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Livestock Diseases- Compiled Review for Test!

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is the 2014 avian influenza outbreak considered significant in U.S. history?

a)

It was the first recorded outbreak of avian influenza.

b)

It was the largest animal health emergency in U.S. history.

c)

It caused the extinction of a bird species.

d)

It had no significant impact on the economy.

2.

What critical lesson did the 2014 avian influenza outbreak demonstrate?

a)

The importance of bird migration patterns.

b)

The critical importance of disease management in livestock.

c)

The need for more bird species in the U.S.

d)

The economic benefits of poultry farming.

3.

How do diseases impact livestock systems?

a)

They improve the economy

b)

They disrupt the entire system and economy

c)

They enhance cellular pathways

d)

They maintain internal balance

4.

Which of the following is a characteristic of viruses?

a)

Single-celled microorganisms

b)

Genetic code protected by protein coating

c)

Spore-producing organisms

d)

Organisms living at host's expense

5.

What type of pathogen is described as single-celled microorganisms?

a)

Viruses

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Parasites

6.

How do pathogens uniquely impact animal health?

a)

By producing spores in all cases

b)

By living independently of the host

c)

Each type affects the host in a distinct way

d)

By being visible threats to the host

7.

What is an example of a viral disease in livestock?

a)

Foot-and-Mouth Disease

b)

Bovine Viral Diarrhea

c)

Anthrax

d)

Tuberculosis

8.

How do fungi typically affect normal cell structures?

a)

By producing toxins

b)

By invading and damaging them

c)

By enhancing their function

d)

By creating protective barriers

9.

What is true about bacteria in general?

a)

All bacteria are harmful

b)

All bacteria are beneficial

c)

Some bacteria are harmful, while others are beneficial

d)

Bacteria only affect plants

10.

Which of the following is an animal factor that can influence disease predisposition?

a)

Prevention practices

b)

Temperature

c)

Nutrition

d)

Climate

11.

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary disease transmission methods?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Aerosol transmission

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Vector-borne transmission

12.

What is the importance of understanding disease transmission pathways?

a)

To improve agricultural practices

b)

To prevent the spread of diseases

c)

To enhance food production

d)

To study animal migration patterns

13.

Which transmission method involves the spread of disease through contaminated surfaces or objects?

a)

Fomite transmission

b)

Oral transmission

c)

Vector-borne transmission

d)

Aerosol transmission

14.

Which of the following is NOT a way direct contact transmission occurs?

a)

Blood

b)

Skin-to-skin contact

c)

Open wounds

d)

Contaminated soil

15.

How can the spread of diseases through direct contact transmission be reduced?

a)

Increasing animal contact

b)

Minimizing animal contact

c)

Using antibiotics

d)

Vaccinating all animals

16.

What is the primary way pathogens are spread through aerosol transmission?

a)

Through direct contact with infected individuals

b)

Through air droplets

c)

Through contaminated food

d)

Through waterborne particles

17.

What is an example of a disease spread through aerosol transmission?

a)

Porcine respiratory disease

b)

Malaria

c)

Cholera

d)

Lyme disease

18.

What are fomites in the context of disease transmission?

a)

Living organisms that spread pathogens

b)

Inanimate objects carrying pathogens

c)

Airborne particles causing infections

d)

Waterborne carriers of diseases

19.

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?

a)

Mosquito

b)

Needle

c)

Air droplet

d)

Contaminated water

20.

Which of the following is a recommended step in developing a disease prevention protocol?

a)

Avoid consulting veterinary professionals

b)

Source healthy animals

c)

Increase facility traffic

d)

Ignore sanitation practices

21.

What type of organisms are bacteria?

a)

Multi-celled organisms

b)

Single-celled organisms

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

22.

How do bacteria multiply?

a)

Only with a host

b)

By binary fission

c)

Through spores

d)

By budding

e)

Rapidly without a host

23.

How can bacterial diseases be transmitted?

a)

Only through direct contact

b)

Only through water

c)

In various ways

d)

Only through air

24.

Which of the following is a common symptom of bacterial diseases?

a)

Elevated vital signs

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Improved flexibility

d)

Clear skin

25.

