wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

OB NCLEX Practice Exam – Part 1 (Questions 1–19)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered via cesarean section. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

a)

Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet

b)

Mild molding of the head

c)

Nasal flaring and grunting respirations

d)

Irregular breathing pattern with pauses

2.

A nurse assesses a newborn with a temperature of 96.4°F (35.8°C). What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Notify the provider immediately

b)

Swaddle the infant and place under a radiant warmer

c)

Delay the next feeding

d)

Bathe the infant in warm water

3.

A newborn’s APGAR score at 1 minute is 4. What is the nurse’s immediate priority?

a)

Stimulate the infant to cry

b)

Provide positive pressure ventilation

c)

Continue to observe the infant

d)

Administer vitamin K

4.

The nurse is teaching parents about the purpose of erythromycin eye ointment. Which statement shows understanding?

a)

It prevents eye irritation from amniotic fluid.

b)

It helps prevent infection from bacteria in the birth canal.

c)

It improves the baby’s vision.

d)

It helps produce tears.

5.

A nurse caring for a 32-week preterm infant notes retractions, nasal flaring, and grunting. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Betamethasone

b)

Surfactant via endotracheal tube

c)

Vitamin K IM

d)

Ampicillin IV

6.

Which newborn finding requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider?

a)

Caput succedaneum

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Bluish discoloration of hands and feet

d)

Yellowing of the skin within 12 hours of birth

7.

The nurse is caring for a postpartum client with a boggy uterus and heavy lochia rubra. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Notify the physician

b)

Assess vital signs

c)

Massage the uterus

d)

Administer methylergonovine (Methergine)

8.

A newborn at 4 hours old is jittery and has a blood glucose of 36 mg/dL. What is the best initial action?

a)

Administer IV dextrose

b)

Feed the newborn immediately

c)

Call the healthcare provider

d)

Monitor for seizures

9.

Which assessment finding is most concerning in a postpartum patient 2 hours after vaginal delivery?

a)

Saturating a peripad every 15 minutes

b)

Firm fundus at the umbilicus

c)

Moderate lochia rubra

d)

Complaints of mild afterpains

10.

The nurse receives report on four patients. Which one should the nurse assess first?

a)

1-day postpartum patient with perineal pain rated 6/10

b)

Post-cesarean patient with small serosanguineous drainage on dressing

c)

Patient 2 hours postpartum with saturated pad and dizziness

d)

Postpartum patient ready for discharge asking breastfeeding questions

11.

Which finding indicates effective newborn thermoregulation?

a)

Axillary temperature of 97.0°F

b)

Pink color and quiet alert state

c)

Shivering when cold

d)

Sweating on forehead

12.

The nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Reposition the mother laterally

b)

Increase oxytocin infusion

c)

Apply oxygen by face mask

d)

Call the healthcare provider

13.

A nurse is assisting with the delivery of a newborn with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What should the nurse prepare for?

a)

Immediate suctioning after the shoulders deliver

b)

Vigorous stimulation of the infant

c)

Administration of Narcan

d)

Delayed cord clamping

14.

Which action by the UAP caring for a postpartum patient requires intervention by the nurse?

a)

Assisting the patient to ambulate to the bathroom

b)

Changing the peripad and reporting heavy bleeding

c)

Measuring fundal height

d)

Emptying the Foley catheter bag

15.

A postpartum patient reports pain and pressure in the perineum despite a firm fundus. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Hematoma

c)

Retained placental fragments

d)

Infection

16.

A nurse is preparing to administer RhoGAM to a postpartum client. Which condition must be present?

a)

Mother Rh positive, infant Rh negative

b)

Mother Rh negative, infant Rh positive

c)

Both Rh positive

d)

Both Rh negative

17.

Which finding in a postpartum client requires immediate follow-up?

a)

Pulse 100 bpm

b)

Temperature 100.3°F within 24 hours of delivery

c)

Foul-smelling lochia

d)

Fundus firm and midline

18.

The nurse observes a laboring patient with contractions every 90 seconds, lasting 90 seconds, with minimal resting tone. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Continue to monitor

b)

Increase oxytocin

c)

Stop oxytocin infusion

d)

Notify provider after 30 minutes

19.

