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Unit 4 Mitosis, DNA Replication, and Protein Synthesis Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A cell spends the majority of its time in which phase of the cell cycle, performing its normal functions and preparing for division?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Telophase

2.

Which part of the cell cycle is typically the shortest duration, encompassing mitosis and cytokinesis?

a)

G1

b)

S phase

c)

G2

d)

M phase

3.

How do the two daughter cells produced at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in the G1 phase?

a)

They have the same number of chromosomes but half the amount of DNA.

b)

They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

c)

They have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.

d)

They have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.

4.

Which checkpoint in the cell cycle is responsible for ensuring that all kinetochores are properly attached to the spindle fibers before proceeding to anaphase?

a)

The G1/S checkpoint

b)

The G2/M checkpoint

c)

The Metaphase/Anaphase (Spindle) checkpoint

d)

The S phase replication checkpoint

5.

If the G2/M checkpoint fails in a cell, what is the most likely outcome?

a)

The cell will not proceed to synthesize DNA.

b)

The cell may proceed to mitosis with damaged or unreplicated DNA.

c)

The cell may stop dividing and enter the G0 phase.

d)

The spindle fibers will fail to attach to the chromosomes.

6.

The correct chronological order of the phases of mitosis, as represented by the images provided (excluding interphase/cytokinesis), is:

a)

D, A, B, E

b)

A, B, E, D

c)

D, A, B, E

d)

C, D, A, B

7.

How does cytokinesis primarily occur in animal cells?

a)

A cell plate forms from fused vesicles along the midplane.

b)

A new cell wall is synthesized to separate the two nuclei.

c)

An actomyosin contractile ring forms a cleavage furrow that constricts and divides the cytoplasm.

d)

The nuclei divide before the cytoplasm, resulting in a multinucleated cell.

8.

The process by which DNA replication occurs, resulting in each new DNA molecule having one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand, is known as:

a)

Conservative replication

b)

Semiconservative replication

c)

Dispersive replication

d)

Rolling-circle replication

9.

Which investigator's experiments using X-ray diffraction were crucial in determining the 3D double helix shape of the DNA molecule?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Erwin Chargaff

c)

Hershey and Chase

d)

Rosalind Franklin

10.

What type of weak chemical bond connects the paired nitrogenous bases across the two backbones of the DNA double helix?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Covalent (Phosphate) bonds

c)

Sulfur bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

11.

According to Chargaff's rules, if Cytosine (C) makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of double-stranded DNA, what percentage of the nucleotides will be Thymine (T)?

a)

84%

b)

42%

c)

16%

d)

8%

12.

The backbone of a DNA strand is structurally composed of:

a)

Nucleotides and phosphate groups connected by deoxyribose sugars.

b)

Ribose sugar and phosphate groups connected by hydrogen bonds.

c)

Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate groups connected by covalent bonds.

d)

Deoxyribose sugar and nucleotides connected by hydrogen bonds.

13.

DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle. The specific location where the double helix unwinds and new strands are synthesized is called the:

a)

Centromere

b)

Replication starting block

c)

Replication fork

d)

AUG sequence

14.

How does the synthesis of the leading strand differ from the lagging strand during DNA replication?

a)

The lagging strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the leading strand.

b)

The leading strand is synthesized toward the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized away from it.

c)

The leading strand is synthesized continuously, while the lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments (Okazaki fragments) that are later joined.

d)

The leading strand is synthesized by DNA Ligase, and the lagging strand by DNA Polymerase.

15.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the DNA double helix together at the replication fork?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA Primase

d)

Helicase

16.

In the process of DNA replication, which enzyme links the Okazaki fragments together to complete the lagging strand?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Primase

d)

DNA Ligase

17.

Cytosine and Thymine are nitrogenous bases that are characterized by having a single carbon ring. What category of bases do they belong to?

a)

Purines (double ring)

b)

RNA bases only

c)

Pyrimidines

d)

Both RNA and DNA bases

18.

