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Exam 3 (OB) Study Guide - Labor & Delivery

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What national goal for healthcare improvement relates most to OB nursing?

a)

Reducing mortality rates and eliminating inequalities of care

b)

Increasing hospital revenue, removing social practices

c)

Promoting technological advancements in surgery

d)

Expanding geriatric care programs

2.

The difference between true and false labor is:

a)

True labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes, while false labor does not.

b)

False labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes, while true labor does not.

c)

True labor and false labor both involve cervical changes.

d)

False labor is always more painful than true labor.

3.

Uterine contractions _____ decrease with ambulation during true labor.

a)

Do not

b)

Do

4.

Contractions increase in frequency, duration, and intensity (pain) during true labor.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Fill in the blank: Progesterone ______ smooth muscle during labor onset.

a)

relaxes

b)

contracts

c)

stimulates

d)

hardens

6.

Fill in the blank: Estrogen stimulates ______ muscle contractions during labor onset.

a)

uterine

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

smooth

7.

Fill in the blank: Connective tissue loosens to allow softening, thinning, and ______ of cervix during labor onset.

a)

dilation

b)

calcification

c)

contraction

d)

ossification

8.

Fill in the blank: The positive feedback loop during labor onset is caused by endogenous ______.

a)

oxytocin

b)

terbutaline

c)

tocolytics

d)

magnesium sulfate

9.

The different phases of Stage 1 labor are:

a)

Latent, Active, Transition

b)

Early, Middle, Late

c)

Initial, Progressive, Final

d)

Start, Peak, End

10.

Fill in the blank: Braxton Hicks contractions are often confused with ________.

a)

real labor

b)

menstrual cramps

c)

digestive issues

d)

muscle spasms

11.

Braxton Hicks contractions cause cervical changes.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Fill in the blank: Blood show is characterized by ________ tinged mucus secretion.

a)

pink

b)

bright red

c)

black

d)

coffee-ground

13.

Fill in the blank: Latent phase is defined as when the cervix is dilated ________ cm.

a)

0-3

b)

4-6

c)

7-9

d)

10-12

14.

Fill in the blank: Active phase is defined as when the cervix is dilated ________ cm.

a)

4-7

b)

1-3

c)

8-10

d)

0-1

15.

Fill in the blank: Transitional phase is defined as when the cervix is dilated ________ cm.

a)

8-10

b)

2-4

c)

4-6

d)

6-8

16.

Fill in the blank: Stage 2 of labor starts at cervical dilation of ________ cm dilated to delivery of _____.

a)

10, baby

b)

5, baby

c)

7, placenta

d)

8, placenta

17.

Fill in the blank: The third stage of labor starts with infant delivery and ends with ________ delivery.

a)

placental

b)

umbilical

c)

cord

d)

membrane

18.

Molding is:

a)

Shape change of the placenta as it is being delivered

b)

Shape change of the fundus as labor progresses

c)

Shape change of the fetal head as it passes through the birth canal

d)

Shape change of the umbilical cord as it prolapses with birth

19.

Fill in the blank: Uterine contractions during the Transitional Phase have a frequency of occurring every ______ minutes with durations of ______ seconds.

a)

2-3 minutes, 45-90 seconds

b)

5-6 minutes, 20-40 seconds

c)

1-2 minutes, 100-120 seconds

d)

4-5 minutes, 30-60 seconds

20.

Fill in the blank: The fetal skull is the ______ diameter of the body during birth.

a)

largest

b)

smallest

c)

average

d)

shortest

e)

longest

21.

Fill in the blank: The anterior fontanel is at the junction of ______ and ______ suture line, is also called ______, and is ______ in shape.

a)

coronal and sagittal, Bregma, diamond

b)

lambdoid and sagittal, Lambda, triangular

c)

coronal and lambdoid, Pterion, oval

d)

squamosal and sagittal, Asterion, circular

22.

Fill in the blank: The posterior fontanel is at the junction of ______ and ______ sutures and is ______ in shape.

a)

sagittal and lambdoidal, triangular

b)

coronal and sagittal, oval

c)

lambdoidal and coronal, square

d)

squamosal and sagittal, round

23.

