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Energy and ATP Mod 3

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cells use adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy currency. Based on the instructional text, which statement best explains how cells obtain the energy to make ATP?

a)

Energy is absorbed directly from sunlight by every cell to form ATP

b)

Energy is released by breaking the bonds in food molecules and is used to make ATP

c)

Energy comes from spontaneous generation of ATP without inputs

d)

Energy is taken only from oxygen gas during breathing to synthesize ATP

2.

Which description correctly distinguishes ATP from ADP in terms of cellular energy status?

a)

ATP is the drained battery, ADP is the charged battery

b)

Both ATP and ADP are charged batteries with equal energy

c)

ATP is the charged battery, ADP is the drained battery

d)

ADP carries more energy than ATP because it has fewer phosphates

3.

Select all statements that accurately describe ATP’s role in cells.

a)

ATP supplies energy to cells where it is needed

b)

ATP is made using energy released from food

c)

ATP is a structural component of cell membranes

d)

ATP molecules are like batteries for cells

4.

Match each term to its description of energy state.

a)

ATP

1.

Charged battery that can supply energy

b)

ADP

2.

Drained battery with less available energy

c)

Food bond energy

3.

Source of energy released when bonds are broken

5.

According to the diagram showing ATP and ADP cycling, what change accompanies the conversion of ATP to ADP during cellular work?

a)

Energy is stored and the battery becomes more charged

b)

Energy is released to power processes, reducing ATP to ADP

c)

No energy change occurs; ATP and ADP interconvert without consequences

d)

Energy is absorbed from the environment to convert ATP into ADP

6.

Which statement best defines metabolism in living organisms?

a)

The mechanical movement of muscles during locomotion

b)

The biochemical reactions within a living organism that maintain life

c)

The electrical signaling between neurons in the nervous system

d)

The passive diffusion of gases across respiratory membranes

7.

Identify the correct description of a catabolic reaction.

a)

Formation of complex macromolecules from simple subunits, consuming energy

b)

Equilibrium processes that neither consume nor release energy

c)

Breakdown of larger molecules into smaller subunits with the release of energy

d)

Transfer of electrons without any change in molecular size

8.

Select all statements that accurately describe anabolic reactions.

a)

They synthesize larger molecules from smaller building blocks.

b)

They require an input of energy to proceed.

c)

They release heat by breaking down macromolecules.

d)

They are the only reactions occurring in metabolism.

9.

Match each pathway type to its primary outcome.

a)

Catabolic pathways

1.

Release energy by breaking down molecules

b)

Anabolic pathways

2.

Build macromolecules from cellular building blocks using energy

c)

Coupled reactions

3.

Link energy release to energy-requiring synthesis

10.

Based on the diagram of pathways within a cell, which statement explains why catabolic and anabolic reactions are described as coupled?

a)

Energy released from catabolic pathways drives anabolic synthesis within the same cellular context.

b)

Coupling refers to reactions occurring simultaneously without energy transfer.

c)

Catabolic reactions only occur inside mitochondria, while anabolic reactions occur in the nucleus.

d)

Coupling means catabolic reactions stop when anabolic reactions start.

11.

Define metabolic rate in one sentence and choose the best option that matches this definition: "the amount of energy (calories) spent in a certain time."

a)

Energy stored in fat over a lifetime

b)

Energy used by the body per unit time

c)

Number of calories in a meal

d)

Heat produced during exercise only

12.

Which statement best distinguishes Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) from Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)?

a)

BMR includes energy for digestion, whereas RMR excludes it.

b)

BMR is measured during fasting and reflects basal life-sustaining functions; RMR includes energy burned while resting all day, including digestion.

c)

BMR is higher than RMR in all individuals.

d)

BMR is only affected by physical activity level, whereas RMR is only affected by age.

13.

Multi-select: Which factors are explicitly part of the Harris–Benedict BMR formula? Select all that apply.

a)

Weight (in lbs)

b)

Height (in inches)

c)

Age

d)

Daily physical activity level

14.

According to the instructional text, what does a higher BMR imply for daily energy needs?

a)

You need fewer calories per day because your body is more efficient.

b)

You need more calories per day because your body expends more energy at rest.

c)

Caloric needs remain unchanged; BMR does not affect them.

d)

You should avoid eating breakfast to lower BMR.

15.

Match each term to its description.

a)

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

1.