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with bacterial diseases?

a)

Stiffness

b)

Swelling

c)

Runny nose

d)

Increased energy

26.

Which of the following is a common bacterial disease?

a)

Anthrax

b)

Malaria

c)

Influenza

d)

Measles

27.

What type of disease is anthrax?

a)

Viral

b)

Bacterial

c)

Fungal

d)

Parasitic

28.

What does it mean that anthrax is zoonotic?

a)

It affects only animals

b)

It can be transmitted from animals to humans

c)

It is a plant disease

d)

It is only found in zoos

29.

What is another name for Bovine Respiratory Disease?

a)

BRD

b)

BVD

c)

BSE

d)

BRSV

30.

What can Bovine Respiratory Disease lead to?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Heart disease

d)

Arthritis

31.

Which of the following is a symptom of Bovine Respiratory Disease?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Rapid, shallow breathing

c)

Weight gain

d)

Clear nasal discharge

32.

What type of animals are affected by Brucellosis?

a)

Cats and dogs

b)

Cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and horses

c)

Birds and reptiles

d)

Fish and amphibians

33.

What genus of bacteria causes Brucellosis?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Escherichia

c)

Brucella

d)

Streptococcus

34.

Which bacteria are responsible for causing Enterotoxemia?

a)

Clostridium perfringens (A, B, C, D, and E)

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Salmonella enterica

d)

Bacillus anthracis

35.

Under what condition does Enterotoxemia usually occur?

a)

When an animal consumes excessive amounts of high energy feeds or milk

b)

When an animal is exposed to cold weather

c)

When an animal is dehydrated

d)

When an animal is over-exercised

36.

What bacterial disease is caused by the bacterium Erysipelothrix rhusiophathiae and affects swine and sheep by being transmitted from animals ingesting the bacteria from contained feces in the soil?

a)

Entertoxemia

b)

Erysipelas

c)

Vibriosis

d)

Tuberculosis

37.

What bacterial disease is a contagious disease of sheet, goats, and cattle that s caused by numerous bacteria including Dichelobacter nodosus and Fuscobacterium necrophorum. Bacteria enters deeper tissue when injury or wet skin is present.

a)

Foot Rot

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Johnes Disease

d)

Brucellosis

38.

What bacteria disease is a wasting disease affecting all ruminants that is caused by organisms in the intentional cells and lymph nodes that causes progressive thickening of the intentional walls

a)

Foot Rot

b)

Brucellosis

c)

Johne's Disease

d)

Strangles

39.

What bacterial disease is a zoonotic disease caused by bacteria of the genus Leptospiria and had symptoms similar to kidney disease. Can damage the liver, kidneys, and other organs in the animal

a)

Leptospirosis

b)

Foot Rot

c)

Brocellosis

d)

Pink Eye

40.

What bacterial disease can affect any animals and is a disease of the lungs that is most commonly caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica and Steptococcus zooepidemicus. It is commonly associated with Bovine Respiratory Disease.

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Foot Rot

c)

Pink Eye

d)

Strangles

41.

What bacterial disease is an infection of the upper respiratory tract of horses and causes enlargement of the lymph nodes in the throat, impairing breathing that is highly contagious between horses?

a)

Bloat

b)

Strangles

c)

Pink Eye

d)

Pneumonia

42.

What is a disease that affects all livestock animals and is cattle is caused by Mycobacterium bovis which is also a zoonotic disease. Symptoms include depression, decreased appetite, pneumonia, and eventual death.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Vibriosos

c)

Pink Eye

d)

Brucellosis

43.

What disease is an infectious disease of the genital tract that is a venereal disease spread by infected bulls mating heifers and cows? Causes infertility and abortions

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Vibrosis

c)

Pink Eye

d)

Strangles

44.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a well-balanced diet for animals?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Fats

c)

Minerals

d)

Plastic

45.

Which of the following symptoms indicates a digestive issue related to nutritional diseases?

a)

Abnormal feces or urine

b)

Runny nose

c)

Elevated vital signs

d)

Lameness

46.