Which of the following describes the fetal attitude of 'complete flexion'?

a)

Baby's chin towards chest, BACK of baby's head presenting through pelvis

b)

Baby's head looking straight forward, TOP of baby's head presenting through pelvis

c)

Baby's head looking slightly up, baby's FOREHEAD presenting through pelvis

d)

Baby's head looking all the way up, baby's FACE presenting through pelvis

24.

What is the best 'attitude' for the fetus in relation to the passageway?

a)

Complete flexion

b)

Moderate flexion

c)

Partial extension

d)

Extension

25.

What is the worst 'attitude' for the fetus in relation to the passageway?

a)

Complete flexion

b)

Moderate flexion

c)

Partial extension

d)

Extension

26.

SATA: What are the different fetal presentations in relation to mom’s pelvis?

a)

Vertex/Cephalic

b)

Breech

c)

Transverse/Shoulder

d)

Complete Flexion

e)

Complete Extension

27.

'Breech' presentation in relation to the maternal pelvis refers to:

a)

The fetus presenting buttocks or feet first instead of the head

b)

The fetus presenting head first

c)

The fetus lying transversely across the pelvis

d)

The fetus presenting with the chest first

28.

SATA: Evaluation of different fetal presentations is done by:

a)

abdominal palpation

b)

SVE

c)

determined by fetal lie

d)

determined by fetal attitude

e)

X-ray

29.

SATA: What presentation(s) could lead to a difficult vaginal delivery?

a)

Cephalic presentation

b)

Vertex presentation

c)

Occiput anterior presentation

d)

Breech presentation

e)

Transverse presentation

30.

Common breech positions include which of the following?

a)

Frank, complete, footling, double footling

b)

Cephalic, transverse, oblique, compound

c)

Vertex, face, brow, shoulder

d)

Longitudinal, transverse, oblique, breech

31.

If a fetus is breech, what delivery technique will be used?

a)

Cesarean section

b)

Forceps delivery

c)

Vacuum extraction

d)

Normal vaginal delivery

32.

“Station” refers to:

a)

A place where trains stop for passengers to get on or off

b)

Measurement of fetal descent in pelvis

c)

The relationship of fetal parts to each other, determines the part of the head and diameter of the skull that presents

d)
  •  The changing of the fetal head shape as it passes through the birth canal

33.

Fetal station is analyzed by:

a)

Assessing the position of the fetal head in relation to the ischial spines

b)

Measuring the fetal heart rate

c)

Assessing the position of the fetal chest in relation to the symphisis pubis

d)

Intensity, duration, and frequency of maternal uterine contractions

34.

What is 'engagement' in obstetrics?

a)

Engagement is when the baby's head descends into the pelvic cavity.

b)

Engagement refers to the onset of labor contractions.

c)

Engagement is the rupture of the amniotic sac before delivery.

d)

Engagement is the process of cervical dilation during labor.

35.

What does 'vertex' mean in fetal presentation?

a)

Vertex presentation: ideal, baby's HEAD is in the lowest part of the pelvis.

b)

Vertex presentation: baby's FEET are in the lowest part of the pelvis.

c)

Vertex presentation: baby's SHOULDERS are in the lowest part of the pelvis.

d)

Vertex presentation: baby's BUTTOCKS are in the lowest part of the pelvis.

36.

Leopold’s maneuver is:

a)

A series of abdominal palpation techniques used to determine fetal position.

b)

A series of abdominal auscultation techniques used to determine fetal position.

c)

A method for measuring blood pressure in pregnancy.

d)

A series of abdominal palpation techniques used to determine cervical dilation.

37.

How does the nurse measure duration of uterine contractions?

a)

Measured from the beginning to the end of one singular contraction

b)

Measured from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next

c)

Measured from the peak to the end of one contraction

d)

Measured from the beginning to the peak of one contraction

38.

How does the nurse measure frequency of uterine contractions?

a)

Time between the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction

b)

Time between the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction

c)

Duration of a single contraction

d)

Number of contractions in ten minutes

39.

