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Worksheets

Exam Reminders

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What was the original purpose of the allergy response (hypersensitivity) in the immune system?

a)

It was originally designed for parasites.

b)

It was originally designed for bacteria.

c)

It was originally designed for viruses.

d)

It was originally designed for fungi.

2.

Which type of hypersensitivity involves the interaction of soluble antigens with IgE and mast cell degranulation?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

3.

Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by which antibody made against cell surface proteins that were modified, with new epitopes?

a)

IgE

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

4.

Type III hypersensitivity involves IgG against immune complexes. What system and process are involved in the tissue response?

a)

Complement system and inflammation

b)

Mast cell degranulation

c)

Antibody production

d)

T cell activation

5.

Type IV hypersensitivity involves which cells against foreign objects and modified proteins?

a)

B cells

b)

CD4/CD8 T cells

c)

Mast cells

d)

Neutrophils

6.

What is another name for Type I Hypersensitivity?

a)

Delayed-type reaction

b)

Immediate or anaphylactic reaction

c)

Cytotoxic reaction

d)

Immune complex reaction

7.

Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in the first contact sensitization in Type I Hypersensitivity?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

8.

In Type I Hypersensitivity, cross-linking of IgE with FcεRI leads to mast cell degranulation with the release of ________.

a)

Histamine (HA)

b)

Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

c)

Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)

d)

Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

9.

The receptors involved in Type I Hypersensitivity are found on which of the following cells?

a)

Neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes

b)

Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

c)

Red blood cells, platelets, macrophages

d)

Dendritic cells, B cells, T cells

10.

Complement activation occurs in Type I Hypersensitivity.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which type of T cells are involved in Type I Hypersensitivity?

a)

TH1 cells

b)

TH2 cells

c)

Regulatory T cells

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

12.

Name any two cytokines involved in Type I Hypersensitivity.

a)

IL4, IL5 (also IL10)

b)

IL2, IL12

c)

IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha

d)

IL17, IL23

13.

List the immunoglobulin classes associated with Type I Hypersensitivity.

a)

IgE, IgG1, IgG4

b)

IgA, IgM, IgD

c)

IgG2, IgG3, IgM

d)

IgA, IgE, IgM

14.

What has led to a decrease in parasites in high populated countries?

a)

Increased population

b)

Production of vaccines, antibiotics, and hygiene

c)

Poor hygiene

d)

Lack of medical facilities

15.

What does a population with parasites have a balance between?

a)

Superinfected, healthy, and immunopathology

b)

Predators, prey, and resources

c)

Genetic diversity, mutation rate, and adaptation

d)

Temperature, humidity, and rainfall

16.

Impact of Hygiene: Parasite free population has lost balance. People are developing allergies. True or False: Parasite-free populations are developing allergies due to lost balance.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is a major health issue observed in parasite-free populations according to the diagram?

a)

Immunopathology

b)

Superinfection

c)

Allergy

d)

Resistance

18.

Which immunoglobulin is anti-inflammatory and can bind 2 antigens?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG4

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

19.

Does IgG4 facilitate complement or phagocytosis?

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The Fc region of IgG4 binds to an inhibitory FcγRIIB receptor, resulting in net inhibition of a cell. Can it also bind to IgE and prevent release of histamine?

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Fill in the blank: The receptor for IgE has two ______ alpha domains and is anchored to the membrane by a transmembrane alpha domain.

a)

extracellular

b)

intracellular

c)

cytoplasmic

d)

nuclear

22.

Mast cells are full of granules with enzymes, which do contain _____?

a)

histamine

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

adrenaline

23.

Which enzyme is associated with mucosal mast cells?

a)

Chymotrypsin

b)

Tryptase

c)

Elastase

d)

Amylase

24.

Which enzyme is found in connective tissue mast cells?

a)

Tryptase

b)

Chymotrypsin

c)

Chymotryptase

d)

Elastase

25.

Mast cells display an increase diversity of _____ antibodies that have different antigen specification.

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

26.

Irreversible binding to FcεRI occurs in which cells?

a)

Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

b)

B cells

c)

T cells

d)

Macrophages

27.

Omalizumab binds to Fc of IgE and prevents binding to receptor. This prevents the release of _____

a)

HA (histamine)

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

acetylcholine

28.

