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Final Review Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with 64% BSA burn develops SIRS. What coagulopathic disease process is at risk for?

a)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

b)

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

c)

Hemophilia A

d)

Vitamin K deficiency

2.

A patient with CKD stage 1 is scheduled for Cardiac Catheterization for Angina. What intervention is renal protective with preserved renal function despite CKD?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion

b)

High-dose loop diuretics

c)

Protein restriction before the procedure

d)

Stop all IV fluids 8 hours prior

3.

A patient with an Ejection Fraction of 10% is suspected to have what type of heart failure?

a)

Left-sided heart failure

b)

Right-sided heart failure

c)

High-output heart failure

d)

Diastolic dysfunction without failure

4.

You are caring for a patient who just survived a chemical burn, what is the priority nursing action?

a)

Monitor airway

b)

Apply cold compresses

c)

Initiate IV antibiotics

d)

Measure urine output

5.

What is the term for chest pain that is resolved with rest?

a)

Unstable angina

b)

Stable angina

c)

Variant (Prinzmetal) angina

d)

Non-cardiac chest pain

6.

The nurse is taking care of a patient with CVP monitoring and noticing the values increasing. What may this indicate?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Cardiac tamponade exclusively

d)

Equipment malfunction only

7.

What is the terminology for increased pulmonary congestion after a patient loses their atrial kick due to Atrial Fibrillation with RVR?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Pulmonary embolism

8.

The nurse notes that a patient is scheduled for a Brain Natriuretic Peptide level to be drawn. What patient teaching should the nurse prepare?

a)

It helps diagnose heart failure

b)

It confirms myocardial infarction only

c)

It measures kidney filtration rate

d)

It is used to stage hypertension exclusively

9.

A patient with CHF develops Atrial Fibrillation. What medication does the nurse anticipate giving to prevent complications?

a)

Anticoagulant (Coumadin)

b)

Calcium channel blocker only

c)

High-dose aspirin alone

d)

Nitrates as monotherapy

10.

What is the purpose of ROM in a burn patient?

a)

Prevention of contraction

b)

Increase wound exudate

c)

Reduce systemic inflammation

d)

Decrease caloric needs

11.

A patient in the emergency phase of burn—expect which electrolyte to shift?

a)

Potassium (hyperkalemia)

b)

Calcium (hypercalcemia)

c)

Sodium (hyponatremia)

d)

Magnesium (hypomagnesemia)

12.

A burn survivor receives a skin graft. What non-pharmacological interventions promote the integrity of the surgical site?

a)

Turning patient every 2 hours

b)

Encourage frequent ambulation on the graft

c)

Apply ice directly to the graft

d)

Remove dressings every hour

13.

A patient with a history of DM11 (Diabetes Metellus) is scheduled for a Cardiac Catheterization for Angina. What would contraindicate this study?

a)

Metformin within 48 hours of the procedure

b)

Use of insulin glargine nightly

c)

Fasting for 8 hours

d)

Presence of a peripheral IV

14.

The patient with Mitral Stenosis exhibits new symptoms of Atrial Fibrillation. What interventions are anticipated prior to Electronic Cardioversion?

a)

Echocardiogram

b)

Immediate discharge

c)

Start high-dose NSAIDs

d)

Stop all cardiac monitoring

15.

What diagnostic testing is used for ACS?

a)

Troponin

b)

12-lead EKG

c)

Spirometry

d)

Stool occult blood

16.

A patient with an LAD partial occlusion will receive Tenecteplase; what is an absolute contraindication for this medication?

a)

BP greater than 180/100

b)

Intracranial bleeding

c)

Recent trauma/surgery

d)

Age under 40

17.

What medications are considered the first line agents for Heart Failure?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

ARBs

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Loop diuretics only

18.

A patient with Pulmonary hypertension is coughing up pink frothy sputum, what is the priority action?

a)

Suction

b)

Vital sign assessment

c)

Auscultate

d)

Encourage oral fluids

19.