A laboring patient’s fetal heart tracing shows variable decelerations. What is the priority intervention?

a)

Turn patient to left side

b)

Administer oxygen

c)

Stop oxytocin

d)

Perform vaginal exam

20.

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has jaundice at 36 hours of life. What should the nurse do?

a)

Encourage frequent feedings

b)

Withhold breastfeeding

c)

Start IV fluids

d)

Keep the newborn NPO

21.

The nurse is caring for a patient 12 hours postpartum. Fundus is firm, 1 cm above the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. What should the nurse do?

a)

Document as normal

b)

Massage the fundus

c)

Have the patient void

d)

Notify provider

22.

A nurse is caring for a preterm infant born at 30 weeks. Which assessment requires immediate intervention?

a)

Soft abdomen

b)

Periodic breathing

c)

Axillary temperature 96.0°F

d)

Weight 1,300 grams

23.

A nurse is monitoring a client in labor with an epidural. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Blood pressure 90/50 mmHg

b)

Complaint of itching

c)

Pain rated 3/10

d)

Fetal heart rate 130 bpm

24.

Which postpartum patient is at highest risk for hemorrhage?

a)

Primipara with firm fundus

b)

Multipara with prolonged labor and overdistended uterus

c)

Vaginal birth after cesarean with small baby

d)

Patient on magnesium sulfate

25.

The nurse is assessing bonding. Which behavior best indicates positive attachment?

a)

Mother asks nurse to take the baby to nursery

b)

Mother gazes at baby’s face and speaks softly

c)

Mother avoids touching the baby

d)

Mother expresses fear about holding the baby

26.

A client at 28 weeks’ gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Vasa previa

27.

A pregnant client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

a)

Respiratory rate 10 breaths/min

b)

Deep tendon reflexes 2+

c)

Urine output 40 mL/hr

d)

Subjective complaint of blurred vision

28.

A nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to use Naegele’s rule to estimate due date. If the first day of last menstrual period was March 10, what is the estimated due date?

a)

December 17

b)

December 10

c)

January 17

d)

December 7

29.

A laboring patient has a prolapsed umbilical cord visualized at the introitus. What is the nurse’s immediate action?

a)

Push the presenting part off the cord and call for C-section

b)

Attempt to replace the cord into the uterus

c)

Clamp and cut the cord immediately

d)

Administer tocolytics to stop contractions

30.

A newborn has a positive Coombs test and rising bilirubin levels. Which condition is likely?

a)

Physiologic jaundice

b)

Hemolytic disease due to Rh incompatibility

c)

Breastfeeding-associated jaundice

d)

Gilbert syndrome

31.

A client in active labor requests an epidural. The nurse notes platelets are 80,000/mm³. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Proceed with epidural after explaining risks

b)

Notify the anesthesia provider and delay epidural

c)

Administer aspirin to reduce clotting risk

d)

Encourage position changes instead of epidural

32.

Which finding is an early sign of hypovolemia in the postpartum client?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Decreased respiratory rate

c)

Bounding peripheral pulses

33.

A newborn with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is receiving nasal CPAP. Which lab result would most likely be present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Elevated PaCO₂ and decreased PaO₂

c)

Hypoglycemia with low ketones

d)

Hypernatremia

34.

A nurse is delegating tasks on the postpartum unit. Which task is appropriate to assign to a UAP?

a)

Assess a fundus after a heavy pad saturation

b)

Apply ice packs to the perineum and report increased pain

c)

Administer methergine IM for uterine atony

d)

Teach breastfeeding latch technique

35.

A client at 38 weeks has a nonreactive NST. What additional test is most appropriate next?

a)

Biophysical profile (BPP)

b)

Repeat NST in 24 hours

c)

Immediate cesarean section

d)

Assessment of maternal blood glucose

36.

Which medication is contraindicated for a woman with asthma experiencing postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Carboprost (Hemabate)

c)

Methylergonovine (Methergine)

d)

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

37.

A newborn is noted to have a cephalohematoma. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Physiologic jaundice from increased RBC breakdown

c)

Shoulder dystocia

d)

Neural tube defect

38.