What was the conclusion drawn from the results of the Hershey-Chase experiment, where radioactive material was found inside the bacterial cells but was found outside the protein coats?

a)

DNA, not protein, is the genetic material transmitted by viruses.

b)

Protein is the genetic material, and DNA serves only as structural support.

c)

Both DNA and protein equally enter bacterial cells to carry genetic information.

d)

The radioactivity indicated contamination and the experiment had no clear conclusion.

19.

A segment of DNA that contains the instructions to specify the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is called a:

a)

Sister chromatid

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Gene

20.

The process where a ribosome uses the sequence of codons in an mRNA molecule to produce a polypeptide with a specific sequence of amino acids is called:

a)

Transcription (DNA to mRNA)

b)

Replication (DNA to DNA)

c)

Translation

d)

Elongation

21.

Which cellular organelle is primarily responsible for performing the process of translation?

a)

The nucleus (Transcription occurs here)

b)

The mitochondria

c)

The chloroplast

d)

The ribosome

22.

During post-transcriptional processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA), which sequences are removed from the pre-mRNA molecule, and which sequences are joined together to form the mature mRNA?

a)

Introns are removed, and exons are joined together

b)

Exons are removed, and introns are joined together

c)

Codons are removed, and anti-codons are joined together

d)

Uracils are removed, and thymines are joined together

23.

The difference in structure and function between a human muscle cell and a nerve cell is primarily due to:

a)

Nerve cells being haploid and muscle cells being diploid.

b)

Having different sets of chromosomes.

c)

Nerve cells and muscle cells expressing different genes in the genome.

d)

Muscle cells expressing genes only on the X chromosome.

24.

A substitution in the first nucleotide of an mRNA codon often has a larger effect on the resulting polypeptide than a substitution in the third nucleotide because:

a)

Substitutions in the first position always cause nonsense mutations.

b)

The third nucleotide determines the sugar-phosphate backbone.

c)

Substitutions in the first position are more likely to change the encoded amino acid (e.g., AUG UUG), while the third position often results in a synonymous/silent mutation (e.g., UAU UAC).

d)

The first nucleotide controls the bonding between the tRNA and the amino acid.

25.

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a gene mutation where the mRNA codon GAG (Glutamic acid) is mutated to GUG (Valine). This change in a single base pair that results in a change in the encoded amino acid is a type of point mutation best described as a:

a)

Silent mutation (no amino acid change)

b)

Frameshift mutation (insertion or deletion)

c)

Missense (substitution) mutation

d)

Nonsense mutation (premature stop codon)

26.

Which scientist(s) is/are credited with isolating "nuclein," the phosphate-rich acidic compound from the nuclei of white blood cells, which was later identified as DNA?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Friedrich Miescher

d)

Erwin Chargaff

27.

According to Chargaff's rules, which of the following statements is always true for the DNA of any species?

a)

The amount of adenine equals the amount of guanine.

b)

The total purines equal the total pyrimidines.

c)

The percentage of cytosine is equal to the percentage of guanine.

28.

The major significance of the Hershey and Chase Blender Experiment was that it showed:

a)

DNA is a double helix structure.

b)

DNA, not protein, is the molecule of inheritance transferred into bacteria.

c)

DNA replication is semi-conservative.

d)

Bacteria can be transformed into a pathogenic strain.

29.

A nucleotide is the monomer of DNA and is specifically composed of which three molecules?

a)

A sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and two nitrogenous bases.

b)

A nucleoside, an adenine, and a phosphate group.

c)

Two phosphate groups, a ribose sugar, and one nitrogenous base.

d)

A five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and one nitrogenous base.

30.

Why is the structure of DNA inherently suited to storing vast amounts of genetic information?

a)

It is capable of assuming a wide variety of shapes.

b)

Its sugars and phosphates can be arranged in many different sequences.

c)

It is composed of 20 different nucleotides.

d)

Its nitrogenous bases/nucleotides can be arranged in many possible sequences.

31.

