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Overview of Macroeconomics and Objectives

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes macroeconomics in this unit’s context?

a)

It studies individual consumer choices in a single market.

b)

It examines economy-wide outcomes like output, employment, and the overall price level.

c)

It focuses only on firm-level production costs and revenues.

d)

It analyzes how one company maximizes profit using calculus.

2.

Which trio captures the core macroeconomic objectives introduced in this section?

a)

High output growth, high employment with low involuntary unemployment, and stable prices

b)

Balanced trade, zero government debt, and fixed exchange rates

c)

Maximum corporate profits, minimal taxes, and high stock prices

d)

Unlimited government spending, wage controls, and price freezes

3.

According to the overview box on objectives and instruments, which policy instrument set is used in macroeconomics?

a)

Industrial policy and competition policy

b)

Trade quotas and exchange controls

c)

Monetary policy and fiscal policy

d)

Environmental regulation and safety standards

4.

Which is the most closely watched measure of economic output in this material?

a)

Net National Product (NNP)

b)

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

c)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

d)

Producer Price Index (PPI)

5.

What does GDP measure as defined here?

a)

The total income of all citizens regardless of location

b)

The market value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a period of time

c)

The number of goods produced domestically without valuing services

d)

Only the government’s expenditure during a fiscal year

6.

Which statement correctly contrasts nominal GDP and real GDP in this section?

a)

Nominal GDP is calculated in constant prices; real GDP is measured in current market prices.

b)

Nominal GDP excludes services; real GDP includes services and goods.

c)

Nominal GDP is measured in market prices; real GDP is calculated in constant or invariant prices.

d)

Nominal GDP includes imports; real GDP excludes imports.

7.

Using the given formula, the percentage growth rate of real GDP in year t is computed as:

a)

100 × (GDP_t − GDP_{t−1}) / GDP_{t−1}

b)

(GDP_t + GDP_{t−1}) / 100

c)

GDP_{t−1} / GDP_t × 100

d)

100 × (GDP_t / GDP_{t−1} − 1) without any subtraction term

8.

Based on the definition provided, potential GDP represents:

a)

The level of output that guarantees zero inflation

b)

The maximum sustainable level of output that the economy can produce

c)

The average of last year’s and this year’s GDP

d)

The output level when unemployment is zero

9.

What does the material say tends to happen when output rises above potential output?

a)

Price inflation tends to rise

b)

Unemployment tends to rise

c)

Deflation becomes more likely

d)

The labor force automatically shrinks

10.

According to the notes, the economy’s productive capacity—and thus potential GDP—depends on which factors?

a)

Available inputs such as labor and capital

b)

Economy’s technological efficiency

c)

Only government spending levels

d)

Short-term changes in stock prices

11.

How is a depression characterized in this section?

a)

A brief pause in growth lasting one quarter

b)

A moderate downturn followed by rapid recovery

c)

A severe and protracted downturn

d)

A temporary increase in unemployment with stable output

12.

Which population group is used to define the working-age population (WAP) here?

a)

Population 10 years and over

b)

Population 15 years and over

c)

Population 18 to 64 years only

d)

All citizens including children

13.

What is the labor force according to the definitions provided?

a)

All employed individuals only

b)

All unemployed individuals only

c)

That part of the working-age population that is either unemployed or employed

d)

Only full-time workers excluding part-time workers

14.

Which identity relating employment and unemployment rates is stated in the material?

a)

Employment Rate × Unemployment Rate = 100%

b)

Employment Rate + Unemployment Rate = 100%

c)

Employment Rate − Unemployment Rate = 0%

d)

Employment Rate + Underemployment Rate = 100%

15.

Within this section, who constructs price indexes to track the overall price level, such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?

a)

Private banks

b)

Government statisticians (PSA)

c)

Stock exchanges

d)

Central business councils

16.

Using the provided definition, price stability in this unit refers to:

a)

A rapidly falling price level across all goods

b)

A low and stable inflation rate, or a gently rising price level

c)

Prices fixed by law at a constant level

d)

Zero measured inflation regardless of circumstances

17.

What formula is given for the rate of inflation in year t?

a)

100 × (P_t − P_{t−1}) / P_{t−1}

b)

(P_t / P_{t−1}) × P_{t−2}

c)

100 × (P_{t−1} − P_t) / P_t

d)

P_t − P_{t−1} without scaling

18.

According to the section, what is deflation?

a)

A situation where only wages fall but goods’ prices rise

b)

A decline in prices or a negative rate of inflation

c)

A decrease in GDP growth while prices are constant

d)

A rise in unemployment with stable prices

19.

Which actions are listed under monetary policy in the visual summary of instruments?

a)

Buying and selling bonds

b)

Regulating financial institutions

c)

Government expenditures on infrastructure

d)

Taxation changes

20.

Which statement best defines a policy instrument in macroeconomics?

a)

A private market variable that firms cannot influence

b)

An economic variable under government control that can affect one or more macroeconomic goals

c)

Any change in household consumption preferences over time

d)

A fixed parameter that never changes in response to policy

21.

Within fiscal policy, which pair correctly lists the two distinct forms of government expenditures described?

a)

Government purchases and government transfer payments

b)

Government subsidies and foreign aid

c)

Infrastructure grants and monetary injections

d)

Public sector wages and private sector incentives

22.

Government transfer payments are described as primarily intended to do which of the following?

a)

Finance the purchase of tanks and roads

b)

Increase the incomes of targeted groups such as the elderly or the unemployed

c)

Reduce the money supply through banking regulations

d)

Raise prices of factors of production directly

23.