A postpartum client on opioid analgesics reports calf pain and swelling. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Encourage ambulation and NSAIDs

b)

Assess the calf for warmth, redness, and unilateral edema and notify the provider

c)

Apply warm compresses and re-evaluate in 4 hours

d)

Document pain as expected postoperative discomfort

39.

A patient with gestational diabetes is in labor. Which fetal complication is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Oligohydramnios

b)

Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia

c)

Neural tube defects

d)

Placental abruption

40.

A nurse is caring for a newborn receiving phototherapy. Which nursing action is most important?

a)

Leave the newborn unclothed except for eye protection and diaper

b)

Feed only every 6 hours to reduce bilirubin production

c)

Apply lotion to keep skin moist

d)

Turn off phototherapy during diaper changes only once per day

41.

A client in labor experiences a sudden sharp abdominal pain and loss of fetal station after a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC). The nurse suspects uterine rupture. What is the priority action?

a)

Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery and notify the provider

b)

Continue monitoring and give oxygen

c)

Encourage pushing to deliver quickly vaginally

d)

Give analgesics and observe

42.

Which maternal finding is most consistent with chorioamnionitis?

a)

Maternal fever, fetal tachycardia, and uterine tenderness

b)

Decreased fetal movement and oligohydramnios

c)

Painless vaginal bleeding and bright red blood

d)

Mild cramping and brown discharge

43.

A nurse is teaching new parents about safe sleep. Which statement by the parents indicates correct understanding?

a)

“We’ll put a blanket in the crib to keep the baby warm.”

b)

“We will place the baby on the back to sleep without pillows.”

c)

“It’s okay for the baby to sleep on their stomach if supervised.”

d)

“Room sharing increases the risk of SIDS, so we’ll keep the baby in a different room.”

44.

A newborn is born to a mother who tested positive for GBS intrapartum but received no antibiotics during labor. What should the nurse monitor the infant for?

a)

Hypoglycemia only

b)

Signs of early-onset sepsis such as respiratory distress, temperature instability, and lethargy

c)

Only feeding intolerance after 48 hours

d)

Excessive urination

45.

A woman in labor has persistent late decelerations despite repositioning and oxygen. Oxytocin is infusing. What is the immediate priority?

a)

Turn off oxytocin infusion

b)

Increase IV fluids only

c)

Prepare for vacuum-assisted delivery

d)

Repeat positional changes

46.

A client with a history of opioid use disorder is delivering. The newborn shows tremors, high-pitched cry, and poor feeding. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Document and observe for 48 hours only

b)

Perform a neonatal abstinence scoring (Finnegan) and notify the pediatric team

c)

Immediately administer naloxone to the newborn

d)

Bottle-feed with formula only

47.

A laboring client with breech presentation at term requests a vaginal birth. Which statement indicates a contraindication to attempting a vaginal breech delivery?

a)

Multiparous with previous vaginal births

b)

Estimated fetal weight 4,200 g (9 lb 7 oz)

c)

Frank breech with flexed hips

d)

Fully dilated and low presenting part

48.

A postpartum client expresses feelings of sadness and tearfulness on day 3 postpartum but is able to care for her baby. What is the best nursing response?

a)

“You must be having postpartum depression; I’ll schedule a psychiatric consult.”

b)

“Baby blues are common after delivery; let’s discuss support and follow-up.”

c)

“You should be happy—this is normal; stop worrying.”

d)

“I will notify child protective services.”

49.

A newborn’s cord shows two vessels: one artery and one vein. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Document as a normal finding

b)

Notify the provider and assess for other congenital anomalies

c)

Prepare for immediate NICU transfer

d)

Clamp and cut the cord higher than usual

50.

A client at 39 weeks reports decreased fetal movement over 24 hours. What is the nurse’s best next action?

a)

Instruct the client to drink orange juice and rest at home

b)

Perform kick-counting instructions only and re-evaluate in 72 hours

c)

Arrange immediate evaluation with a nonstress test (NST) or fetal assessment

d)

Schedule an induction for the next week

51.