The two DNA strands run in opposite directions, with one orienting 5' to 3' and the other 3' to 5'. This arrangement is known as:

a)

Complementary base pairing

b)

A double helix

c)

Antiparallel configuration

d)

Nucleotide excision repair

32.

Which components are covalently linked to alternate to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of a polynucleotide chain?

a)

Base and sugar

b)

Base and phosphate

c)

Adenine and thymine

d)

Sugar and phosphate

33.

DNA synthesis proceeds only in the 5' to 3' direction because the enzymes responsible for synthesis, DNA Polymerases, can only add new nucleotides to which part of a growing strand?

a)

The 5' end of the sugar.

b)

The phosphate group.

c)

The nitrogenous base.

d)

The 3’ end of a polynucleotide strand.

34.

Which molecule/component is NOT typically present in the structure of a DNA double helix?

a)

A major groove

b)

A deoxyribose sugar

c)

A complementary base pair

d)

Uracil

35.

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the short RNA primers needed to initiate DNA replication on both the leading and lagging strands?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Ligase

d)

Primase

36.

The short segments of newly synthesized DNA created on the lagging strand during replication are named after their discoverers, who were:

a)

James Watson and Francis Crick

b)

Matthew Meselson and Frank Stahl

c)

Tsuneo and Reiji Okazaki

d)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

37.

The function of Topoisomerase during DNA replication is to:

a)

Break the hydrogen bonds between bases.

b)

Stabilize the separated single strands.

c)

Help relieve the strain on the DNA when unwinding by causing, then resealing, breaks in the DNA.

d)

Proofread and correct replication errors.

38.

DNA replication is termed semi-conservative because each newly synthesized DNA molecule contains:

a)

Two completely new strands.

b)

One parental (original) strand and one newly synthesized strand.

c)

Two parental strands.

d)

Half purines and half pyrimidines.

39.

What are the roles of Single-strand binding proteins (SSBs) at the replication fork?

a)

To synthesize a new strand of DNA.

b)

To replace RNA primers with DNA.

c)

To join Okazaki fragments together.

d)

To bind to single-stranded DNA and prevent the helix from re-forming before replication can occur.

40.

In eukaryotes, the enzyme responsible for preventing the shortening of linear chromosomes during replication by adding repetitive sequences to the ends is:

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

Telomerase

41.

Which of the following is an advantage of compartmentalization (separating processes into discrete steps) in eukaryotic cells compared to prokaryotic cells?

a)

RNA and protein synthesis occur much more quickly.

b)

DNA and RNA are synthesized in the same location as protein synthesis.

c)

The chromosome lies in the cytoplasm in an area called the nucleoid.

d)

It allows the cell to build more complex protein and RNA products.

42.

The initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA that occurs during replication is:

a)

Nucleotide excision repair

b)

Mismatch repair

c)

DNA Polymerase proofreading

d)

Thymine dimer removal

43.

Which statement is NOT a true difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA replication?

a)

Eukaryotic DNA replication has multiple origins of replication, while prokaryotic replication has a single origin.

b)

Eukaryotic DNA replication generally uses more types of DNA polymerases than prokaryotic replication.

c)

Prokaryotic replication occurs much faster than eukaryotic replication.

d)

DNA replication always occurs in the nucleus.

44.

Which process is responsible for repairing DNA damage caused by UV exposure, such as thymine dimers, by cutting out the damaged segment?

a)

Mismatch repair

b)

DNA Polymerase proofreading

c)

Nucleotide excision repair

d)

Telomere extension

45.

What is the role of DNA Ligase in the nucleotide excision repair pathway?

a)

To detect and remove the incorrect base.

b)

To synthesize the new DNA to fill the gap.

c)

To form the final phosphodiester bond between the new DNA and the old DNA.

d)

To separate the two DNA strands.

46.

What are the two major phases of the cell cycle for a typical somatic cell?

a)

G1 and G2 phases

b)

Mitosis and Meiosis

c)

Interphase and the Mitotic (M) phase

d)

DNA synthesis and Cytokinesis

47.

A cell that has temporarily or permanently ceased to actively prepare to divide is said to be in which phase?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

G0 phase (Gap 0)

48.

