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Fluency Set: Basic Definitions 1-10

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Grace is a preschool teacher who notices that one of her students often has tense pauses and dysrhythmic phonations while speaking, which seem different from the typical repeating, pausing, or revising she hears from other children. Which definition best describes the type of disfluency Grace is observing?

a)

The continuity, smoothness, rate, and effort in speech production

b)

The repeating, pausing, incomplete phrasing, revising, interjecting, and prolonging of sounds typical of young children

c)

Disfluencies qualitatively different from typical disfluency, including tense pauses and dysrhythmic phonations

d)

Speech that is abnormally fast with omission of sounds and syllables

2.

Daniel is giving a presentation in class. His teacher comments on his speech, saying that his fluency needs improvement. In the context of fluency disorders, what combination of characteristics does the term fluency refer to?

a)

Rate only

b)

Effort only

c)

Continuity, smoothness, rate, and effort in speech production

d)

Accuracy of articulation without regard to rate

3.

Kai is giving a presentation in class. During his speech, he frequently experiences blocks, repeats sounds or syllables, and prolongs certain words. Which option lists behaviors considered stuttering-like disfluencies that Kai might be exhibiting?

a)

Sound or syllable repetitions, tense pauses, and dysrhythmic phonations

b)

Occasional pauses for breath and natural hesitations

c)

Rapid but intelligible speech with normal syntax

d)

Frequent blocks, repetitions, and prolongations during speech

4.

Scarlett is a speech-language pathologist working with people who stutter. She notices that some of her clients experience reactions that are not immediately visible to others. These reactions include feelings and thoughts like frustration, anxiety, guilt, and expectations of difficulty that lead to avoidance. How are these covert reactions best characterized?

a)

Overt blocks and repetitions heard by listeners

b)

Feelings and thoughts like frustration, anxiety, guilt, and expectations of difficulty that lead to avoidance

c)

Motor tics and involuntary limb movements

d)

Objective measures of airflow and subglottal pressure

5.

Which description best matches cluttering?

a)

Speech that is abnormally fast with omission of sounds and syllables, abnormal pausing and phrasing, often in bursts that may be unintelligible, with frequent abnormalities in syntax, semantics, and pragmatics

b)

Speech marked exclusively by tense blocks without changes in rate

c)

Clear articulation produced at a slow, even tempo

d)

Normal disfluencies typical of preschool development

6.

Emma is learning to play the piano and notices that she can feel the position of her fingers and the amount of pressure she applies to the keys, even without looking. The term proprioceptive most closely refers to which sense?

a)

The sense of hearing one’s own voice after a delay

b)

The sense of smell associated with oral resonance

c)

The sense of the relative position of body parts and the strength of effort in movement

d)

The sense of visual feedback from lip and jaw motion

7.

Nora is working with a speech therapist to manage her stuttering. The therapist suggests using a device that plays back Nora’s own voice through an earpiece with a fraction-of-a-second delay, which alters how she hears herself speak. What is the primary mechanism of this Delayed Auditory Feedback (DAF) device?

a)

A metronome that sets a fixed speech rhythm

b)

An earpiece that plays back the person’s recorded voice with a fraction-of-a-second delay, altering auditory feedback

c)

A tactile cueing device that vibrates at word boundaries

d)

A visual pacing board that segments syllables

8.

Samuel is a speech-language pathologist evaluating a child for a possible fluency disorder. Which sequence of steps should Samuel follow during the evaluation?

a)

Diagnosis, test selection, child interview, parent interview

b)

Parent interview, child interview, tests and observation, diagnosis

c)

Screening, therapy, discharge, follow-up

d)

Case history only without direct observation

9.

Michael is a speech-language pathologist working with a child who stutters. He wants to involve the child’s family in the therapy process. Family systems therapy in fluency intervention is best defined as which of the following?

a)

An approach focused solely on the individual’s speech motor patterns

b)

Models of counseling and service delivery that focus on variables regarding the family unit as a whole

c)

A pharmacologic protocol targeting anxiety reduction

d)

A technique limited to group speech practice sessions

10.

Priya is experiencing communication difficulties due to a fluency disorder. Which statement aligns with cognitive behavioral therapy as an approach to help her?

a)

A counseling approach targeting thoughts and behaviors related to communication difficulties

b)

A surgical procedure to modify vocal fold vibration

c)

A device-based intervention delivering delayed feedback

d)

A method that trains only respiratory strength without addressing cognition

11.