SATA: How does the nurse measure strength/intensity of uterine contractions?

a)

Internal uterine pressure catheter (IUPC), only accurate way to measure pressure

b)

Maternal self-report, not always accurate

c)

By timing the duration of contractions with a stopwatch, only accurate method

d)

Tocodynamometer, not always accurate

e)

Abdominal palpation, not always accurate

40.

What are the 4 steps of Leopold's maneuver?

a)

1. Fundal grip: palpate the uppermost part of the abdomen, determines fetal LIE and fundal HEIGHT

2. Lateral/umbilical grip: place hands on both sides between flanks and umbilicus, used to locate fetal BACK/LIMBS, as well as fetal POSITION

3. Pawlik’s grip: grasp the fundus in one hand and the lower pole of the uterus in the other, used to evaluate fetal PRESENTING PART as well as fetal ENGAGEMENT

4. Pelvic grip: place hands below umbilicus and walk fingers towards presenting part, determines fetal ATTITUDE

b)

1. Pelvic grip: palpate the lower part of the abdomen, determines fetal LIE and fundal HEIGHT

2. Lateral grip: place hands on both sides of the pelvis, used to locate fetal HEAD/LIMBS, as well as fetal POSITION

3. Pawlik’s grip: grasp the lower pole of the uterus in one hand and the fundus in the other, used to evaluate fetal PRESENTING PART as well as fetal ENGAGEMENT

4. Fundal grip: place hands above umbilicus and walk fingers towards presenting part, determines fetal ATTITUDE

c)

1. Fundal grip: palpate the uppermost part of the abdomen, determines fetal POSITION and fundal HEIGHT

2. Lateral/umbilical grip: place hands on both sides between flanks and umbilicus, used to locate fetal HEAD/LIMBS, as well as fetal LIE

3. Pawlik’s grip: grasp the fundus in one hand and the lower pole of the uterus in the other, used to evaluate fetal ENGAGEMENT as well as fetal ATTITUDE

4. Pelvic grip: place hands below umbilicus and walk fingers towards presenting part, determines fetal PRESENTING PART

d)

1. Fundal grip: palpate the lower part of the abdomen, determines fetal LIE and fetal ENGAGEMENT

2. Lateral grip: place hands on both sides of the pelvis, used to locate fetal BACK/LIMBS, as well as fetal ATTITUDE

3. Pawlik’s grip: grasp the lower pole of the uterus in one hand and the fundus in the other, used to evaluate fetal POSITION as well as fetal HEIGHT

4. Pelvic grip: place hands above umbilicus and walk fingers towards presenting part, determines fetal PRESENTING PART

41.

List the 5 Ps of labor.

a)

Power, Passage, Passenger, Position, Psyche

b)

Pain, Pressure, Placenta, Position, Pulse

c)

Power, Placenta, Position, Passage, Pulse

d)

Passenger, Passage, Pain, Pressure, Psyche

42.

What is the only accurate way to determine pressure/intensity of uterine contractions?

a)

Internal uterine pressure catheter (IUPC)

b)

External tocodynamometer

c)

Palpation of the abdomen

d)

Maternal perception of contractions

43.

Uterine contractions are assessed via which 3 metrics?

a)

Frequency, Duration, and Intensity

b)

Pressure, Rate, and Volume

c)

Amplitude, Interval, and Strength

d)

Timing, Force, and Pattern

44.

With the external monitor, what does TOCO measure and how accurate is it?

a)

TOCO measures force exerted by uterus on the abdomen, not very accurate.

b)

TOCO measures fetal heart rate, highly accurate.

c)

TOCO measures maternal blood pressure, moderately accurate.

d)

TOCO measures amniotic fluid volume, very accurate.

45.

Choose the BEST answer. Why should a L&D nurse be concerned with a laboring patient's psyche?

a)

The psyche of the mother can indicate how far along in the laboring process they are.

b)

The psyche of the mother can indicate the baby's gender.

c)

The psyche of the mother can predict the need for a C-section.

d)

The psyche of the mother can indicate the effectiveness of pain medication.

46.

