wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Econ Final Prep Questions

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Opportunity Cost is best defined as
a)
The best rejected alternative you give up when making a decision 
b)
The price you pay to purchase something 
c)
The benefit you gain by making a decision 
d)
The amount of debt you take on by making a decision 
2.
The four types of economic systems are: 
a)
Traditional, Command, Mixed, & Market
b)
Traditional, Command, Combined, & Market
c)
Communism, Capitalism, Free Market, and Macroeconomics
d)
Microeconomics, Macroeconomics, Individual, and Traditional.
3.

Too much money in an economy can cause inflation

a)

true

b)

false

4.

One measure of a nation’s economic health is __________. This is the total value of all goods & services produced in a country each year. 

a)

Macroeconomics 

b)

The economy

c)

microeconomics

d)

Gross domestic product (GDP) 

5.

What customary role does the United States government play related to refineries and factories?

a)

takes control if they do not make a profit. 

b)

regulates their release of pollutants into the atmosphere

c)

tells refineries and factory owners what they are allowed to produce. 

d)

It tells the owners how much they are allowed to produce. 

6.

Which of these is NOT an advantage of the free market?

a)

growth & innovation

b)

freedom of choice

c)

no private ownership

d)

variety of goods

7.

In a pure market system, who controls production?

a)

Government

b)

Businesses

c)

Individuals

8.

What is a mixed economic system?

a)

both individuals and government make decisions

b)

completed run by the government

c)

Individuals make the decisions

d)

Corporations make the decisions

9.

What is specialization?

a)

resources to produce a single or few kinds of goods/services

b)

amount of goods/services produced by a worker or business in a given time frame

c)

Not enough of a certain resource to satisfy persons wants or needs

d)

Workers

10.

What are the 4 factors of production?

a)

Natural resources

b)

capital

c)

Air

d)

labor

e)

entrepreneurs

11.

A graph that shows the alternative ways to use resources

a)

bar graph

b)

line graph

c)

pie chart

d)

production possibilities frontier

12.

Economic system where central authority is in charge of the economy

a)

market economy

b)

capitalism

c)

privatization

d)

command economy

13.

risk-taking individual in search of profits

a)

regulator

b)

entrepreneur

c)

mixed economy

d)

catalyst

e)

consumer

14.

What is the role of producers?

a)

Make the product

b)

Buy the product

c)

to carry out a government economic program

d)

to increase the profit of other established retail stores

15.

Something essential for survival

a)

Want

b)

Need

c)

Good

d)

Service

16.
What is economics?
a)
The study of money
b)

The study of how people choose to use limited resources to satisfy their wants

c)

The study of how governments allocates scarce resources to satisfy people's unlimited wants.

d)
The study of the past
17.

Which of the following is not one of the three basic questions economists try to solve?

a)

What should be produced?

b)

How should it be produced?

c)

Who gets what is produced?

d)

When should it be produced?

18.

A public good

a)

can be shared and is excludable

b)

is excludable and isn't shared

c)

can be shared and isn't excludable

d)

isn't shared and isn't excludable

19.

In a monopoly, customers will pay a higher price because there are no alternative products to those of the supplier.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Why might the government institute a price control?

a)

to allow monopolies to exist.

b)

to raise the prices of all goods.

c)

to help curb inflation and create balance in the marketplace.

d)

to favor businesses they support.

21.

Define Antitrust legislation

a)
A law that regulates international trade agreements.
b)
A policy that encourages government monopolies.
c)
A set of rules for corporate tax benefits.
d)
Antitrust legislation is a set of laws aimed at promoting competition and preventing monopolies.
22.

How does the government promote competition?

a)

By allowing businesses to do whatever they want

b)

By providing public goods

c)

By creating laws to regulate/prevent monopolies

d)

By ameliorating negative externalities

23.

What are public goods?

a)

Goods and services provided by the government for everyone to enjoy

b)

Goods and services provided by private companies

c)

Goods and services that can be denied to a particular subset of the population

d)

Goods and services that are highly profitable

24.

Why does the government set market standards?

a)

To issue income tax refunds

b)

To promote uncertainty

c)

To eliminate the need for taxes

d)

To ensure fair and consistent measurements

25.

In order to correct an instability in the US economy, the government can (there are TWO correct answers; choose both)

a)

Increase or decrease taxes

b)

Increase or decrease spending

c)

Change the discount rate

d)

Go back on the gold standard

26.

This kind of policy is used by government at the federal, state, and local levels to regulate economic growth

a)

Fiscal policy

b)

Physical policy

c)

Monetary policy

d)

Tariffs

27.

Policies used by the Federal Reserve to regulate the money supply

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Taxes and tariffs

d)

Currency

28.

Water, Wood, Oil and rocks are all examples of what type of resource?

a)

Natural

b)

Capital

c)

Human

29.