Harper has been experiencing a lot of stress at work and wants to learn how to manage it better. Her therapist suggests a technique that uses electronic monitoring to help her gain control over physiological functions. What is this technique called?

a)

Affective

b)

Primary prevention

c)

Fluency shaping

d)

Biofeedback

12.

Mia is a speech-language pathologist working with young children. She wants to prevent the onset and development of fluency disorders in her clients. Which of the following approaches best represents primary prevention in fluency disorders?

a)

Direct training of relaxed respiration and articulation to teach fluent speech

b)

Eliminating or diminishing the onset and development of stuttering by changing child susceptibility or home/school conditions

c)

Helping speakers confront fears and reduce avoidances associated with stuttering

d)

Becoming aware of physiological activity through instruments to voluntarily control muscles

13.

Which therapy approach attempts to directly train individuals to speak with relaxed respiration, relaxed vocal folds, and relaxed articulation muscles to teach how to speak fluently?

a)

Stuttering modifications

b)

Fluency shaping

c)

Primary prevention

d)

Internal motivation

14.

A therapy approach focuses on the emotional aspects of stuttering, helping the speaker to recognize and manage their feelings and attitudes towards their speech. Which term matches this description?

a)

Fluency shaping

b)

Stuttering modifications

c)

External motivation

d)

Affective

15.

Daniel is working on improving his speech fluency. Which scenario best illustrates internal motivation in Daniel?

a)

Daniel practices daily because personal goals make the effort feel important and needed

b)

Daniel attends therapy only because a parent offers rewards for participation

c)

Daniel uses a device to monitor muscle activity during speech exercises

d)

Daniel modifies home routines to reduce environmental stressors

16.

External motivation is characterized by which source of drive?

a)

Self-generated or intrinsic valuation of what is important

b)

Encouragement provided by someone else, such as family or an employer

c)

Physiological feedback about muscle activity to guide behavior

d)

Direct training in relaxed speech subsystems to build fluency

17.

Which option best defines a preventative approach in the context of speech pathology?

a)

Counseling to replace maladaptive beliefs with flexible ways of thinking

b)

Use of instruments to provide information on physiological functions to enable voluntary control of those systems

c)

Systematic desensitization to reduce fears related to speaking situations

d)

Preventing stuttering onset by modifying home and school conditions

18.

Which statement best defines trait anxiety in the context of fluency disorders?

a)

A situational fear that occurs only during public speaking tasks

b)

A consistent tendency to respond with anxiety when anticipating threatening situations

c)

A temporary stress reaction to unfamiliar listeners

d)

An anxiety pattern limited to clinical settings

19.

Social anxiety, as described for fluency, most closely refers to which of the following?

a)

Fear of social situations and interactions that can automatically bring self-consciousness, judgment, evaluation, and inferiority

b)

General worry about academic performance regardless of social context

c)

Anxiety limited to speaking on the phone

d)

A fear response that occurs only during solitary practice

20.

During a classroom presentation, William begins to stutter. As he tries to speak, he starts making extraneous sounds and shows noticeable facial and body movements. These behaviors are best described as which of the following?

a)

Fluent speech produced under delayed auditory feedback

b)

Extraneous sounds and facial/body movements used during moments of stuttering

c)

Silent reading strategies to avoid dysfluency

d)

Breath pacing to initiate phonation

21.

Which is an example of a secondary stuttering behavior noted in the material?

a)

Syllable prolongation within fluent speech

b)

Repetitions of fillers like "uh" or "um," eye blinks, and unusual head, hand, or other body part movements

c)

Use of shorter sentences to reduce cognitive load

d)

Speaking at a slower overall rate with visible tension or physical struggle

22.

Nora is a speech therapist working with young children. She notices that one of her new clients, aged 4, is showing signs of beginning stuttering. Which of the following characteristics is Nora most likely to observe?

a)

Ages 6–13 with anticipation of blocks

b)

Untypical disfluency with emerging awareness

c)

Adolescents and adults with solidly learned patterns

d)

Prolonged blockages involving lips, tongue, and jaw

23.

Olivia is a speech therapist working with children who have beginning stuttering. She notices that one of her students often shows signs that specifically involve the speech musculature. Which of the following is Olivia most likely observing?

a)

Awareness of listener reactions

b)

Muscle tension and fixed articulators

c)

Fear of stuttering

d)

Patterns solidly learned

24.

Isla is a speech therapist working with children who stutter. She is reviewing the characteristics of intermediate stuttering in her clients. Which combination aligns with the three facts of intermediate stuttering?

a)

6–13 years old, fear of stuttering, anticipation of blocks (most common)

b)

Adolescents and adults, muscle tension, fixed articulators

c)

Untypical disfluency, awareness, repetitions at end of tone

d)

Prolonged blockages, resist therapy after 30, grief

25.