What is the First Stage of Labor?

a)

0-10 cm dilation.

b)

Delivery of the placenta.

c)

Expulsion of the fetus.

d)

Crowning.

47.

What are the differences between the 3 phases related to uterine contractions (ctxs)? List the frequency and duration for each phase of Stage 1 labor.

a)

Phase 1: Uterine ctxs: 15-30 mins frequency, 15-30 sec duration, moderate intensity.

Phase 2: Uterine ctxs: more frequent and longer, 3-5 min frequency, 60 sec duration.

Phase 3: Uterine ctxs: even longer and more frequent, 2-3 min frequency, 45-90 sec duration.

b)

Phase 1: Uterine ctxs: 5-10 mins frequency, 10-20 sec duration, mild intensity.

Phase 2: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 10-15 min frequency, 30 sec duration.

Phase 3: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 15-20 min frequency, 20 sec duration.

c)

Phase 1: Uterine ctxs: 30-45 mins frequency, 5-10 sec duration, mild intensity.

Phase 2: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 20-25 min frequency, 15 sec duration.

Phase 3: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 25-30 min frequency, 10 sec duration.

d)

Phase 1: Uterine ctxs: 10-20 mins frequency, 20-40 sec duration, mild intensity.

Phase 2: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 8-12 min frequency, 25 sec duration.

Phase 3: Uterine ctxs: less frequent and shorter, 12-18 min frequency, 15 sec duration.

48.

When a pregnant patient is being assessed to determine if they are in labor, what are the priority interventions that need to be completed once the patient presents to the Labor Unit?

a)

Assess vital signs, fetal heart rate, and cervical dilation

b)

Administer pain medication immediately

c)

Send the patient for an ultrasound before any assessment

d)

Discharge the patient if contractions are less than 5 minutes apart

49.

In the BURTH labor assessment, what does the 'B' stand for?

a)

Bladder (keep empty)

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Breathing rate

d)

Body temperature

50.

In the BURTH labor assessment, what does the 'R' stand for?

a)

Rupture of membranes

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Rectal temperature

d)

Resting heart rate

51.

What is the normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range that should be assessed before, during, and after contractions?

a)

110-160 bpm

b)

80-120 bpm

c)

160-200 bpm

d)

90-130 bpm

52.

Which of the following is NOT part of the BURTH labor assessment?

a)

A) Bladder

b)

B) Uterine ctxs

c)

C) Respiratory rate

d)

D) Heart tones

53.

What interventions would be needed if the patient arrives to the Labor Unit and they are about to deliver? List the priority interventions for Stage 2 (RN will...):

a)

Assist with delivery, provide support, monitor fetal heart rate, and ensure sterile technique.

b)

Prepare for cesarean section immediately without assessment.

c)

Administer pain medication and delay delivery until physician arrives.

d)

Encourage patient to walk around to speed up labor.

54.

What words might the patient state that could indicate to the nurse that the patient could be ready to push?

a)

"I feel a strong urge to have a bowel movement."

b)

"I am hungry."

c)

"I want to sleep."

d)

"I need to urinate really bad."

55.

Nurses who care for patients in labor tend to only be assigned to one active laboring patient. Why?

a)

Labor requires constant individualized bedside care and there are many possible complications that require immediate intervention.

b)

Laboring patients prefer to be alone and do not require much assistance.

c)

Hospitals have a shortage of nurses and cannot assign more than one patient per nurse.

d)

Labor is a quick process and does not require much monitoring.

56.

Will the L&D nurse only focus on mom as their patient?

a)

NO, they focus on mom AND baby!

b)

Yes, only mom is their patient.

c)

No, they focus only on the baby.

d)

Yes, they only assist with paperwork.

57.

What does 'crowning' mean?

a)

The head of the baby crests through the perineum with maternal pushed.

b)

The baby's feet are visible during delivery.

c)

The placenta is delivered before the baby.

d)

The umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck.

58.

SATA: What interventions would you expect to happen next if the nurse discovers crowning?

a)

Have mom STOP BEARING DOWN

b)

Have mom BEAR DOWN HARDER

c)

Encourage maternal ambulation

d)

Prepare for possible episiotomy

e)

Perform modified Ritgen maneuver

59.