Which of these productive resources includes factories, tools, trucks, machines, and computers?

a)

Natural

b)

Capital

c)

Human

30.

A teacher who provides a service is an example of a.....

a)

Natural Resource

b)

Human Resource

c)

Capital Resource

d)

All of the above

31.

A sewing machine would be an example of a .....

a)

human resource

b)

capital resource

c)

natural resource

d)

none of the above

32.
Who or what answers the basic economic questions in a mixed economy?
a)
Individuals and Businesses
b)
Government
c)
Custom
d)
Individuals, Businesses, and Government
33.

In which of these situations would a manufacturer decide to produce more units?

a)

The marginal cost is greater than the marginal benefit.

b)

The wants are less than the needs.

c)

The marginal benefit is less than the marginal cost.

d)

The marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost.

34.

What is the act of giving up one benefit in order to gain another, greater benefit?

a)

scarcity

b)

opportunity cost

c)

trade-offs

d)

want

35.

What is the term used to describe a temporary low supply of a good or service?

a)

need

b)

scarcity

c)

shortage

d)

want

36.

A point inside of the production possibilities curve would indicate which of the following?

a)

an increase in production

b)

a decrease in technology

c)

a decrease in available resources

d)

available resources that are remaining idle/unused

37.

Efficient production exists when the economy is

a)

operating underneath its production possibilities curve

b)

operating on its production possibilities curve

c)

operating outside its production possibilities curve

d)

in a recession

38.
A company that makes baseball caps is underutilizing its resources. What does this mean?
a)
The company is running more efficiently than its competitors.
b)
The company is paying its employees less than it should be.
c)
The company is making caps when it could be making t-shirts instead.
d)
The company is producing fewer caps than it could be.
39.

A person who purchases a good or service

a)

consumer

b)

taxes

c)

supply

d)

good

40.

A cost and benefit analysis refers to the positive and negative effects making a certain decision

a)

True

b)

False

41.
Which concept is most fundamentally related to scarcity?
a)
Choice
b)
External costs
c)
Benefits
d)
Learned behaviors
42.

Someone who buys or uses goods and services.

a)

producer

b)

services

c)

consumer

43.

This is where buyers and sellers exchange goods and services.

a)

government

b)

economics

c)

market

44.

What type of economy is based on trading and bartering?

a)

Socialist

b)

Traditional

c)

Free Enterprise

d)

Command

45.
Consumers are willing to buy more at lower prices than higher prices
a)
law of demand
b)
law of supply 
c)
law of inverse
d)
scarcity 
46.
The law of demand states that as the price increases then 
a)
quantity demanded increases
b)
quantity demanded decreases
c)
demand increases
d)
demand decreases
47.
For the law of supply, as price rises, what happens to quantity supplied?
a)
it goes up
b)
it goes down
c)
it stays the same
d)
it is not effected
48.
For the law of demand, as price rises, what happens to quantity demanded?
a)
it goes up
b)
it goes down
c)
it stays the same
d)
it is not effected
49.

Which of the following leads to an increase in supply?

a)

Gallery Furniture will raise prices on all wood furniture

b)

six new companies begin producing smart phones

c)

price of a complementary good goes down

d)

increased cyclical employment

50.
This part of the market determines SUPPLY
a)
buyers
b)
sellers
c)
consumers
d)
us
51.

When producers offer more of a good as its price increases and less as its price falls, this defines the

a)

law of demand

b)

law of supply

c)

change in demand

d)

change in supply

52.

The Law of Supply states that when the price of a good DECREASES, quantity supplied (Qs)...

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

53.

Which of the following are examples of substitute goods?

a)

Pens and pencils

b)

Tea and coffee

c)

Gasoline and cars

d)

Peanut butter and jelly

54.

Anything that affects the buying decision, other than the product's price, will change demand. These are determinants of demand.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What changes quantity demanded?

a)

Consumer tastes and preferences.

b)

Price of a complementary good.

c)

Price of a good.

d)

Price of a substitute good.

56.

The Law of Demand states that when the price of a good DECREASES, quantity demanded (Qd)

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

57.

The Law of Demand states that when the price of a good INCREASES, quantity demanded (Qd)

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

58.

Hot wings and ranch represent which type of goods?

a)

Substitute goods

b)

Complementary goods

59.

According to the law of supply, as prices increase, quantity supplied will _____

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

d)

change occasionally

60.

The law of supply says that there is a ________ relationship between price and quantity supplied.

a)

inverse

b)

direct

c)

no relationship at all

61.

The __________ effect occurs when changes in price affect the purchasing power of customers. They can purchase less with the money they have.

a)

law of diminshing marginal utility

b)

substitution effect

c)

income effect

62.

____________ is another word for utility.

a)

supply

b)

demand

c)

satisfaction

63.