Which age range is directly associated with intermediate stuttering in the notes?

a)

2–5 years old

b)

6–13 years old

c)

14–18 years old

d)

Adults over 30

26.

Which grouping is identified as facts of advanced stuttering?

a)

Awareness and untypical disfluency

b)

Adolescents and adults; patterns solidly learned

c)

6–13 years; fear of stuttering

d)

Muscle tension and fixed articulators

27.

Hannah is attending a support group for people who stutter. During a discussion about advanced stuttering, the facilitator asks which additional facts are associated with advanced stuttering later in the list. Which option should Hannah choose?

a)

Resist therapy after 30; fear, shame, and grief; prolonged blockages (lips, tongue, jaw)

b)

Anticipation of blocks; untypical disfluency; awareness

c)

Fixed articulators; repetitions at end of tone; mishearing

d)

Simultaneous speech; voice masking; DAF

28.

David is a child with articulation difficulties. He believes speaking is ___ and begins to ___ the challenge.

a)

easy; ignore

b)

hard; anticipate

c)

unavoidable; accept

d)

fun; minimize

29.

According to the research note provided, stuttering results from _____ language.

a)

expressive

b)

receptive

c)

mishearing

d)

bimodal

30.

Which list contains the four forms of stuttering intervention exactly as presented?

a)

Desensitization, counseling, masking, pacing

b)

Modification, cancellation, DAF (delayed auditory feedback), non-DAF

c)

Shaping, relaxation, biofeedback, counseling

d)

Restructuring, substitution, modeling, nonverbal cueing

31.

In the stuttering treatment category of modification, which components are included?

a)

Anxiety control and strategies such as pullouts and cancellations

b)

Voice masking and listening to pitch changes

c)

Fluency via control of verbalization length

d)

Simultaneous speech with a partner

32.

The cancellation approach to stuttering treatment aims for fluency primarily through what mechanism?

a)

Masking the speaker’s voice during output

b)

Control of verbalization length after a stuttered moment

c)

Introducing delayed auditory feedback to slow rate

d)

Eliminating all secondary behaviors before speaking

33.

Which of the following is NOT a technique listed under stuttering treatment > non-DAF?

a)

Simultaneous speech

b)

Listening to distorted voice

c)

Voice masking

d)

Delayed auditory feedback

34.

Which of the following is a non-DAF treatment activity?

a)

Listening to voice pitch changes

b)

Timed syllable production with metronome

c)

Cancellations only

d)

Silent reading of scripts

35.

Which item distinguishes beginning from intermediate stuttering in the notes?

a)

Beginning: untypical disfluency and awareness; Intermediate: 6–13 years old with fear and anticipation of blocks

b)

Beginning: adolescents and adults; Intermediate: patterns solidly learned

c)

Beginning: prolonged blockages; Intermediate: resist therapy after 30

d)

Beginning: mishearing language; Intermediate: voice masking

36.

During a classroom presentation, Arjun begins to stutter while speaking. Which example best illustrates a secondary behavior that might occur during his stuttering moments?

a)

Careful planning of verbalization length

b)

Eye blinks paired with repetitions of fillers like "uh"

c)

Using delayed auditory feedback

d)

Practicing simultaneous speech with a partner

37.

Which statement best summarizes the progression to advanced stuttering based on the list?

a)

It typically involves untypical disfluency with little awareness.

b)

It occurs only in children ages 6–13 with fear and anticipation of blocks.

c)

It is framed by adolescents and adults with solidly learned patterns and may include resisting therapy after 30, emotional reactions, and prolonged blockages.

d)

It is characterized solely by mishearing language.

38.

Which statement best defines fluency in speech?

a)

Rhythmically speech without interruptions

b)

Speech with occasional pauses for emphasis

c)

Rapid speech that avoids long words

d)

Monotone speech with limited intonation

39.

According to the summary definition, stuttering is best described as what?

a)

Lack of fluency characterized by a high frequency and/or duration of blockages in the flow of speech

b)

A temporary loss of voice due to vocal fold fatigue

c)

An acquired language disorder affecting word retrieval

d)

A motor speech disorder limited to respiration

40.

Stuttering is a response to errors in which components of speaking?

a)

Formulation, processing, and execution

b)

Hearing, memory, and attention

c)

Respiration, phonation, and resonance

d)

Vocabulary, grammar, and pragmatics

41.