In the context of the cell cycle, what key process occurs during the S phase?

a)

Cell growth and energy replenishment

b)

DNA synthesis (chromosome duplication)

c)

Separation of sister chromatids

d)

Nuclear division (Karyokinesis)

49.

Which event marks the beginning of the M phase and involves the division of the nucleus?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Karyokinesis (Mitosis)

c)

Interphase

d)

G1 phase

50.

The first level of DNA organization in a eukaryotic cell involves the DNA wrapping around a core of 8 histone proteins. The resulting bead-like structure is called a(n):

a)

Centromere

b)

Sister chromatid

c)

Nucleosome

d)

Chromatin fiber

51.

In a duplicated chromosome, the two identical copies of DNA and associated proteins are collectively called sister chromatids and are held together specifically at a region called the:

a)

Kinetochore

b)

Centromere

c)

Metaphase plate

d)

Nucleosome

52.

A cell from a human kidney (a somatic cell) typically has two matched sets of chromosomes. This condition is described as:

a)

Haploid (1n)

b)

Tetraploid (4n)

c)

Diploid (2n)

d)

Homologous

53.

During which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes, aided by condensin proteins, coil tighter and become visible under a light microscope, while the nucleolus disappears?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

54.

The M checkpoint (spindle checkpoint) of the cell cycle occurs at the end of which mitotic stage?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

55.

In which stage of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up along the cell's imaginary central plane, known as the metaphase plate?

a)

Prometaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

56.

Which event is characteristic of Telophase, but NOT of Prometaphase?

a)

Chromosomes coil tighter.

b)

Spindle microtubules form.

c)

Centrosomes migrate to poles.

d)

Nuclear envelopes form around the separate chromosome sets.

57.

The correct order of major events during the full mitotic phase (mitosis + cytokinesis) is:

a)

S, G2, M

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

c)

G1, S, G2, M

d)

Karyokinesis (mitosis), Cytokinesis

58.

The physical separation of the cytoplasm into two daughter cells during cytokinesis in animal cells is achieved by the formation of a contractile ring, which creates a deep indentation called the:

a)

Cell plate

b)

Cleavage furrow

c)

Septum

d)

Metaphase plate

59.

Cytokinesis in plant cells is achieved by the formation of a structure from the fusion of Golgi vesicles at the metaphase plate, ultimately leading to a new cell wall. This structure is the:

a)

Cleavage furrow

b)

Contractile ring

c)

Cell plate

d)

FtsZ ring

60.

Prokaryotes (like bacteria) propagate by a cell division process called binary fission. Which of the following eukaryotic mitotic phases is absent in binary fission?

a)

Cell growth

b)

DNA duplication

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Karyokinesis (mitosis, or nuclear division)

61.

In binary fission, the FtsZ proteins are essential because they:

a)

Duplicated the circular chromosome.

b)

Function like histones to package the DNA.

c)

Form a ring that directs the formation of the septum to divide the cell.

d)

Pull the duplicated chromosomes to opposite ends of the cell.

62.

Which of the cell cycle checkpoints has the most critical role in ensuring that all chromosomes have been accurately replicated and that the replicated DNA is not damaged before the cell enters the M phase?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

Spindle assembly (M) checkpoint

63.

Which category of cell cycle regulators acts as an accelerator to promote movement to the next step of the cell cycle?

a)

Negative Regulators

b)

Positive Regulators

c)

Tumor Suppressor Genes

d)

Proto-oncogenes

64.

Which molecule is a negative regulator that, when activated by cell damage, can temporarily stop the cell cycle or trigger cell suicide (apoptosis) if the damage cannot be repaired?

a)

Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)

b)

Cyclin

c)

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

d)

p53

65.

A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that codes for a positive cell cycle regulator. When this gene mutates in a way that leads to uncontrolled cell division, it becomes a(n):

a)

Kinase inhibitor

b)

Tumor suppressor gene

c)

Oncogene

d)

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

66.