Calories burned during fasting while performing basic life-sustaining functions

b)

Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)

2.

Calories burned if you stayed in bed all day, including digestion

c)

Metabolic rate

3.

Amount of energy (calories) spent in a certain time

16.

Which statement about individual variation in metabolic rates is supported by the material?

a)

Metabolic rates are nearly identical across healthy adults.

b)

Metabolic rates can vary greatly between individuals due to genetics and hormones.

c)

Variation in metabolic rates occurs only with changes in physical activity.

d)

Metabolic rate variation is too small to affect daily caloric needs.

17.

The Harris–Benedict equations differ for men and women. Which option correctly reflects this difference as described?

a)

Men’s equation uses a larger constant and smaller coefficients for weight and height than women’s.

b)

Women’s equation uses a larger constant and smaller coefficients for weight and height than men’s.

c)

Both equations use the same constants and coefficients but different units.

d)

Only the men’s equation includes age.

18.

Which of the following is NOT included in the general BMR formula according to the material?

a)

Sex

b)

Age

c)

Height

d)

Genetics and hormones

19.

Which statement best defines digestion as introduced in this section?

a)

Conversion of nutrients directly into blood or lymph without breakdown

b)

Mechanical and chemical breakdown of large food molecules into smaller subunits

c)

Elimination of undigested waste through the anus

d)

Selective absorption of vitamins by intestinal cells

20.

According to the overview, where does the process of digestion primarily occur?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Digestive system (gastrointestinal tract)

d)

Urinary system

21.
Question Image

Which organs are correctly matched to the function described in the summary diagram?

a)

Stomach

1.

Mixes and churns food with gastric juice to create chyme

b)

Pancreas

2.

Releases bicarbonate and enzymes that digest macromolecules

c)

Gallbladder

3.

Stores bile and releases it into the small intestine when needed

d)

Small intestine

4.

Digests food and absorbs nutrients into blood or lymph

22.

Which processes are part of digestion, as defined in the Functions list? Select all that apply.

a)

Chewing to mechanically break down food

b)

Secretion of enzymes or acid for chemical breakdown

c)

Transport of absorbed nutrients into blood or lymph

d)

Elimination of non-absorbed waste

23.

Absorption in the digestive system is best described as which of the following?

a)

Uptake of basic building blocks through cells lining the GI tract into blood or lymph

b)

Release of bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid

c)

Physical churning of food with gastric juice to form chyme

d)

Removal of undigested material from the body

24.

Which statement accurately differentiates excretion from elimination of microbes in the digestive system?

a)

Excretion involves microbial killing; elimination of microbes removes non-absorbed waste

b)

Excretion is removal of non-absorbed waste; elimination of microbes protects GI tract cells with immune help

c)

Both refer to absorption of nutrients into blood or lymph

d)

Elimination of microbes is purely mechanical with no immune involvement

25.

Which sequence correctly orders the fate of food molecules from ingestion to availability for cells, based on this section?

a)

Absorption → Digestion → Excretion → Elimination of microbes

b)

Digestion → Absorption → Excretion

c)

Excretion → Absorption → Digestion

d)

Elimination of microbes → Excretion → Digestion

26.

Mechanical digestion involves physical processes that break food down without changing its chemical composition. Which process best exemplifies mechanical digestion in the stomach?

a)

Pepsin hydrolyzing protein into peptides

b)

Peristaltic contractions mixing and grinding chyme

c)

Lipase cleaving triglycerides into fatty acids

d)

Lactase splitting lactose into glucose and galactose

27.

Peristalsis is described as rhythmic squeezing that moves food through the GI tract. Which statement most accurately characterizes peristalsis?

a)

Voluntary waves of contraction initiated by skeletal muscle

b)

Segmental contractions that only occur in the mouth

c)

Involuntary, coordinated smooth muscle contractions that propel contents forward

d)

A chemical process that digests macromolecules into monomers

28.

Identify the stage of mechanical processing depicted when stomach contents are driven toward the pylorus and then forced back for further mixing. Refer to the diagram.

a)

Propulsion

b)

Grinding

c)

Retropulsion

d)

Segmentation

29.

Which combination correctly pairs a digestive enzyme with its primary substrate?

a)

Amylase — lipids

b)

Lipase — starch

c)

Pepsin — proteins

d)

Sucrase — lactose

30.