The on-call provider orders an MRI stat on a patient being admitted for a Myocardial Infarction (MI) after his ICD shocked Ventricular Tachycardia. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

Clarify order, as the patient has a pacemaker which contradicts an MRI

b)

Immediately send the patient to MRI

c)

Remove the ICD at bedside

d)

Silence the ICD and proceed

20.

Which diagnostic test is used to determine integrity of a Coronary Artery?

a)

Cardiac catheterization

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Holter monitor

d)

Transthoracic echo only

21.

What is PH 7.50 | CO2 25 | HCO 23 | PaCO2 65?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

22.

What is PH 6.9 | CO2 80 | HCO 18 | PaCO2 65?

a)

Metabolic acidosis (uncompensated)

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Mixed alkalosis

d)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

23.

What patient teaching is important for Sickle Cell patients

a)

Hydration

b)

Strict bed rest only

c)

High-protein supplements exclusively

d)

Limit all physical activity

24.

What laboratory testing is used to determine the effectiveness of a PRBC infusion?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

C-reactive protein

25.

What are the three nutrients required for Red Blood Cell production?

a)

Iron

b)

Vitamin B-12

c)

Folic acid

d)

Vitamin C

26.

A patient with COVID-19 induced Pneumonia is at risk for what acid-based issue?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

27.

What is the maximum time that a blood product can dwell on an infusion?

a)

4 hours (MAX)

b)

1 hour

c)

8 hours

d)

24 hours

28.

A patient with Polycythemia Vera is diagnosed with which two laboratory exams?

a)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

b)

JAK 2 mutation

c)

Serum amylase

d)

Urine ketones

29.

A diagnosis with Respiratory Acidosis is experiencing renal compensation. What function does the kidney perform to assist in restoring acid-base balance?

a)

Returning bicarbonate to the body circulation

b)

Excreting bicarbonate exclusively

c)

Retaining hydrogen ions only

d)

Increasing potassium loss

30.

What Neurovascular assessment is a priority after diagnostic test for Leukemia?

a)

Puncture site

b)

Distal pulse

31.

A patient with Paralytic Ileus is anticipated to develop which acid-based issue?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

32.

A client presents with fatigue, peripheral edema, and jugular vein distention. The provider suspects valvular disease and orders an echocardiogram. Which echocardiogram finding supports this diagnosis?

a)

Narrowing of the tricuspid valve with restricted blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle, leading to right-sided pump failure

b)

Mitral valve regurgitation causing left atrial volume overload

c)

Aortic stenosis producing a systolic ejection murmur without right-sided findings

d)

Pulmonic valve insufficiency with free backflow into the right ventricle

33.

A patient receiving multiple blood products for disseminated intravascular coagulation develops ventricular tachycardia. The nurse is unsure whether a pulse is present. What is the priority intervention?

a)

Defibrillate

b)

Initiate CPR

c)

Administer epinephrine IV push

d)

Perform synchronized cardioversion

34.

A post‑operative mitral valve replacement patient who is a Jehovah’s Witness has hemoglobin 5.8 and cannot receive donated blood; no autologous blood was arranged. The blood pressure is 70/50. What is the alternative to treat the hypotension?

a)

Albumin infusion

b)

Normal saline bolus only

c)

Erythropoietin injection

d)

Iron sucrose infusion

35.

A 56‑year‑old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath odor, and severe dehydration. Arterial blood gas results: pH 7.18, CO2 20, HCO3 10, K+ 5.8, glucose 540. What is the correct interpretation of this ABG?

a)

Partially compensated metabolic acidosis

b)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

36.

A 42‑year‑old female with septic shock secondary to a ruptured appendix develops disseminated intravascular coagulation and receives fresh frozen plasma, packed red blood cells, and platelets. After 8 units over 6 hours, new neurological and neuromuscular changes are noted. What dysfunction is occurring?

a)

Hypocalcemia from citrate toxicity in large-volume transfusion

b)

Hyperkalemia from stored blood

c)

Hypomagnesemia from diuresis

d)

Hypercalcemia from bone resorption