Which nitrogenous base is typically found only in RNA molecules, substituting for Thymine (T) found in DNA?

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Cytosine (C)

d)

Uracil (U)

67.

The pentose sugar found in RNA is Ribose, which differs from the Deoxyribose sugar in DNA because Ribose contains:

a)

An extra carbon atom

b)

Uracil instead of Thymine

c)

An extra hydroxyl (OH) group on the carbon

d)

An extra phosphate group

68.

The overall flow of genetic information in a cell—from DNA to mRNA to protein—is described by which fundamental concept in biology?

a)

Semi-conservative replication

b)

The wobble hypothesis

c)

The Central Dogma

d)

The process of gene duplication

69.

In a eukaryotic cell, where do the processes of transcription and translation occur, respectively?

a)

Both occur on the ribosome

b)

Nucleus; Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus; Ribosome (in the cytoplasm/ER)

d)

Cytoplasm; Nucleus

70.

The enzyme responsible for unwinding the DNA helix and synthesizing the new RNA strand by adding complementary nucleotides is:

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

RNA Polymerase

71.

RNA synthesis (transcription) always occurs in which direction along the growing RNA strand?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

3’ to 3’

c)

5’ to 5’

d)

5’ to 3’

72.

Which specialized sequence of DNA, located upstream of a gene, acts as the binding site for RNA polymerase to initiate transcription?

a)

Codon

b)

Exon

c)

Promoter

d)

Intron

73.

In prokaryotic transcription, what are two mechanisms by which the process of termination (ending RNA synthesis) can occur?

a)

Poly-A tail addition and 5' cap addition

b)

Rho protein interaction and formation of an mRNA hairpin

c)

Spliceosome binding and ligation

d)

Promoter recognition and helicase unwinding

74.

Which of the following alterations are made to a eukaryotic pre-mRNA transcript to convert it into mature mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?

a)

Removal of exons, addition of a poly-A tail, and a 5' cap.

b)

Removal of introns, addition of a poly-A tail, and a methylguanosine cap.

c)

Removal of the promoter, addition of exons, and the formation of a polyribosome.

d)

Conversion of all Uracil bases to Thymine bases.

75.

The non-coding segments of a pre-mRNA molecule that must be precisely removed or "spliced out" before the mRNA is mature and can be translated are called:

a)

Polypeptides

b)

Introns

c)

Exons

d)

Codons

76.

What is the predicted length of a mature mRNA transcript, excluding the cap and tail, given a pre-mRNA structure of: (Exon 100bp) - (Intron 50bp) - (Exon 75bp) - (Intron 90bp) - (Exon 120bp)?

a)

140bp

b)

220bp

c)

295bp

d)

435bp

77.

The specialized molecules that serve as a bridge, reading the codons and delivering the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain, are:

a)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

b)

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

c)

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

d)

DNA Polymerase

78.

Which type of chemical bond forms between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another, linking them together to create a polypeptide chain?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Phosphodiester bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Ionic bond

79.

During the elongation phase of translation, which ribosomal site accepts the incoming tRNA molecule carrying the next amino acid for the polypeptide chain?

a)

P-site (Peptidyl)

b)

E-site (Exit)

c)

A-site (Aminoacyl)

d)

Ribosome Large Subunit

80.

The base pairing rules between the mRNA codon and the tRNA anticodon during translation are:

a)

A with T, G with C

b)

A with U, G with C, with the tRNA anticodon reading 5’ to 3’

c)

A with U, G with C, with the tRNA anticodon pairing in an antiparallel orientation

d)

A with G, T (U) with C

81.

The fact that the amino acid isoleucine can be encoded by both the mRNA codons AUU and AUC is an example of which feature of the genetic code?

a)

Universality

b)

Nonsense

c)

Degeneracy (or Redundancy)

d)

Complementarity

82.

If a point mutation causes a codon that originally specified an amino acid to change to one of the three stop codons (UAA, UAG, or UGA), this type of mutation is specifically called a:

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Silent mutation

83.