Select all enzyme–substrate pairings that are accurate according to the material.

a)

Amylase — starch (carbohydrate)

b)

Lipase — lipids (fats)

c)

Lactase — sucrose (table sugar)

d)

Peptidase/protease — peptides (proteins)

31.

Enzymes in chemical digestion are proteins that speed up reactions. Which feature explains their role in digestion?

a)

They raise activation energy, slowing reaction rates

b)

They function as biological catalysts to accelerate hydrolysis

c)

They are carbohydrates that neutralize stomach acid

d)

They mechanically grind food via peristaltic motion

32.

Match each enzyme to the nutrient it primarily acts upon.

a)

Amylase

1.

Starch (carbohydrate)

b)

Lipase

2.

Lipids (fats)

c)

Sucrase

3.

Sucrose (table sugar)

d)

Lactase

4.

Lactose (milk sugar)

33.

In the stomach, pepsin works in gastric juice to convert proteins into peptides. Which option best completes the statement: "Pepsin acts on _____ to produce _____"?

a)

Starch; maltose

b)

Proteins; peptides

c)

Lipids; glycerol

d)

Sucrose; glucose and fructose

34.

Refer to the labeled digestive tract diagram. Which sequence lists only major parts of the gastrointestinal tract in the correct oral-to-anal order?

a)

Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → rectum → anus

b)

Mouth → pharynx → trachea → stomach → large intestine → rectum → anus

c)

Mouth → esophagus → pancreas → small intestine → liver → rectum → anus

d)

Mouth → stomach → esophagus → small intestine → large intestine → anus → rectum

35.

Which structure is NOT part of the gastrointestinal tract itself but is shown nearby in the diagram as a region food passes through from the mouth?

a)

Pharynx (throat)

b)

Stomach

c)

Rectum

d)

Anus

36.

According to the text, where are fats broken down into their components for absorption?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

37.

Match each accessory organ with its primary contribution to digestion.

a)

Salivary glands

1.

Lubrication and secretion of amylase and lipase

b)

Liver

2.

Secretes bile; purifies blood from small intestine

c)

Gallbladder

3.

Stores bile

d)

Pancreas

4.

Secretes digestive enzymes including peptidase

38.

Which statement best explains why accessory organs are essential for chemical breakdown of food molecules?

a)

They move food along the GI tract by peristalsis.

b)

They produce acid like hydrochloric acid and enzymes that act in the GI lumen.

c)

They physically grind food to form a bolus.

d)

They absorb all nutrients before food reaches the intestines.

39.

Which pairing between organ and secretion/function is correct?

a)

Stomach—releases bile to emulsify fats

b)

Liver—stores bile for later release

c)

Pancreas—provides digestive enzymes such as peptidase

d)

Salivary glands—purify blood coming from the small intestine

40.

Food moves from the mouth to the anus primarily due to which process, and how is premature backflow prevented?

a)

Diffusion; mucus membranes

b)

Active transport; villi

c)

Peristalsis; sphincters

d)

Filtration; lymphatic valves

41.

In the esophageal peristalsis diagrams, what coordinated muscle actions push the bolus toward the stomach?

a)

Muscles relax behind the bolus and contract ahead of it

b)

Muscles contract behind the bolus and relax ahead of it

c)

All muscles contract simultaneously along the esophagus

d)

All muscles relax simultaneously along the esophagus

42.

Which definition correctly matches the digestive term with its description?

a)

Bolus—watery mixture of partially digested food and secretions moving through intestines

b)

Chyme—mass of food mixed with saliva moving from mouth through esophagus to stomach

c)

Feces—mass of undigested fiber, tough tissues, bacteria, and old intestinal cells formed in the large intestine

d)

Sphincter—wave of contractions that propel food along the GI tract

43.

Multi-select: Which statements about chyme are accurate? Select all that apply.

a)

It forms when a bolus mixes with gastric secretions and secretions from the liver and pancreas.

b)

It is a watery mixture of partially digested food.

c)

It is formed in the large intestine just before excretion.

d)

It moves through the intestines after leaving the stomach.

44.

Which structure directly prevents early release of stomach contents into the intestines?

a)

Villi

b)

Sphincters

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Salivary glands

45.