Fill in the blank: Histamine is found in ______ and basophils.

a)

mast cells

b)

erythrocytes

c)

platelets

d)

neutrophils

29.

Fill in the blank: Histamine causes vasodilation and ______ muscle contraction.

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

voluntary

30.

Fill in the blank: Histamine is involved in hay fever, urticaria, angioedema, and ______.

a)

bronchospasm

b)

diabetes

c)

hypertension

d)

arthritis

31.

Fill in the blank: Prostaglandins cause capillary dilation and ______ muscle contraction.

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

striated

32.

Fill in the blank: Thromboxanes aggregate ______.

a)

platelets

b)

red blood cells

c)

neutrophils

d)

lymphocytes

33.

Fill in the blank: Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are formed from ______ acid.

a)

arachidonic

b)

palmitic

c)

oleic

d)

linoleic

34.

Fill in the blank: Leukotrienes are not preformed and are formed during ______.

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

mitosis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

digestion

35.

Fill in the blank: Leukotrienes are formed from arachidonic acid via the ______ pathway.

a)

lipoxygenase

b)

cyclooxygenase

c)

peroxidase

d)

hydroxylase

36.

Fill in the blank: Leukotrienes cause vasodilation and ______ muscle contraction.

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

striated

37.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor of Anaphylaxis is a ______ in mast cells.

a)

tetrapeptide

b)

monosaccharide

c)

lipoprotein

d)

disaccharide

38.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor is released in anaphylaxis and attracts ______.

a)

eosinophils

b)

neutrophils

c)

basophils

d)

lymphocytes

39.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophils release histaminase and arylsulfatase to degrade ______ and leukotrienes.

a)

histamine

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

acetylcholine

40.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil peroxidase kills parasites by _______ and induces histamine release from mast cells.

a)

catalyzing halogenation

b)

inhibiting protein synthesis

c)

blocking neurotransmitter release

d)

stimulating antibody production

41.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil collagenase _______ connective tissue matrix.

a)

remodels

b)

destroys

c)

ignores

d)

replicates

42.

Fill in the blank: Major basic protein kills parasites and induces _______ release from mast cells.

a)

histamine

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

acetylcholine

43.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil cationic protein is a _______ that kills parasites.

a)

neurotoxin

b)

enzyme

c)

hormone

d)

antibody

44.

Fill in the blank: Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin has an antiviral effect by degrading _______.

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

45.

Fill in the blank: IL-3, IL-5, GM-CSF amplify eosinophil production in _______ and activate eosinophils.

a)

bone marrow

b)

lymph nodes

c)

spleen

d)

thymus

46.

Fill in the blank: CXCL8 promotes influx of _______.

a)

leukocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

platelets

d)

neurons

47.

Fill in the blank: Leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4, prostaglandins induce smooth muscle contraction, vascular permeability, and _______ secretion.

a)

mucus

b)

bile

c)

insulin

d)

saliva

48.

Fill in the blank: Platelet-activating factor attracts and activates neutrophils and platelets and increases synthesis of _______ mediators.

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

carbohydrate

d)

nucleic acid

49.

Which statement is true about the color coding in the table of eosinophil mediators?

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Most allergens are ______ since TH2 cells only react to proteins.

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

51.

Which of the following is the first step in the activation of allergens?

a)

Activation of TH2 cells

b)

Inhalation

c)

Binding at mucosa in lungs

d)

IL4 binds to B cells

52.

Fill in the blank: During the first exposure, IL4 binds to B cells, plasma cells produce ______.

a)

IgE

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

53.

Which cell type is activated by TH2 cells to secrete IL4?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Mast cells

54.

Allergens taken up by APCs are transported to the lymph node.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What happens during the second exposure to antigen?

a)

IgE binds to mast cells

b)

Allergen and IgE cross-link

c)

HA release due to mast cell degranulation

d)

All of the above

56.

Fill in the blank: TH2 cells are follicular helper T cells that promote the production of type ______ immunity.

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

57.

Which feature of inhaled allergens allows allergens to diffuse from particles to mucosa?

a)

High solubility

b)

Low molecular mass

c)

High stability

d)

Function

58.

What is the emergency condition caused when antigen is in the blood, leading to bronchoconstriction and hypotension?

a)

Systemic Anaphylaxis

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

59.