The disease Sickle-Cell Anemia results from a mutation in the β-hemoglobin gene that changes the sixth amino acid in the primary structure from Glutamic Acid to Valine. What kind of point mutation is this?

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Frameshift deletion

84.

Which type of mutation, involving the insertion or deletion of one or two nucleotides, typically has the most disastrous effect on the resulting polypeptide due to altering the entire reading frame?

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

85.

A DNA template strand has the sequence 3’ GTT 5’. What is the corresponding mRNA codon and the amino acid it encodes?

a)

5’CAA 3’= Glutamine (Gln)

b)

5’ GTT 3’ Valine (Val)

c)

5’ CUU 3’ Leucine (Leu)

d)

5’ CAA 3’ Glutamine (Gln)

86.

A DNA template strand has the sequence 3’ TAC GGA TCC GTT ATT 5’. What is the corresponding mRNA sequence produced during transcription?

a)

5’ ATG CCT AGG CAA TAA 3’

b)

5’ AUG CCU AGG CAA UAA 3’

c)

5’ UAC GGA UCC GUU AUU 3’

d)

5’ TAC GGA TCC GTT ATT 3’

87.

What is the resulting amino acid sequence for the mRNA 5’ AUG CCU AGG CAA UAA 3’? (Use the standard genetic code chart.)

a)

Met – Pro – Arg – Gln – Stop

b)

Tyr – Gly – Ser – Val – Stop

c)

Met – Gly – Ser – Val – Stop

d)

Tyr – Pro – Arg – Gln – Stop

88.

For the mRNA codon CCU, which tRNA anticodon will correctly base pair during translation?

a)

3’ GGA 5’

b)

3’ CCA 5’

c)

3’ AGG 5’

d)

3’ UGG 5’

89.

The DNA coding strand (non-template strand) has the sequence 5’ ATG GCT TTA CCG 3’. What is the amino acid sequence encoded by this gene segment?

a)

Met – Ala – Leu – Pro

b)

Met – Gly – Phe – Arg

c)

Met – Ala – Phe – Pro

d)

Met – Gly – Leu – Arg

90.

A mutation changes the DNA template strand from 3’ TAC GAA TGG CTT 5’ to 3’ TAC GAA TAG CTT 5’. How will this mutation affect the resulting protein?

a)

It will change one amino acid but the protein remains functional.

b)

It will cause a frameshift mutation.

c)

It will introduce a premature stop codon, shortening the protein.

d)

It will have no effect (silent mutation).

91.

A point mutation changes the DNA sequence 3’-TAC GAA TTT-5’ to 3’-TAC GAG TTT-5’. This results in an mRNA codon change from CUU to CUC, but both codons specify leucine. What type of mutation is this?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

92.

A mutation changes the mRNA codon UAC (tyrosine) to UAA (stop). What type of mutation has occurred, and what is its likely effect?

a)

Missense mutation; a different amino acid is inserted.

b)

Silent mutation; no change occurs in the protein.

c)

Nonsense mutation; translation stops prematurely.

d)

Frameshift mutation; the reading frame changes.

93.

A single nucleotide insertion occurs early in the coding sequence of a gene. What is the most likely result of this type of mutation?

a)

Only one amino acid will change.

b)

The reading frame shifts, altering every amino acid downstream.

c)

The mutation has no effect on the protein.

d)

Translation stops at the normal stop codon.

94.

Which of the following describes a missense mutation?

a)

A single nucleotide substitution that changes one amino acid in the protein.

b)

A deletion of three nucleotides, removing one amino acid.

c)

A mutation that introduces a premature stop codon.

d)

A substitution that does not change the amino acid.

95.

A DNA sequence originally reads 3’-TAC GCT TGG AAT 5’. After a mutation, it reads 3’-TAC GTT GGA AT 5’ (one base deleted). What type of mutation occurred, and what effect will it likely have?

a)

Silent mutation; no change in protein

b)

Missense mutation; one amino acid changes

c)

Nonsense mutation; premature stop codon

d)

Frameshift mutation; alters the entire downstream amino acid sequence