Which body system is primarily affected by most nutritional diseases?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Circulatory system

d)

Nervous system

47.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of digestive systems?

a)

Monogastric (simple)

b)

Ruminant (polygastric)

c)

Hindgut-fermenter

d)

Cardiovascular

48.

What are common nutritional diseases caused by?

a)

Consuming or absorbing the right amount of nutrients

b)

Not consuming/absorbing or overconsuming nutrients from the diet

c)

Eating a balanced diet

d)

Drinking sufficient water

49.

What is another term for common nutritional diseases?

a)

Overnutrition

b)

Malnutrition

c)

Nutritional balance

d)

Dietary excess

50.

Which of the following is a common nutritional disease?

a)

Bloat

b)

Flu

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

51.

What is the name of the nutritional disease caused by a lack of selenium or vitamin E?

a)

Grass tetany

b)

White muscle disease

c)

Colic

d)

Enterotoxemia

52.

Which of the following is NOT a common nutritional disease?

a)

Grass tetany

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Rickets

53.

What is bloat in ruminants?

a)

A condition caused by a lack of water in the diet

b)

Rapid fermentation producing excess gas or foam in the rumen

c)

A disease caused by bacterial infection in the stomach

d)

A result of insufficient grazing on legume pastures

54.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of bloat?

a)

Loss of appetite

b)

Respiratory distress

c)

Difficulty walking or moving

d)

Increased energy levels

55.

What is one of the treatments for bloat in animals?

a)

Keeping the animal lying down and still

b)

Drenching with mineral oil or poloxalene

c)

Feeding the animal large quantities of grain

d)

Avoiding the use of a stomach tube

56.

Which of the following is a method to prevent bloat in animals?

a)

Feeding animals an excess of lush greens

b)

Implementing a step-up/transition ration

c)

Overloading the rumen with large quantities of grain

d)

Avoiding the use of trochar and cannula

57.

What is the purpose of using a stomach tube in the treatment of bloat?

a)

To feed the animal additional nutrients

b)

To relieve pressure from gas in the rumen

c)

To administer medication directly to the stomach

d)

To prevent the animal from eating lush greens

58.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for bloat?

a)

Keeping the animal on feet and moving

b)

Using a trochar and cannula to puncture the rumen

c)

Feeding the animal large quantities of grain

d)

Drenching with mineral oil or poloxalene

59.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of colic in horses?

a)

Sudden changes in feed

b)

A predominantly concentrate diet

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Presence of bloodworms

60.

What is one of the conditions that can lead to colic in horses?

a)

Cribbing

b)

Overhydration

c)

Excessive grooming

d)

Lack of sunlight

61.

Which of the following is a preventive measure for colic in horses?

a)

Administering Banamine®

b)

Seeking a veterinarian's advice

c)

Feeding good quality roughages

d)

Using sedatives, laxatives, or pain medicine

62.

Why is it important to control internal parasites in horses?

a)

To prevent colic

b)

To improve their coat quality

c)

To increase their appetite

d)

To enhance their speed

63.

What disease is known as the "Over-eating" disease and occurs when an animal consumes excessive amounts of high energy feeds or milk. It is caused by toxins produced by naturally occurring bacteria.

a)

Colic

b)

Bloat

c)

Enterotoxemia

d)

Grass Tetany

e)

Milk Fever

64.

This disease is also called "Grass Staggers" or "Wheat Pasture Poisoning" and is a serious and often fatal metabolic disorder cause by low levels of magnesium in the blood

a)

Bloat

b)

Colic

c)

Enterotoxemia

d)

Grass Tetany

e)

Rickets

65.

What disease is also known as hypercalcemia which is a metabolic disorder that affects cattle, sheep, and goats. Often occurs when an animal has low blood calcium levels during lactation

a)

Colic

b)

Grass Tetany

c)

Milk Fever

d)

Rickets

e)

Bloat

66.

What disease presents itself with symptoms of muscle tremors, wobbly, inability to stand, low body temperature, and unconsciousness.

a)

Bloat

b)

Colic

c)

Milk Fever

d)

Grass Tetany

67.