Arrange the following in the typical order they appear as food progresses through digestion: bolus, chyme, feces.

a)

Chyme → bolus → feces

b)

Feces → bolus → chyme

c)

Bolus → chyme → feces

d)

Bolus → feces → chyme

46.

According to the functions of the mouth, which process primarily contributes to mechanical digestion in the oral cavity?

a)

Taste analysis by the tongue

b)

Chewing with teeth

c)

Activation of gastric enzymes

d)

Absorption of nutrients through oral mucosa

47.

Which pair correctly matches a salivary enzyme with its macromolecule target during limited chemical digestion in the mouth?

a)

Salivary amylase – proteins

b)

Salivary lipase – starch

c)

Salivary amylase – starch

d)

Salivary lipase – nucleic acids

48.

Select all functions that occur in the mouth before food enters the esophagus.

a)

Taste analysis

b)

Swallowing initiation

c)

Extensive nutrient absorption

d)

Lubrication by saliva

49.

Match each oral structure or component to its primary role in early digestion.

a)

Teeth

1.

Mechanical breakdown via chewing

b)

Saliva

2.

Lubrication and enzyme delivery

c)

Tongue

3.

Taste analysis and bolus formation

d)

Pharynx

4.

Route for swallowing toward esophagus

50.

Which statement best explains why no absorption of food occurs in the mouth?

a)

The oral mucosa is impermeable to all molecules, including water.

b)

Food is not digested enough to be absorbed at this stage.

c)

Salivary enzymes completely digest nutrients, leaving none to absorb.

d)

Swallowing bypasses the oral cavity before digestion begins.

51.

Which statement best describes the primary function of the esophagus during swallowing?

a)

It chemically digests food using acidic secretions

b)

It transports the bolus from the pharynx to the stomach via coordinated muscle contractions

c)

It filters air entering the trachea before reaching the lungs

d)

It stores food temporarily to regulate gastric emptying

52.

Select all features that prevent misdirection or backflow of material during swallowing.

a)

Epiglottis covering the tracheal opening to keep food out of the windpipe

b)

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) preventing acidic stomach contents from re-entering the esophagus

c)

Circular muscle relaxation at the top of the esophagus to push the bolus upward

d)

Longitudinal muscle contraction pulling the bolus back toward the pharynx

53.

Match each structure or action involved in swallowing to its role.

a)

Epiglottis

1.

Prevents food from entering the trachea

b)

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

2.

Prevents backflow of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus

c)

Circular muscles of the esophagus

3.

Contract behind the bolus to propel it toward the stomach

54.

In the diagram, the lower esophageal sphincter is highlighted near the junction with the stomach. What is its physiological role?

a)

Opening the trachea to allow air passage during swallowing

b)

Neutralizing stomach acid before it enters the esophagus

c)

Preventing reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus

d)

Initiating peristalsis in the pharynx

55.

Which statement best describes the stomach’s overall role in digestion?

a)

Primarily performs absorption of nutrients and water

b)

Conducts both mechanical mixing and chemical breakdown of food

c)

Exclusively neutralizes acidic chyme from the esophagus

d)

Stores bile and releases it to emulsify fats

56.

Mucus secreted by the stomach serves which primary function?

a)

Enhances protein activation by pepsin

b)

Protects the stomach lining from hydrochloric acid

c)

Increases bile secretion into the duodenum

d)

Directly breaks down carbohydrates

57.

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach has two key roles. Select all that apply.

a)

Breaks proteins

b)

Activates some digestive enzymes

c)

Neutralizes gastric pH

d)

Facilitates vitamin B-12 absorption

58.

Match each gastric component to its function.

a)

Mucus

1.

Protects stomach from acid

b)

Pepsin

2.

Digests proteins

c)

Intrinsic factor

3.

Involved in vitamin B-12 absorption

d)

Gastrin

4.

Stimulates mucus and HCl production

59.

Which enzyme listed is directly involved in protein digestion within the stomach?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Trypsin

60.

Intrinsic factor is essential for which physiological process?

a)

Activation of pepsinogen to pepsin

b)

Absorption of vitamin B-12

c)

Secretion of hydrochloric acid

d)

Emulsification of dietary lipids

61.

Gastrin primarily stimulates which of the following in the stomach?

a)

Bile synthesis and release

b)

Mucus and hydrochloric acid production

c)

Pancreatic enzyme secretion

d)

Enterocyte glucose transporters

62.