SATA: What is assessed during a vaginal exam?

a)

cervical dilation

b)

cervical effacement

c)

fetal station

d)

fetal presentation

e)

status of membranes

60.

How is dilation measured during a vaginal exam?

a)

0-10cm

b)

0-5cm

c)

0-20cm

d)

0-100cm

61.

How is effacement measured during a vaginal exam?

a)

How THIN and SHORT the cervix is.

b)

How WIDE and LONG the cervix is.

c)

How DILATED the cervix is.

d)

The TEMP the cervix is.

62.

How is station measured during a vaginal exam?

a)

The relationship of presenting part of the fetus to the level of ischial spines.

b)

The dilation of the cervix in centimeters.

c)

The effacement of the cervix in percentage.

d)

The position of the placenta in the uterus.

63.

How is presentation measured during a vaginal exam?

a)

Leopold’s maneuver, U/S.

b)

Blood pressure measurement, urine analysis.

c)

Auscultation of fetal heart tones, fundal height.

d)

Pelvic X-ray, CT scan.

64.

Why do we need to do vaginal exams?

a)

To assess the progress of labor and detect complications

b)

To determine the gender of the baby

c)

To check for urinary tract infections

d)

To measure blood pressure

65.

A pregnant patient is experiencing vaginal bleeding. A vaginal examination is:

a)

recommended

b)

not recommended

c)

required

d)

dangerous and contraindicated

66.

SATA: What should be assessed immediately after ROM (both AROM & SROM)?

a)

Fetal heart rate

b)

Maternal temperature

c)

Color of amniotic fluid

d)

Cervical effacement

e)

Uterine contraction pressure

67.

How often does maternal temperature need to be taken after rupture of membranes?

a)

Every 12 hours

b)

Every 8 hours

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

Every 2 hours

68.

The greatest risk with ROM is:

a)

Intrauterine infection

b)

Breech delivery

c)

CPD

d)

Unauthorized access to the uterus

69.

RN will know the tocodynamometer is accurately tracing FETAL HR by comparing the tocodynamometer readings with the _______, and the _____ should ideally be 10+ beats ______.

a)

Maternal HR, Fetal HR, Faster

b)

Fetal HR, Maternal HR, Faster

c)

Maternal HR, Fetal HR, Slower

d)

Uterine contraction, Maternal HR, Slower

70.

How is the fetal heart rate baseline assessed?

a)

Average FHR during a monitoring period of 10 minutes

b)

Lowest FHR recorded during labor

c)

Highest FHR recorded during contractions

d)

Average FHR during a 1-minute interval

71.

What is the normal range for fetal heart rate baseline?

a)

110-160 bpm

b)

90-120 bpm

c)

160-200 bpm

d)

80-100 bpm

72.

How long until a fetal heart rate baseline would be considered shifted/changed?

a)

Over 10 minutes with a new average

b)

Over 5 minutes with a new average

c)

Over 20 minutes with a new average

d)

Over 30 minutes with a new average

73.

What are fetal accelerations?

a)

15+ bpm temporary increase in FHR from baseline

b)

10+ bpm temporary decrease in FHR from baseline

c)

Sustained decrease in FHR below 110 bpm

d)

No change in FHR from baseline

74.

What is the difference between using the external monitor and internal monitor to trace fetal heart tones?

a)

Internal monitor is the only way to get a 'clear' picture. ROM is REQUIRED to be able to use internal monitor.

b)

External monitor is more accurate and does not require ROM.

c)

Internal monitor can be used without ROM and is less invasive.

d)

External monitor provides a 'clear' picture and requires ROM.

75.

What are fetal decelerations?

a)

15+ bpm temporary decrease in FHR from baseline

b)

15+ bpm temporary increase in FHR from baseline

c)

Consistent baseline FHR without variation

d)

Permanent decrease in FHR from baseline

76.