As you consume a product or service, you will eventually get less additional utility from each unit consumed. This is called the _______

a)

income effect

b)

law of diminishing marginal utility

c)

substitution effect

64.

The entire demand curve can only shift if something other than price changes.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following is NOT a shifter of demand?

a)

tastes/preferences

b)

number of consumers

c)

price of related goods

d)

income

e)

taxes

66.

What is a Sole Proprietorship?

a)

A business where 2 or more people share ownership

b)

A business owned by shareholders

c)

A business that is owned by one individual

67.

Business owned by shareholders is

a)

Partnership

b)

Sole proprietorship

c)

Corporation

d)

Franchise

68.

Google, Amazon, and Facebook are examples of...

a)

Sole Proprietorships

b)

Partnerships

c)

Corporations

69.
Which type of business structure is the most common type of business in the U.S.A.?
a)
Corporation
b)
Sole Proprietorship
c)
Partnership
d)
LLC
70.

What is an entrepreneur?

a)

Risk-taking individuals who introduce new products or services in search of profit; one of the four factors of production.

b)

People with all their abilities and efforts; one of the four factors of production.

c)

Cost of the next best alternative use of money, time, or resources, when one choice is made rather than another.

d)

Alternative that must be given up when one choice is made rather than another.

71.

All firms in a __________________________ market must accept the market price and are called price takers.

a)

pure competition

b)

monopolistic competition

c)

oligopoly

d)

monopoly

72.

Check all of the market structures that have a high barrier to entry:

a)

Pure competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

73.

Which market structure would be easy to enter, but require lots of advertising to differentiate the new product?

a)

Pure competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

74.

A dividend is a portion of a company’s profit paid out to

a)

the government for taxes

b)

shareholders of the company

c)

each partner of the business

d)

the sole proprietor

75.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a sole proprietorship?

a)

limited lifespan

b)

high taxes

c)

legal constraints

d)

difficult to start up

76.

Stocks are:

a)

promises to repay a loan.

b)

also known as bonds.

c)

issued by sole proprietorships.

d)

shares of ownership of a corporation.

77.

Most large businesses are

a)

sole proprietorships.

b)

general partnerships.

c)

corporations.

d)

cooperatives.

78.

Advertisements and giveaways are examples of _______________________.

a)

collusion

b)

non-price competition

c)

price-fixing

d)

price leadership

79.

Liability is the

a)

necessity to do a lot of paper work.

b)

requirement to offer fringe benefits.

c)

legal obligation to pay debts.

d)

opportunity of the sole proprietor to keep all profits after taxes.

80.

An industry comprised of four firms, each with about 25 percent of the total market for a product is an example of:

a)

monopolistic competition

b)

oligopoly

c)

pure monopoly

d)

pure competition

81.

A one-firm industry is known as:

a)

monopolistic competition.

b)

oligopoly.

c)

monopoly.

d)

perfect competition.

82.

Franchisors usually provide all of the listed items except....

a)

Advertising

b)

Training

c)

Loan

d)

Equipment

83.

The Red Cross, museums, National Education Association and labor unions are all examples of

a)

Non-profit organizations

b)

S corporations

c)

consumer cooperatives

d)

producer cooperatives

84.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a corporation?

a)

Ownership through shares of stock

b)

Owned by a single individual

c)

Unlimited liability for owners

d)

Limited lifespan

85.

In a partnership, who is responsible for the debts of the business?

a)

No one is responsible

b)

Only the partner who signed the contract

c)

All partners share responsibility

d)

Only the managing partner

86.

Which of the following industries is an example of a monopoly?

a)

utilities/water

b)

department stores

c)

auto industry

d)

commercial airlines

87.
The jeans industry would fall into what type of market structure? ( jeans are similar but there are some differences in the product)
a)
monopoly
b)
oligopoly
c)
perfect competition
d)
monopolistic competition
88.

Public utilities are an example.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Natural Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

89.

A market that has a few sellers of basically the same goods.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Pure Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

90.

A plan of your expected income and how you will use it to meet your expected expenses over a period of time

a)

income

b)

budget

c)

plan

d)

statement

91.

Expenses that are essential for you to be able to live and function

a)

wants

b)

cost of living

c)

needs

d)

variable expenses

92.

A fee paid to you for keeping your money in an account OR a fee charged to you for a loan or credit card

a)

maintenance

b)

annual percentage (APR)

c)

insurance

d)

interest

93.

Money you put into your account

a)

deposit

b)

balance

c)

income

d)

expense

94.

A measurement of your assets minus your liabilities is ____________.

a)

spending money

b)

net worth

c)

liabilities

d)

payments

95.

The amount of money you have in your bank account

a)

balance

b)

deposit

c)

income

d)

credit

96.

A fixed amount that you are paid over a period of time, regardless of how many hours you work

a)

budget

b)

revenue

c)

wage

d)

salary

97.