What disease is typically seen in young livestock and affects growing animals which is caused by imbalances of dietary calcium, phosphorous and Vitamin D. Symptoms include bone pain, stiff gait, swelling, difficulty in rising and standing bowed limbs, and pathologic fractures?

a)

Bloat

b)

Grass Tetany

c)

Enterotoxemia

d)

Rickets

e)

Ruminitis

68.

What disease is known as "carbohydrate engorgement" or "lactic acidosis" that is caused by a sudden shift from a forage based diet to a high concentrate fat diet? Typically results from low rumen pH to an increase of propionic acid production?

a)

Rickets

b)

Bloat

c)

Grass Tetany

d)

White Muscle Disease

e)

Rumenitis

69.

What disease is a degenerative muscle disease found in large animals that can affect skeletal and cardiac muscles with symptoms that include difficulty breathing, frothy nasal discharge, fever, and elevated and irregular heart and respiratory rate when presented in the cardiac muscles?

a)

White Muscle Disease

b)

Bloat

c)

Enteritis

d)

Rumenitis

70.

What does "neurologic" refer to in the context of viral diseases?

a)

Relating to the liver

b)

Relating to the stomach

c)

Relating to the nervous system

d)

Relating to the lungs

71.

What is the first step in overcoming viral diseases according to the provided material?

a)

Taking antiviral medication directly.

b)

Staying hydrated, getting rest, avoiding stress, and maintaining proper nutrition.

c)

Vaccinating the infected animal immediately.

d)

Using antibiotics to treat the infection.

72.

What is the primary purpose of a vaccine?

a)

To stimulate the immune system to prevent disease

b)

To cure diseases after infection

c)

To provide nutrients to the body

d)

To increase stress on the herd

73.

Which of the following is NOT a best management practice (BMP) for maintaining the health of animals?

a)

Administering vaccines

b)

Quarantining new stock

c)

Decreasing stress on the herd

d)

Increasing stress on the herd

74.

What is African Swine Fever?

a)

A bacterial infection affecting humans.

b)

A highly contagious and deadly viral disease affecting domestic and feral pigs.

c)

A fungal disease affecting crops.

d)

A genetic disorder in swine.

75.

What should be done if African Swine Fever is suspected?

a)

Ignore it as it is not harmful.

b)

Report it immediately for appropriate testing and investigation.

c)

Treat the pigs with antibiotics.

d)

Relocate the pigs to another farm.

76.

As of 2021, has African Swine Fever been found in the United States?

a)

Yes, it has been found in multiple states.

b)

No, it has not been found in the United States.

c)

It was eradicated in the United States in 2020.

d)

It is only found in wild pigs in the United States.

77.

What would be the impact of an outbreak of African Swine Fever in the United States?

a)

It would have no significant impact.

b)

It would be detrimental to the swine industry.

c)

It would only affect wild pigs.

d)

It would lead to an increase in swine population.

78.

How is Bluetongue primarily transmitted?

a)

Through direct contact between animals

b)

By vectors such as insects and rodents

c)

Through contaminated water sources

d)

By consuming infected meat

79.

What organization must Bluetongue cases be reported to?

a)

World Health Organization (WHO)

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

c)

World Organization for Animal Health

d)

Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

80.

Which of the following is true about Bluetongue transmission?

a)

It can only be transmitted through direct contact.

b)

It may be transmitted to females from semen.

c)

It cannot be transmitted from placenta to fetus.

d)

It is only transmitted through water sources.

81.

What is Bovine Virus Diarrhea known for?

a)

It affects only young cattle and is mildly contagious.

b)

It is one of the largest causes of economic loss for cattle producers.

c)

It is a rare disease with no economic impact.

d)

It only spreads through direct contact with air.

82.

What is the difference between acute and chronic Bovine Virus Diarrhea?

a)

Acute illness is long-term and does not respond to treatment, while chronic illness is short-term and responds to treatment.

b)

Acute illness is short-term and responds to treatment, while chronic illness is persistent and long-term.

c)

Acute illness is persistent and long-term, while chronic illness is short-term and responds to treatment.

d)

Acute illness and chronic illness are both short-term and respond to treatment.