How are the different types of decelerations assessed on the monitor strip?

a)

Can be early, late, or variable

b)

Only early decelerations are assessed

c)

Decelerations are not visible on the monitor strip

d)

Assessment is based solely on maternal heart rate

77.

What does VEAL CHOP MINE stand for in fetal heart rate monitoring?

a)

Veal = FHR pattern, Chop = Cause, Mine = Management

b)

Veal = Management, Chop = FHR pattern, Mine = Cause

c)

Veal = Cause, Chop = Management, Mine = FHR pattern

d)

Veal = Monitoring, Chop = Pattern, Mine = Cause

78.

What is the cause of variable deceleration in fetal heart rate?

a)

Cord compression

b)

Placental abruption

c)

Maternal hypotension

d)

Uterine rupture

e)

Fetal infection

79.

What is the cause of early deceleration in fetal heart rate?

a)

Head compression

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

80.

What is the cause of late deceleration in fetal heart rate?

a)

Placental insufficiency

b)

Umbilical cord compression

c)

Fetal movement

d)

Maternal fever

81.

What is the intervention for variable deceleration in fetal heart rate?

a)

Maternal repositioning

b)

Immediate delivery

c)

Administering oxytocin

d)

Performing amniotomy

82.

SATA: What are the components of TTOIV?

a)

TURN OFF THE PITOCIN!

b)

TURN PATIENT ON THEIR SIDE (LATERALLY)!

c)

ADMINISTER O2 THERAPY!

d)

RUN IV FLUIDS WIDE OPEN!

e)

PERFORM VAGINAL EXAM STAT!

83.

What is fetal tachycardia?

a)

Fetal tachycardia: FHR over 160 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

b)

Fetal tachycardia: FHR below 110 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

c)

Fetal tachycardia: FHR over 120 bpm for longer than 5 minutes.

d)

Fetal tachycardia: FHR below 90 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

84.

What is fetal bradycardia?

a)

Fetal bradycardia: FHR under 110 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

b)

Fetal bradycardia: FHR over 160 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

c)

Fetal bradycardia: FHR under 120 bpm for longer than 5 minutes.

d)

Fetal bradycardia: FHR over 120 bpm for longer than 10 minutes.

85.

During the second stage of labor, if a patient has had no pain medication, what would be the best position to be in to allow the fetus to work its way down the birth canal?

a)

Squatting

b)

Lying flat on the back

c)

Sitting in a reclined position

d)

Standing upright

86.

During the third stage of labor, what are the three signs that the HCP assesses to determine if the placenta is ready to be delivered?

a)

A gush of blood, lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a change in the shape of the uterus

b)

Increase in maternal blood pressure, fetal movement, and maternal shivering

c)

Decrease in uterine contractions, maternal nausea, and fetal heart rate drop

d)

Shortening of the umbilical cord, uterine relaxation, and maternal sweating

87.

SATA: The placenta gets expelled by which processes?

a)

Active: administration of Pitocin to force out placenta faster than natural

b)

Active: Relaxation of the uterus force out placenta faster than natural

c)

Active: Expansion of the cervix to pass placenta naturally

d)

Physiological: Absorption by the body to pass placenta naturally

e)

Physiological: Gentle maternal pushing to pass placenta naturally

88.

What is the intervention for early deceleration during labor?

a)

Identify labor progress.

b)

Administer oxytocin.

c)

Prepare for emergency cesarean section.

d)

Increase maternal activity.

89.

What is the intervention for acceleration during labor?

a)

No interventions.

b)

Administer sedatives.

c)

Perform cesarean section immediately.

d)

Restrict maternal movement.

90.

To fit through the pelvis, the fetus must position itself so that the skull's _______ diameter is in line with the _______ diameter of the maternal pelvis.

a)

smallest, largest

b)

smallest, smallest

c)

largest, smallest

d)

largest, largest

91.

Out of the different phases of Stage 1 labor, which one lasts the longest?

a)

latent phase

b)

active phase

c)

transitional phase

d)

postpartum recovery phase

92.

How often should the RN encourage voiding of the mother during all three phases of Stage 1 labor?

a)

every 5-10 minutes

b)

every 30-45 minutes

c)

every 1-2 hours

d)

every 4-8 hours

93.