A nurse assesses a patient in labor who suddenly complains of shortness of breath and chest pain after delivery of the placenta. The nurse suspects:

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Endometritis

d)

Amniotic fluid embolism

52.

A nurse is reviewing lab results for a 2-hour postpartum client. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

WBC 15,000/mm³

b)

Hgb 7.8 g/dL

c)

Platelets 210,000/mm³

d)

Hct 33%

53.

The nurse notes a firm fundus at the midline with heavy bright red bleeding. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Vaginal laceration

c)

Retained placental fragments

d)

Uterine inversion

54.

A patient with polyhydramnios and fundal height larger than expected is at risk for which complication during labor?

a)

Cord prolapse

b)

Shoulder dystocia

c)

Precipitous labor

d)

Placenta previa

55.

A laboring patient's membranes rupture, revealing greenish amniotic fluid. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider and assess fetal heart rate pattern

b)

Prepare for cesarean delivery immediately

c)

Continue labor with no intervention

d)

Insert a fetal scalp electrode

56.

The nurse notes a postpartum patient's fundus is boggy and deviated to the left. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Catheterize the bladder

b)

Call for help

c)

Start a second IV line

d)

Administer methylergonovine

57.

A client who delivered 4 hours ago by vaginal birth suddenly reports severe perineal pain and pressure. Her fundus is firm, and lochia is minimal. What complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Endometritis

c)

Uterine inversion

d)

Vaginal prolapse

58.

Which patient should the nurse see first?

a)

Postpartum day 1, complaining of sore nipples

b)

2 hours postpartum, passing several small clots

c)

4 hours postpartum, complaining of dizziness and soaking pads every 15 minutes

d)

Day 2 postpartum, with low-grade fever 100.2°F

59.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Which intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Feed small frequent amounts to prevent aspiration

b)

Place infant NPO and provide oxygen as ordered

c)

Administer antibiotics prophylactically

d)

Begin chest physiotherapy

60.

Which nursing action best promotes heat retention for a newborn immediately after birth?

a)

Drying the infant thoroughly and placing skin-to-skin with mother

b)

Giving a warm bath immediately after delivery

c)

Placing under a fan for stimulation

d)

Applying baby lotion to prevent evaporation

61.

The nurse notes a postpartum client’s uterus is firm at U/2, but the perineal pad is soaked with bright red blood and large clots. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Continue to monitor

b)

Call for assistance and check for vaginal lacerations

c)

Increase IV fluids

d)

Document findings as normal

62.

Which task can the RN safely delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

a)

Initial postpartum assessment

b)

Administering prescribed oxytocin infusion

c)

Developing discharge teaching plan

d)

Evaluating fundal firmness after hemorrhage

63.

A client at 35 weeks with ruptured membranes presents to triage. The nurse notes fetal heart rate of 190 bpm and maternal temperature of 101.4°F. What condition should the nurse suspect?

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Chorioamnionitis

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Uterine rupture

64.

A nurse caring for a laboring client notes the fetal heart rate decreases during contractions and returns to baseline after contractions. What is the nurse’s interpretation?

a)

Variable decelerations—cord compression

b)

Early decelerations—head compression

c)

Late decelerations—placental insufficiency

d)

Prolonged decelerations—hypoxia

65.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“I’ll call my provider if my bleeding smells foul.”

b)

“I’ll resume intercourse once my bleeding stops in a few days.”

c)

“I’ll continue taking my prenatal vitamins while breastfeeding.”

d)

“If I develop a fever over 100.4°F, I’ll contact my provider.”

66.

A nurse is assessing a newborn 6 hours after birth. Which finding is abnormal?

a)

Acrocyanosis

b)

RR 50/min

c)

Axillary temperature 95.6°F (35.3°C)

d)

Irregular respirations

67.

Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

a)

2-hour-old infant with mild acrocyanosis

b)

8-hour-old with blood glucose of 42 mg/dL

c)

1-day-old with pink, moist mucous membranes

d)

12-hour-old with small milia on nose

68.

