green colour from leaves

b)

Appearance of bleached peduncle

c)

Complete loss of green colour from the glumes

d)

Black layer in the placental region of grain

105.

What moisture content in the grain is specified as the criteria for harvesting Wheat?

a)

34%

b)

30%

c)

20%

d)

About 15%