Fetal attitude is defined as the relationship of fetal parts to each other, determines the part of the head and diameter of the skull that presents.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The mother feeling fetal kicks in the ______ instead of _______ can indicate the fetus is in a breech position.

a)

ribs, pelvis

b)

pelvis, ribs

c)

umbilicus, placenta

d)

placenta, umbilicus

95.

A C-section delivery is ________ in fetuses who are in a breech or transverse presentation.

a)

recommended

b)

contraindicated

c)

not recommended

d)

required

96.

If the fetal station of a baby is written as a negative number between 1 and 5, what does this mean about the location of the fetus?

a)

presenting part is ABOVE the ischial spines

b)

presenting part is BELOW the ischial spines

c)

presenting part is AT the ischial spines

d)

fetus is in breech position

97.

If the fetal station of a baby is written as a positive number between 1 and 5, what does this mean about the location of the fetus?

a)

presenting part is ABOVE the ischial spines

b)

presenting part is BELOW the ischial spines

c)

presenting part is AT the ischial spines

d)

fetus is in breech presentation

98.

If the fetal station of a baby is written as "0", what does this mean about the location of the fetus?

a)

presenting part is ABOVE the ischial spines

b)

presenting part is BELOW the ischial spines

c)

presenting part is AT the ischial spines

d)

fetus is in transverse/shoulder presentation

99.

Engagement is another word for lightening.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

In the BURTH labor assessment, what does the 'T' stand for?

a)

temperature (fetal)

b)

temperature (maternal)

c)

tocodynamometer (fetal)

d)

tocodynamometer (maternal)

101.

In the BURTH labor assessment, what does the 'H' stand for?

a)

heart rate (maternal)

b)

heart rate (paternal)

c)

heart rate (fetal)

d)

head size (fetal)

102.

  SATA: What are the goals of the theory that guides interventions for pain relief?

a)

Relax mom and relieve discomfort

b)

Minimal effect on uterine contractions

c)

Minimal effect on maternal ability to push

d)

MINIMAL EFFECT ON FETUS!

103.

What is the difference between an obstetric analgesic and an obstetric anesthetic?

a)

analgesics are for pain management, anesthetics almost fully remove sensation of contractions

b)

anesthetics are for pain management, analgesics almost fully remove sensation of contractions

c)

analgesics induce labor, while anesthetics augment labor

d)

anesthetics induce labor, while analgesics augment labor

104.

What timeframes, in terms of cervical dilation, are most affective for opioid analgesic administration?

a)

Nulliparas: 2-4 cm

Multiparas: 6-8 cm

b)

Nulliparas: 7-8 cm

Multiparas: 9-10 cm

c)

Nulliparas: 4-5 cm

Multiparas: 3-4 cm

d)

Nulliparas: 1-2 cm

Multiparas: 3-4 cm

105.

SATA: During labor, it is ok to give the mother opioid analgesia when:

a)

FHTs are good

b)

Contraction pattern is well established

c)

Presenting part is engaged

d)

Before effacement has begun

e)

Once crowning occurs

106.

If opioid analgesia is given to a laboring patient too EARLY, what can happen?

a)

Baby will be negatively affected upon delivery

b)

Labor can slow dramatically or stop

c)

Immediate miscarriage

d)

Opioids can be given as soon as labor begins

107.

If a laboring patient is given opioid analgesics too LATE, what can happen?

a)

Infant may explode

b)

Labor can slow dramatically and stop

c)

Baby will be negatively affected upon delivery

d)

Opioids can can be administered continuously until the postpartum period

108.

______ opioids given to the mother can cross the placental barrier.

a)

NO

b)

SOME

c)

MOST

d)

ALL

109.

If the fetus is presenting with late decelerations, and/or there are signs of fetal distress, giving the mother opioid analgesics is:

a)

recommended

b)

required

c)

optional

d)

dangerous and contraindicated

110.

The RN and HCP should make sure that the laboring patient's bladder is ______ before initiating an epidural.

a)

Full

b)

Empty

c)

Removed

d)

Bleeding

111.