A laboring client requests pain relief and is 4 cm dilated. The nurse administers IV analgesia. Which nursing action is priority after administration?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Monitor fetal heart rate for decreased variability or late decelerations

c)

Check reflexes

d)

Apply fundal pressure during contractions

69.

Which finding would indicate that a postpartum client is experiencing endometritis?

a)

Fundus firm and midline, scant lochia

b)

Bright red bleeding with clots

c)

Foul-smelling lochia, uterine tenderness, and fever

d)

Normal afterpains with moderate lochia

70.

The nurse caring for a woman with an epidural notes hypotension and fetal bradycardia. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Place the woman on her side and increase IV fluids

b)

Increase oxytocin

c)

Prepare for immediate cesarean

d)

Encourage pushing

71.

A client presents with contractions 3 minutes apart, 60 seconds long, cervix 8 cm dilated. She says she feels pressure and needs to push. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Check for crowning

b)

Have her begin pushing immediately

c)

Assist her to walk to the bathroom

d)

Notify anesthesia for epidural

72.

The nurse notes an infant born to a diabetic mother is lethargic and tremulous. Which lab result is expected?

a)

Blood glucose 32 mg/dL

b)

Serum calcium 9 mg/dL

c)

Bilirubin 5 mg/dL

d)

Hematocrit 50%

73.

A laboring client suddenly experiences vaginal bleeding with pain, firm abdomen, and non-reassuring fetal heart rate. The nurse suspects:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Cord prolapse

74.

The nurse is providing teaching about magnesium sulfate therapy for preeclampsia. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

“It lowers my blood pressure.”

b)

“It helps prevent seizures.”

c)

“It will speed up my labor.”

d)

“It will make my contractions stronger.”

75.

Which postpartum patient finding requires immediate follow-up?

a)

Soft breasts on day 1

b)

Small amount of lochia rubra on pad

c)

Calf pain with dorsiflexion of foot

d)

Mild perineal swelling

76.

A client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting daily. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

a)

“Eat three large meals per day.”

b)

“Avoid eating before bed.”

c)

“Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed in the morning.”

d)

“Drink liquids with your meals.”

77.

The nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks with complaints of facial swelling and headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Assess deep tendon reflexes and blood pressure

b)

Give acetaminophen

c)

Encourage fluids

d)

Schedule a nonstress test

78.

A postpartum patient reports she hasn’t urinated 6 hours after delivery. The fundus is above the umbilicus and deviated to the right. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Encourage the patient to void

b)

Notify the healthcare provider

c)

Insert an indwelling catheter immediately

d)

Start IV fluids

79.

A client who delivered 3 hours ago is pale, weak, and anxious. Her uterus is firm at midline, and bleeding is minimal. What complication is most likely?

a)

Laceration of the birth canal

b)

Hematoma formation

c)

Uterine atony

d)

Retained placenta

80.

The nurse is caring for a newborn 12 hours old who has not voided since birth. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider

b)

Assess for bladder distension and monitor for first void within 24 hours

c)

Start IV fluids

d)

Insert a urinary catheter

81.

Which of the following postpartum clients should the nurse assess first?

a)

Client with mild headache after spinal anesthesia

b)

Client with heavy lochia and boggy fundus

c)

Client with swollen perineum and pain 6/10

d)

Client complaining of fatigue after feeding

82.

A nurse is monitoring a patient in active labor on oxytocin infusion. Contractions occur every 90 seconds and last 90 seconds. What is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Stop the oxytocin infusion

b)

Decrease the oxytocin rate by half

c)

Turn the patient to a lateral position and apply oxygen

d)

Increase IV fluids to treat hypotension

83.

A nurse is teaching about breastfeeding. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“I should burp my baby after each breast.”

b)

“I can store breast milk at room temperature for 12 hours.”

c)

“I will let my baby feed on demand.”

d)

“My baby should have at least six wet diapers per day.”

84.

A newborn with a low APGAR score at 1 minute receives effective resuscitation. What APGAR score should the nurse expect at 5 minutes?

a)

2–3

b)

4–5

c)

7–9

d)

10 only

85.

Which finding indicates the newborn is transitioning effectively after birth?

a)

Central cyanosis

b)

Heart rate 150, respirations 45, pink color

c)

RR 80 and nasal flaring

d)

Weak cry and hypotonia

86.