83.

How does Bovine Virus Diarrhea spread?

a)

Only through direct contact with air.

b)

Through direct or indirect contact with body fluids, fomites, or air.

c)

Only through fomites such as buckets and feeders.

d)

Through water contamination only.

84.

What are fomites in the context of Bovine Virus Diarrhea?

a)

Objects that are unlikely to carry infection.

b)

Objects that are likely to carry infection, such as buckets, feeders, or cattle trucks.

c)

Airborne particles that spread the disease.

d)

Fluids that spread the disease directly.

85.

What is one major impact of Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) on producers?

a)

It increases the lifespan of animals.

b)

It causes major economic losses.

c)

It improves animal health.

d)

It reduces the need for veterinary care.

86.

What is the total number of subtypes of Foot and Mouth Disease?

a)

30

b)

50

c)

60

d)

70

87.

What is another name for Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

a)

Blue tongue

b)

Red nose

c)

Black leg

d)

White snout

88.

Which of the following statements is true about Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

a)

It is caused by Bovine Influenza Virus.

b)

It is not contagious.

c)

Secretions of affected animals are highly infectious.

d)

It is also known as Blue tongue.

89.

What virus is found worldwide where swine are raised and is transmitted by direct contact and body secretions?

a)

Porcine Circovirus

b)

Foot and Mouth Disease

c)

Rabies

d)

Warts

90.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid

b)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

c)

Deoxyribose Nitrogen Acid

d)

Deoxyribonitrogen Acid

91.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four chemical bases found in DNA?

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Cytosine (C)

d)

Uracil (U)

92.

What structure do nucleotides form when attached in two long strands?

a)

Single helix

b)

Double helix

c)

Triple helix

d)

Circular strand

93.

What is one key function of DNA in the cell division process?

a)

Produces energy for the cell

b)

Replicates to aid in cell division

c)

Transports nutrients across the cell membrane

d)

Creates proteins for the cell

94.

Where are genes arranged?

a)

On proteins

b)

On chromosomes

c)

In the nucleus

d)

On RNA strands

95.

What causes genetic disorders?

a)

A change in a DNA sequence apart from a normal sequence

b)

A change in protein structure

c)

A lack of oxygen in cells

d)

A deficiency in vitamins

96.

What does a capitalized allele (e.g., A) represent in genetic predictions using Punnett Squares?

a)

A recessive allele

b)

A dominant allele

c)

A heterozygous trait

d)

A homozygous recessive trait

97.

The Punnett Square diagram shows allele combinations and probabilities. What does this diagram primarily illustrate?

a)

The possible genetic outcomes from a cross between two organisms

b)

The process of cell division

c)

The structure of DNA molecules

d)

The stages of photosynthesis

98.

What is cryptorchidism?

a)

The failure of one or both testicles to descend normally into the scrotum

b)

The enlargement of testicles due to genetic mutation

c)

The complete absence of testicles in an animal

d)

The presence of extra testicles in the scrotum

99.

What is the term used when both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum?

a)

Unilateral cryptorchid

b)

Bilateral cryptorchid

c)

Phenotypical cryptorchid

d)

Genetic cryptorchid

100.

What is another name for Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis?

a)

HYPP

b)

HPP

c)

HYPK

d)

HYPER

101.

What is a notable symptom of Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis?

a)

Loss of appetite

b)

Sporadic episodes of muscle tremors

c)

Difficulty breathing

d)

Excessive sweating

102.

What is the primary cause of hypotrichosis?

a)

Excessive hair follicle production

b)

Partial or complete absence of hair follicles

c)

Overexposure to sunlight

d)

Genetic mutations leading to excessive hair growth

103.

Which of the following is true about hypotrichosis?

a)

It is a lethal defect

b)

It is often congenital and non-lethal

c)

It is caused by excessive environmental stress

d)

It results in excessive hair growth

104.

What does the term "myopathy" refer to?

a)

A disorder of the skeletal muscles

b)

A disorder of the nervous system

c)

A disorder of the digestive system

d)

A disorder of the respiratory system

105.