Which set lists the three criteria included in a stuttering diagnosis?

a)

Primary behaviors, secondary behaviors, and feelings/attitudes

b)

Hearing thresholds, articulation tests, and reading fluency

c)

Respiratory strength, pitch range, and maximum phonation time

d)

Language comprehension, naming speed, and writing accuracy

42.

Which option identifies a strategy used by individuals who stutter to avoid or delay speaking?

a)

Primary behavior

b)

Secondary movement

c)

Escape strategy

d)

Evasive strategy

43.

Daniel is observing a speech therapy session and wants to identify the four primary behaviors associated with stuttering. Which list correctly names these behaviors?

a)

Repetitions, substitutions, omissions, and additions

b)

Phonation breaks, pitch shifts, loudness spikes, and breathy voice

c)

Respiratory pauses, laryngeal spasms, tongue clicks, and whispering

d)

Repetitions, prolongations, blocks, and secondary movements

44.

In early stuttering, repetitions are commonly observed. Which description matches repetitions?

a)

Getting stuck on sounds, syllables, or words and repeating until the next sound arises

b)

Dragging the vowel sound while articulators hold position for several seconds

c)

Stopping airflow and articulatory movement entirely before a sound is produced

d)

Replacing difficult words with easier synonyms to avoid stuttering

45.

Which type of disfluency is characterized by involuntary movements or gestures that accompany stuttering?

a)

Prolongations

b)

Repetitions

c)

Blocks

d)

Secondary movements

46.

How long do articulators typically stop during prolongations as described in the material?

a)

About 1/2 to 2 seconds

b)

5 to 10 seconds

c)

Less than 1/4 second

d)

More than 10 seconds

47.

Which description best defines blocks in stuttering?

a)

Uncontrolled lengthening of vowel sounds without airflow

b)

Rapid repetition of phrases with normal airflow

c)

Inappropriate stoppage of airflow and sometimes articulatory movements

d)

Replacement of feared words with synonyms

48.

At which levels of speech may blockages occur?

a)

Respiratory, laryngeal, and articulatory mechanisms

b)

Auditory, cognitive, and pragmatic systems

c)

Semantic, syntactic, and phonological levels

d)

Velopharyngeal, nasal, and oral cavities only

49.

Which consonants are most commonly associated with the onset of blockages?

a)

f, v, s, z, sh, and zh

b)

l, r, w, y, h, and j

c)

b, c, d, g, m, n, p, and t

d)

k, q, x, and hard ch only

50.

What does the term secondary movements refer to in the context of stuttering?

a)

Physical or mental effort to speak

b)

The natural rhythm of fluent speech

c)

Automatic breathing adjustments during talking

d)

Changes in pitch to emphasize meaning

51.

Which pairing correctly matches the two types of secondary behaviors listed?

a)

Escape (behavioral) and evasive (linguistic)

b)

Respiratory and laryngeal

c)

Motor and sensory

d)

Cognitive and emotional

52.

Which statement best describes escape behavior in stuttering?

a)

Trying to get out of the stuttering situation

b)

Anticipation of disfluency followed by compensation

c)

Repeating a sound to maintain speech flow

d)

Pausing to breathe before a difficult word

53.

Which statement best describes evasive behavior in stuttering?

a)

Anticipation of disfluency followed by compensation

b)

Trying to get out of the stuttering situation

c)

Physical posturing to increase airflow

d)

Unconscious repetition of syllables

54.

Which option accurately contrasts prolongations and blocks?

a)

Prolongations maintain airflow while articulatory movement stops; blocks stop airflow and sometimes articulators

b)

Prolongations stop both airflow and articulators; blocks keep airflow but halt articulators

c)

Prolongations involve repeating syllables; blocks lengthen vowels

d)

Prolongations occur only on vowels; blocks occur only on nasals

55.

Which item best completes this statement: In children who begin to stutter, the most common repeated units are what?

a)

Syllables and words

b)

Entire phrases

c)

Breath groups

d)

Consonant clusters only

56.

Which scenario most clearly exemplifies a primary behavior rather than a secondary movement?

a)

A child repeats the first syllable of a word several times before moving on

b)

An individual looks away and blinks to push through a word

c)

A speaker substitutes a simpler word to avoid difficulty

d)

A person plans alternative phrasing to compensate

57.

Which best identifies the temporal range often noted for articulator stoppage during prolongations?

a)

As short as 1–2 seconds or maybe half a second, with longer durations being rare

b)

Typically 3–5 seconds with frequent longer episodes

c)

Always less than a quarter second by definition

d)

At least 10 seconds to be classified as a prolongation

58.