A client is admitted with ruptured membranes at 32 weeks. The nurse anticipates administering which medication to promote fetal lung maturity?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Betamethasone

c)

RhoGAM

d)

Methergine

87.

The nurse is providing care for a patient with shoulder dystocia during delivery. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Apply fundal pressure

b)

Perform the McRoberts maneuver

c)

Pull on the baby’s head gently

d)

Administer tocolytic medication

88.

The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient prescribed methylergonovine (Methergine). Which assessment finding requires immediate follow‑up?

a)

BP 160/94 mmHg

b)

Pulse 88 bpm

c)

Fundus firm

d)

Lochia rubra small

89.

The nurse is preparing to teach a pregnant client about food safety. Which statement should be included?

a)

“Avoid soft cheeses made from unpasteurized milk.”

b)

“You can eat sushi if it’s fresh.”

c)

“Deli meats are safe if kept refrigerated.”

d)

“Rare steak is okay in the second trimester.”

90.

The nurse notes a postpartum patient with an epidural has decreased sensation in her lower extremities. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Encourage ambulation with assistance

b)

Place call light within reach and assist with first ambulation

c)

Reposition patient to semi‑Fowler’s

d)

Apply heating pad to lower back

91.

Which statement by the UAP caring for a postpartum client requires correction?

a)

“I’ll remind the patient to call for help before getting out of bed.”

b)

“I’ll massage the patient’s abdomen if she feels lightheaded.”

c)

“I’ll record the number of pads changed.”

d)

“I’ll report if the pad is soaked in less than an hour.”

92.

A client at 30 weeks gestation complains of sharp right upper quadrant pain and visual disturbances. What condition does the nurse suspect?

a)

HELLP syndrome

b)

Placenta previa

c)

Preterm labor

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

93.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving oxytocin for induction. Which assessment finding warrants immediate discontinuation of the infusion?

a)

Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds

b)

Fetal heart rate 100 bpm with late decelerations

c)

Patient reports mild cramping

d)

Fetal heart rate with moderate variability

94.

The nurse is assisting a mother with bottle‑feeding. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

“Keep the bottle nipple full of formula during feeding.”

b)

“Prop the bottle with a blanket during feeding.”

c)

“Feed every 8 hours to prevent colic.”

d)

“Refrigerate prepared formula for up to 72 hours.”

95.

Which assessment finding is expected in a healthy newborn 1 hour after birth?

a)

Heart rate 130 bpm, irregular respirations, acrocyanosis

b)

Heart rate 90 bpm, apnea 15 seconds

c)

RR 70, nasal flaring

d)

Rectal temperature 100.8°F

96.

The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient 24 hours after cesarean delivery. Which finding requires further assessment?

a)

Incision clean, dry, and intact

b)

Fundus firm, U/1

c)

Pain 8/10 unrelieved by prescribed medication

d)

Small amount of lochia rubra

97.

Which statement by a pregnant patient about prenatal visits requires clarification?

a)

“After 36 weeks, I’ll see my provider weekly.”

b)

“I’ll have a glucose screening in the second trimester.”

c)

“I’ll need a rubella vaccine during pregnancy.”

d)

“I’ll have my blood pressure checked at each visit.”

98.

Which finding in a newborn requires immediate intervention?

a)

Grunting and intercostal retractions

b)

Acrocyanosis

c)

Positive Moro reflex

d)

Irregular respirations

99.

The nurse is providing care for a postpartum patient with mastitis. Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

“Stop breastfeeding until the infection clears.”

b)

“Continue breastfeeding or pumping on both sides.”

c)

“Apply ice packs to breasts between feedings.”

d)

“Avoid touching the affected breast.”

100.

A nurse is reviewing discharge teaching for a client after delivery. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

“If I feel dizzy or faint, I’ll lie down and elevate my legs.”

b)

“It’s normal for my bleeding to be bright red for 3 weeks.”

c)

“I can use tampons after my bleeding slows down.”

d)

“I’ll call the doctor if I don’t have a bowel movement for 2 days.”