Items or services you pay for such as rent, groceries, entertainment, bills, etc.

a)

credits

b)

expense

c)

liability

d)

revenue

98.

Protects the deposits of customers against loss up to $250,000 per account

a)

FDIC insurance

b)

life insurance

c)

home insurance

d)

renters insurance

99.

 A card that allows the holder to make purchases without cash by borrowing money

a)

Credit Card

b)

Debit Card

c)

Apple Pay

d)

Google Pay

100.

Developing a personal budget is an effective way to:

a)

calculate assets

b)

increase debt

c)

pay bills

d)

manage money

101.

Which of the following is a variable expense that Jake must consider when developing his personal budget:

a)

Anticipated salary increases

b)

Unexpected car repairs

c)

fixed car-loan payments

d)

homeowner insurance premiums

102.

Which of the following is a possible consequence of having one's identity stolen

a)

homelessness

b)

unemployment

c)

need for new identity

d)

damage to credit history

103.

When Charles receives a check four times a year for income he has earned on his stock investments, he is receiving

a)

deposits

b)

cash

c)

dividends

d)

credit

104.

The disadvantage to using credit cards to pay for goods and services is that you

a)

defer cash payments

b)

pay interest on purchases

c)

establish a credit rating

d)

earn quarterly dividents

105.
Describes very little a change in demand with a large change in price 
a)
elastic 
b)
inelastic 
c)
demand curve 
d)
price 
106.
The price elasticity of demand measures how much
a)
quantity demanded responds to a change in price.
b)
quantity demanded responds to a change in income.
c)
price responds to a change in demand.
d)
demand responds to a change in supply.
107.
A key determinant of the price elasticity of supply is
a)
the ability of sellers to change the price of the good they produce.
b)
the ability of sellers to change the amount of the good they produce.
c)
how responsive buyers are to changes in sellers' prices.
d)
the slope of the demand curve.
108.
Income elasticity of demand measures how
a)
the quantity demanded changes as consumer income changes.
b)
consumer purchasing power is affected by a change in the price of a good.
c)

the price of a good is affected when there is a change in consumer income.

d)
many units of a good a consumer can buy given a certain income level.
109.

Scarcity arises because all societies have

a)

limited productive resources to satisfy unlimited wants

b)

unlimited productive resources to satisfy limited wants

c)

limited needs and unlimited wants

d)

unlimited needs and limited wants

110.

Which of these is the fundamental human resources on which labor is based?

a)

skills

b)

intelligence

c)

productive capacity

d)

time

111.

Most economies today are

a)

pure command economies

b)

pure market economies

c)

traditional economies

d)

mixed economies

112.

Which of the following is not true of a pure market economy?

a)

resource owners have property rights

b)

markets are regulated by government

c)

prices guide resources to the most productive use

d)

markets answer the what, how, and for whom questions

113.

A public utility is

a)

any company whose records are open to the public

b)

a government owned and regulated monopoly

c)

an individually owned monopoly whose records are open to the public

d)

a company owned jointly by the citizens of the community

114.

Long-lasting monopolies are rare because

a)

they are generally outlawed by the government

b)

there is too much foreign competition

c)

a profitable monopoly attracts competitors and substitutes

d)

consumers avoid buying from monopolies because of higher prices

115.

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of supply?

a)

producers expectations

b)

technology used to make the good

c)

consumer expectations

d)

the number of sellers in the world

116.

A market sorts out the conflicting views of price between demanders and suppliers. In short, markets _______.

a)

reduce transaction costs

b)

increase transaction costs

c)

have little effect on transaction costs

d)

eliminate transaction costs

117.

The law of comparative advantage helps explain

a)

opportunity costs

b)

how economists work

c)

why a person talented in many things can get more done by specializing

d)

why some products do better than others

118.

A surplus causes

a)

new workers to be hired

b)

producers to increase their price to the equilibrium price

c)

consumers to pay more for goods

d)

producers to lower their price to the equilibrium price

119.

Elasticity of supply indicates

a)

how quickly producers can provide a product

b)

how responsive producers are to a change in price

c)

how much the product costs

d)

how many products are in stock

120.

Which of these explain why a homeowner would pay more on a weekend to have a furnace repaired?

a)

time price of this service

b)

money price of this service

c)

relative price of this service

d)

dollar price of this service

121.

With supply, the assumption is that producers try to maximize utility.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Lenders typically charge higher interest on car loans than on something like home loans because houses do lose their value and cars do.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

There are 2 ways to earn a return from owning corporate stock: 1) stockholders may receive a dividend or 2) if they sell the stock for more than they paid for it, they earn a capital gain.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Goods and services are bought and sold in a resource market.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Private corporations account for the overwhelming share of corporations in the US.

a)

True

b)

False