Fill in the blank: The treatment for systemic anaphylaxis involves the use of ________, which increases blood pressure, heart rate, and dilates blood vessels to skeletal muscle and liver.

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Insulin

c)

Antihistamine

d)

Cortisol

60.

Penicillin can cause a Type II hypersensitivity reaction by binding to RBC surface proteins and creating new epitopes.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis affecting the heart and vascular system?

a)

Increased capillary permeability

b)

Swelling of tissues

c)

Wheezing

d)

Loss of consciousness

62.

Fill in the blank: Allergic rhinitis, also known as ________, occurs when allergens enter the respiratory tract and blood borne eosinophils enter inflamed nasal tissue. Release of inflammatory mediators and mucus will remove eosinophils later.

a)

hay fever

b)

bronchitis

c)

asthma

d)

sinusitis

63.

Fill in the blank: Allergic asthma is mediated by ________ cells and involves chronic inflammation of airways, bronchoconstriction, and production of allergen specific IgE in mucosa.

a)

TH2

b)

B

c)

TH1

d)

NK

64.

Fill in the blank: Skin mast cells release ________, which dilates local blood vessels, leading to swelling and redness. An example is a bed bug bite.

a)

histamine (HA)

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

acetylcholine

65.

Fill in the blank: Food allergy can cause NVD and ________ when the allergen is in the blood and carried to the skin.

a)

urticaria

b)

eczema

c)

psoriasis

d)

acne

66.

Fill in the blank: Atopic dermatitis is associated with many genes related to ________ immunity.

a)

innate

b)

adaptive

c)

humoral

d)

cell-mediated

67.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mast-cell degranulation in the heart and vascular system?

a)

A. Increased capillary permeability

b)

B. Loss of blood pressure

c)

C. Contraction of smooth muscle

d)

D. Anaphylactic shock

68.

Which diagram shows an obstructed airway?

a)

Diagram with wide lumen and thin smooth muscle

b)

Diagram with contracted smooth muscle, excess mucus, and decreased lumen diameter

69.

Which of the following is a method of desensitization for allergy?

a)

Acute: small dose every 10-15 minutes

b)

Chronic: weekly antigen dosing

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

70.

What is the purpose of chronic desensitization in allergy treatment?

a)

To make IgG4 lead to blocking response

b)

To increase mast cell activity

c)

To cause anaphylaxis

d)

To avoid skin tests

71.

Fill in the blank: Prevention of allergy includes ______ and avoidance.

a)

skin tests

b)

antibiotics

c)

vaccination

d)

exercise

72.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for allergy?

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Inhibit Ca2+ influx

d)

Antibiotics

73.

Corticosteroids have ______ and immunosuppressive effect.

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

pro-inflammatory

c)

antibacterial

d)

antiviral

74.

Which drug inhibits Ca2+ influx and blocks release of mediators in mast cells?

a)

Cromolyn sodium

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Penicillin

75.

A patient experiencing systemic anaphylaxis after ingesting a peanut exhibits bronchoconstriction and hypotension. Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate?

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Cromolyn sodium

d)

Corticosteroids

76.

A 25-year-old individual has been diagnosed with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction after exposure to pollen. Which immune component is not involved in this process?

a)

IL-4 cytokine

b)

Mast cells

c)

IgE

d)

Complement system

77.

A child living in a region with high parasite prevalence shows a balanced immune phenotype with minimal allergic responses. This balance is disrupted in parasite-free populations due to:

a)

Increased exposure to allergens similar to parasites.

b)

Suppression of TH1 cell activity.

c)

Mutations in IL-4 receptors.

d)

Enhanced atopy-associated genetic mutations.

78.

A pharmaceutical company develops a monoclonal antibody targeting the Fc region of IgE. This treatment would most likely:

a)

Stimulate Fc receptor binding to mast cells.

b)

Prevent histamine release during an allergic reaction.

c)

Enhance IgG4-mediated inhibition of allergens.

d)

Increase mast cell degranulation.

79.

In a patient presenting with allergic asthma, chronic inflammation of the airways is predominantly driven by which immune response?

a)

TH1-mediated immune regulation

b)

Chronic TH2 cell activity

c)

Overproduction of complement proteins

d)

Mast cell-independent IgE synthesis