Which of the following is an example of an evasive behavior in stuttering?

a)

Pauses before speaking

b)

Social avoidance of conversations

c)

Mutism in group settings

d)

Inhibition of participation

59.

Selecting the best example of escape behavior in stuttering involves recognizing actions after a moment of disfluency. Which option fits this description?

a)

Social avoidance following a stuttered word

b)

Planned pauses to prevent stuttering

c)

Changing words before a feared sound

d)

Postponing a response to buy time

60.

Feelings and attitudes toward stuttering are said to start from a ______ and ______ stuttering.

a)

disorder; precipitate

b)

habit; worsen

c)

fear; maintain

d)

belief; eliminate

61.

Which set lists manifestations of feelings and attitudes associated with stuttering?

a)

Muscle tension, elevated heart rate, tremors, anxiety with shame and frustration

b)

Reduced respiration, fever, rash, euphoria

c)

Improved articulation, calm affect, lowered heart rate, exhilaration

d)

Dry mouth, cough, dizziness, laughter

62.

A person who stutters is likely to exhibit which of the following patterns?

a)

More than 10 disfluencies in 100 words and more than 2 units of repetitions

b)

Fewer than 3 disfluencies per 100 words and single-unit repetitions only

c)

No awareness of disfluencies and no secondary movements

d)

Only prolongations without repetitions or blocks

63.

Which observation aligns with the description that people who stutter are aware of their disfluencies and have secondary movements?

a)

The speaker notices stumbles and shows accompanying movements like eye blinks

b)

The speaker is unaware of any speech changes and stands motionless

c)

The speaker reports perfect fluency with no physical signs

d)

The speaker shows only language comprehension errors

64.

Which list correctly names the four types of stuttering described in the set?

a)

Border, beginning, intermediate, advanced

b)

Mild, moderate, severe, profound

c)

Developmental, neurogenic, psychogenic, cluttering

d)

Initial, medial, terminal, silent

65.

Which fact is included among the characteristics of border stuttering?

a)

Typical disfluency that comes and goes with little tension

b)

Constant severe blocks with marked physical struggle

c)

Rare disfluency fewer than 3 per 100 words

d)

High tension with persistent avoidance behaviors

66.

According to the set, how many disfluencies per 100 words are associated with border stuttering?

a)

More than 10 per 100

b)

Fewer than 3 per 100

c)

Exactly 5 per 100

d)

Between 20 and 30 per 100

67.

Which combination best fits the description of evasive behaviors?

a)

Pauses, changing words, and postponing responses

b)

Social withdrawal, mutism, and inhibition

c)

Eye blinking, head nodding, and foot tapping

d)

Rapid rate, reduced loudness, and monotone

68.

Which option best represents an escape behavior triad?

a)

Syllable-timed speech, shadowing, and choral reading

b)

Social avoidance, mutism, and inhibition

69.

Which statement aligns with the role of the Speech-Language Pathologist (SLP) in stuttering as noted in the set?

a)

Behavior is eliminated or reduced rather than corrected, and prognosis is uncertain

b)

Stuttering is corrected to normal fluency with a guaranteed prognosis

c)

Primary role is to diagnose hearing loss and prescribe medication

d)

Focus is exclusively on language content and ignores disfluency

70.

True or false: Language and motor deficits increase the likelihood of stuttering.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

True or false: Slow speech from a person who stutters does not impact school performance.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which statement best captures the idea of cancellation in stuttering treatment described in the set?

a)

Developing fluency by controlling the length of verbalization, starting with simple words or phrases

b)

Avoiding feared sounds entirely through substitution

73.

Which sign would most directly indicate elevated arousal linked to feelings and attitudes in stuttering?

a)

Increased heart rate associated with speech attempts

b)

Absence of any physical response during disfluency

74.

A student produces frequent two- to three-unit sound repetitions and shows eye blinks. Based on the set, which conclusion is most supported?

a)

They exhibit only language comprehension issues without motor signs

b)

They likely exceed 2 units of repetitions and display secondary movements typical in stuttering

75.

Which progression of types best reflects increasing involvement across development as listed in the set?

a)

Advanced to beginning to border

b)

Beginning to intermediate to advanced

76.

Which pairing correctly matches a category with an example from the set?

a)

Evasive behavior—changing words before a feared sound

b)

SLP role—guaranteed correction of stuttering

77.

Which description aligns with the note that behavior is eliminated/reduced (not corrected) in SLP roles?

a)

Focus on reducing frequency and severity rather than promising perfect fluency

b)

Immediate cessation of disfluency through medication