Which statement best describes the liver’s role in fat digestion?

a)

It secretes enzymes that hydrolyze triglycerides directly in the stomach

b)

It produces bile that emulsifies fat into smaller droplets for digestion

c)

It stores bile in its ducts until fats are fully digested

d)

It absorbs dietary fats and transports them unchanged into the bloodstream

63.

Select all functions performed by the liver as outlined:

a)

Detoxification of drugs, alcohol, and supplements

b)

Regulation of blood glucose

c)

Amino acid breakdown and synthesis

d)

Direct secretion of insulin from hepatocytes

e)

RBC recycling and regulation of blood composition

64.

Match each liver-related item to its correct description.

a)

Bile production

1.

Helps break down fats via emulsification

b)

Gallbladder

2.

Stores bile until it is needed

c)

Small intestine

3.

Receives bile delivery for fat digestion

d)

Fat-soluble nutrients

4.

Stored by the liver for later use

65.

Which sequence correctly represents fat emulsification by bile salts as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Small fat droplets → Fat globule → Emulsified fat droplets → Bile salt

b)

Fat globule → Bile salt binds with hydrophilic side outward → Emulsified fat droplets → Small fat droplets

c)

Fat globule → Pancreatic lipase → Chylomicron → Emulsified fat droplets

d)

Emulsified fat droplets → Bile synthesis → Fat globule → Small fat droplets

66.

Where is bile stored and where is it delivered for use, according to the material?

a)

Stored in the pancreas; delivered to the large intestine

b)

Stored in the gallbladder; delivered to the small intestine as needed

c)

Stored in the spleen; delivered to the stomach

d)

Stored in hepatic sinusoids; delivered to the lymphatic system

67.

Which liver function is most directly involved in maintaining steady blood glucose levels between meals?

a)

Cholesterol production

b)

RBC recycling

c)

Regulation of blood glucose

d)

Vitamin absorption

68.

Which statement best describes the primary function of the small intestine?

a)

Mechanical breakdown of food via churning

b)

Site of most chemical digestion and absorption

c)

Storage of undigested waste prior to excretion

d)

Production of saliva and initiation of starch digestion

69.

Identify the feature that most directly increases the small intestine’s absorptive efficiency by expanding surface area.

a)

Smooth inner lining

b)

Presence of rugae in the stomach

c)

Folded villi and microvilli

d)

Large lumen diameter

70.

Match each segment of the small intestine to its principal role.

a)

Duodenum

1.

Mixing food with pancreatic juices and bile

b)

Jejunum

2.

Primary site of nutrient and water absorption

c)

Ileum

3.

Absorbs nutrients and water not previously absorbed

71.

Which process occurs predominantly in the duodenum according to the instructional material?

a)

Absorption of most remaining nutrients

b)

Mixing chyme with pancreatic enzymes and bile

c)

Storage of bile acids

d)

Fermentation of fiber by microbiota

72.

Which combination accurately lists molecules absorbed in the small intestine? Select all that apply.

a)

Glucose and amino acids

b)

Fats and vitamins

c)

Most minerals such as calcium, magnesium, and iron

d)

Alcohol (80% of total) and bile acids

73.

Approximately what proportion of total body water absorption occurs in the small intestine as stated?

a)

10% to 20%

b)

30% to 40%

c)

50% to 60%

d)

70% to 90%

74.

Which structural components of a villus facilitate transport of absorbed nutrients?

a)

Striated muscle bundles and sweat glands

b)

Blood capillary network and lacteal (lymph)

c)

Gastric pits and mucous cells

d)

Bronchioles and alveolar sacs

75.

In the jejunum, which categories of molecules are highlighted as being absorbed based on the provided list? Select all that apply.

a)

Lipids and small peptides

b)

Monosaccharides and amino acids

c)

Bile salts and short-chain fatty acids

d)

Sodium and chloride

76.

Which segment continues absorption of nutrients and water that were not previously absorbed?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Jejunum

d)

Ileum

77.
Question Image

Which pair correctly matches a villus substructure with its associated fluid or tissue?

a)

Epithelium

1.

Single-cell layer lining the villus surface

b)

Lacteal

2.

Lymph vessel within the villus core

c)

Capillary (blood)

3.

Blood vessel network for nutrient uptake

d)

Crypt

4.

Invagination at the base of the villus