Which parts of the lamb's body are affected by Spider Lamb Syndrome?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Front and rear legs, spine, and face

c)

Liver and kidneys

d)

Eyes and ears

106.

What is another name for syndactyly?

a)

Mule foot

b)

Split hoof

c)

Hoof fusion

d)

Congenital hoof

107.

What type of disease is syndactyly?

a)

Congenital disease

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Genetic disease

d)

Autoimmune disease

108.

What is the primary function of the nervous system?

a)

To regulate digestion

b)

To control and regulate all body systems

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To transport oxygen in the blood

109.

Which of the following actions is the nervous system responsible for?

a)

Learning, memory, movement, and all five senses

b)

Digestion and absorption of nutrients

c)

Circulation of blood

d)

Production of hormones

110.

What is the primary function of the brain in the Central Nervous System?

a)

To receive signals from the body’s nerves

b)

To control behavior and regulate physiological processes

c)

To transmit signals to the peripheral nervous system

d)

To process sensory information only

111.

What is the relationship between the Central Nervous System and the Peripheral Nervous System?

a)

The Central Nervous System sends signals to the Peripheral Nervous System only

b)

The Central Nervous System receives and processes signals from the Peripheral Nervous System

c)

The Peripheral Nervous System controls the Central Nervous System

d)

The Peripheral Nervous System is independent of the Central Nervous System

112.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Peripheral Nervous System?

a)

Somatic Nervous System (SNS)

b)

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

c)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

d)

Nerves branching throughout the body

113.

How does the Peripheral Nervous System interact with the Central Nervous System?

a)

By transmitting information to and from the CNS

b)

By controlling the CNS directly

c)

By storing information for the CNS

d)

By disconnecting the CNS from the rest of the body

114.

Which of the following activities is associated with the somatic nervous system?

a)

Walking

b)

Digesting food

c)

Breathing involuntarily

d)

Circulating blood

115.

What is the primary function of the somatic nervous system?

a)

Controlling the movement of the body by skeletal muscles

b)

Regulating involuntary actions like heartbeat

c)

Communicating with other cells via synapses

d)

Maintaining balance in the body

116.

Which of the following is NOT regulated by the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Breathing

b)

Heart rate

c)

Digestion

d)

Voluntary muscle movements

117.

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) within the autonomic nervous system?

a)

It promotes rest and digestion.

b)

It regulates voluntary muscle movements.

c)

It prepares the body for 'fight or flight' responses.

d)

It controls sensory input from the environment.

118.

What is another name for the Sympathetic Nervous System?

a)

Rest and digest division

b)

Fight or flight division

c)

Parasympathetic division

d)

Central nervous system

119.

What is the primary purpose of the "fight or flight" response?

a)

To prepare the body for rest

b)

To prepare the body for action

c)

To increase production of saliva

d)

To decrease muscle contraction

120.

What is one of the primary functions of the 'rest and digest' response?

a)

To prepare the body for physical activity

b)

To maintain and restore energy

c)

To increase stress levels

d)

To decrease saliva production

121.

Which of the following is a result of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

a)

Increase in heart rate

b)

Relaxation of muscles

c)

Decrease production of urine

d)

Dilation of pupils

122.

Which of the following statements about Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) is true?

a)

It is contagious

b)

It is caused by a virus

c)

It is a transmissible spongiform

d)

It is a respiratory disorder

123.

What is Exencephaly?

a)

A condition where the brain and meninges protrude through an opening in the skull

b)

A type of brain tumor

c)

A viral infection affecting the brain

d)

A genetic disorder causing limb deformities

124.

What are meninges?

a)

Membranes that envelop the brain and spinal cord

b)

A type of nerve cell

c)

A part of the digestive system

d)

A muscle group in the skull

125.

What is the primary goal of the National Scrapie Eradication Program?

a)

To monitor the health of livestock in general

b)

To eradicate scrapie through surveillance programs

c)

To promote animal welfare in slaughterhouses

d)

To certify all livestock as disease-free

126.

Which organization is responsible for enacting the National Scrapie Eradication Program?

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)