What priority interventions need to be performed immediately after placement of epidural?

a)

Ask patient their pain scale, as severe headache is the most serious concern post-epidural.

b)

Determine fetal HR, as early decelerations are the most serious concern post-epidural.

c)

Determine station, as double footling breech is the most serious concern post-epidural.

d)

Take maternal blood pressure, as hypotension is the most serious concern post-epidural.

112.

What does "augmentation" mean in terms of labor?

a)

Chemical or mechanical BOOST to the labor process that has already started NATURALLY

b)

Chemical or mechanical initiation to ripen cervix and/or initiate uterine contractions to stimulate labor BEFORE spontaneous onset

c)

Umbilical cord that protrudes through the cervix and caused cord compression, which compromises fetal circulation

d)

Placenta previa, abruptio placentae, molar pregnancy, miscarriage, ruptured uterus

113.

What does "induction" mean in terms of labor?

a)

Chemical or mechanical initiation to ripen cervix and/or initiate uterine contractions to stimulate labor BEFORE spontaneous onset

b)

Chemical or mechanical BOOST to the labor process that has already started NATURALLY

c)

Stimulation of the smooth muscle of uterus and promotion of milk letdown

d)

Umbilical cord that protrudes through the cervix and caused cord compression, which compromises fetal circulation

114.

Oxytocin is a hormone that is produced endogenously in the body. Which gland produces it?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

posterior pituitary

d)

adrenal

115.

The synthetic version of oxytocin, which is called _____, is used to augment or induce labor.

a)

Cytotec

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Pitocin

d)

Terbutaline

116.

SATA: Select some patient conditions with which the administration of synthetic oxytocin would be contraindicated.

a)

prolapsed cord

b)

transverse or breech fetal presentation

c)

active genital herpes infection

d)

invasive cancer of cervix

e)

cephalopelvic disproportion

117.

SATA: Why is the low-transverse abdominal incision used for C-sections?

a)

does not compromise upper uterine segment

b)

less blood loss

c)

decreased chance of rupture in future pregnancies

d)

heals faster than other incision types

e)

leaves a smaller scar than other incision types

118.

A prolapsed cord is defined as when the umbilical cord protrudes through the cervix and causes cord compression, which compromises fetal _______.

a)

size for gestational age

b)

station and presentation

c)

circulation

d)

position within the maternal pelvis

119.

SATA: The primary intervention needed to treat a prolapsed cord is to RELEIVE PRESSURE ON THE CORD. What other nursing interventions are a priority if this happens?

a)

gently push fingers on presenting part

b)

initiate maternal O2 therapy

c)

place patient in Trendelenburg position

d)

call for help, prepare for emergency C/S

e)

place patient in Sim's position

120.

What is the most important goal if a patient is in preterm labor?

a)

EMERGENCY C/S

b)

GIVE BIRTH STAT

c)

PREVENT BIRTH UNTIL TERM

d)

EMERGENCY D+C

121.

Why may a laboring patient receive an IM injection of corticosteroids?

a)

to strengthen the fetal immune system

b)

to slow FHR

c)

to increase FHR

d)

to stimulate fetal lung maturity

122.

Tocolytics are medications that:

a)

induce labor

b)

augment labor

c)

suppress contractions and uterine activity

d)

cause miscarriage in low doses

123.

SATA: The acronym that is used to remember the tocolytic medications are INMT (It's Not My Time!). What medications go along with these letters?

a)

I: indomethecin (NSAID)

b)

N: nifedipine (CCB)

c)

M: magnesium sulfate

d)

T: terbutaline (adrenergic agonist)

e)

T: tocolytic nebulizers (albuterol)

124.

What is hypertonic uterine dysfunction?

a)

painful, long, and uncoordinated contractions

b)

short, irregular, and weak contractions

c)

rapid, regular contractions

d)

complete lack of contractions

125.

What is hypotonic uterine dysfunction?

a)

Long, painful, and uncoordinated contractions

b)

Short, irregular, and weak contractions

c)

Rapid, regular contractions

d)

Complete loss of contraction