According to the material, taxation influences behavior mainly through which mechanisms?

a)

Changing people’s disposable income and thus how much they spend and save

b)

Altering the prices of goods and factors of production and thereby incentives

c)

Directly setting production quotas for firms

d)

Mandating fixed saving rates for households

24.

Monetary policy is primarily conducted by which institution and through managing what system?

a)

The legislature, through the national budgeting system

b)

The central bank, through managing the nation’s money, credit, and banking system

c)

Private banks, through deposit insurance schemes

d)

The treasury, through tariff collection systems

25.

Setting short-run interest rate targets in monetary policy occurs mainly through which action?

a)

Buying and selling government securities

b)

Altering corporate tax brackets

c)

Issuing new currency directly to consumers

d)

Negotiating trade treaties

26.

Which economic variables are mentioned as being influenced by the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (BSP)?

a)

Interest rates and stock prices

b)

Housing prices and foreign exchange rates

c)

Unemployment benefits and pension ages

d)

Agricultural quotas and environmental standards

27.

International linkages include trade policies that do what?

a)

Only restrict imports through embargoes

b)

Consist solely of tax rebates for exporters

c)

Consist of tariffs, quotas, and other regulations that restrict or encourage imports and exports

d)

Eliminate all barriers to capital flows

28.

International financial management is described as being about what central task?

a)

Managing domestic interest rate ceilings

b)

Helping manage the foreign exchange rate

c)

Setting corporate governance codes

d)

Determining the minimum wage

29.

What does a country’s foreign exchange rate represent, according to the material?

a)

The amount of gold backing its currency

b)

The price of its own currency in terms of the currencies of other countries

c)

The ratio of imports to exports in a given year

d)

The government’s official inflation target

30.

Aggregate demand (AD) consists of what, and how is it interpreted at each price level?

a)

Total production by firms; it shows the output firms plan to supply at each wage level

b)

Total spending by households, businesses, governments, and foreigners; it represents the total output that would be willingly bought at each price level

c)

Total government expenditure only; it represents potential GDP at the natural rate

d)

Total exports minus imports; it measures currency strength at each interest rate

31.

Which items are listed as the components of aggregate demand?

a)

Consumption

b)

Investment

c)

Government purchases

d)

Net exports

32.

Aggregate supply (AS) is described as depending on which set of factors?

a)

The price level

b)

The productive capacity of the economy

c)

The level of costs and market conditions

d)

The number of political parties in the legislature

33.

At macroeconomic equilibrium, what is determined where the AS and AD curves intersect?

a)

Only the level of government spending

b)

Both the aggregate price level and output

c)

Only the unemployment rate

d)

Only the foreign exchange rate

34.

According to the definition given, what does the aggregate demand schedule (AD curve) represent?

a)

What firms would produce at different wage levels, holding technology constant

b)

What everyone in the economy—consumers, businesses, foreigners, governments—would buy at different aggregate price levels, ceteris paribus

c)

How the central bank sets interest rates across maturities

d)

The difference between potential output and actual output at full employment

35.

Which statement best defines the aggregate supply (AS) curve in macroeconomics?

a)

It shows the total planned spending at each income level, ceteris paribus.

b)

It represents the quantity of goods and services that businesses are willing to produce and sell at each price level, ceteris paribus.

c)

It traces combinations of unemployment and inflation that policymakers target.

d)

It measures the sum of consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports over a year.

36.

Macroeconomic equilibrium occurs when which condition is satisfied?

a)

Overall price and quantity are such that buyers and sellers are satisfied with their overall purchases, sales, and prices.

b)

The economy operates exactly at full employment or potential output.

c)

Aggregate demand increases faster than aggregate supply at every price level.

d)

The government budget is balanced and net exports are zero.

37.

According to the instructional text, which components make up aggregate demand in the context of GDP? Use the standard notation.

a)

Consumption (C)

b)

Gross investment (I)

c)

Government purchases of goods and services (G)

d)

Net exports (X)

e)

Depreciation (D)

38.

Given the relationship GDP = C + I + G + X presented in the material, which change would directly increase measured GDP, holding other components constant?

a)

A decrease in government purchases of goods and services

b)

An increase in personal consumption expenditures on goods and services

c)

A rise in depreciation charges by firms

d)

A reduction in exports matched by an equal reduction in imports

39.

Which statement about equilibrium output in the material is accurate?

a)

Equilibrium output always equals full employment or potential output.

b)

Equilibrium output can depart from full employment or potential output.

c)

Equilibrium output is defined only by the aggregate demand curve.

d)

Equilibrium output cannot be observed when prices change.

40.

Which statement best defines Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the product (expenditure) approach?

a)

The market value of all intermediate goods produced within a nation in a year

b)

The total money value of the flow of final goods and services produced by the nation

c)

The quantity of goods and services produced without considering prices

d)

The sum of profits earned by domestic firms at home and abroad

41.

In the expenditure approach to GDP, which goods are included?

a)

Only intermediate goods purchased by firms

b)

Only goods produced for export

c)

Only final goods ultimately bought and used by consumers or for investment

d)

All goods and services regardless of use

42.

Using the product approach example, GDP equals the sum of (price × quantity) across final goods. What is the primary implication of this formulation?

a)

GDP increases only when prices fall

b)

Each final product’s market value contributes to GDP without double counting inputs

c)

Intermediate inputs are counted multiple times to reflect their importance

d)

GDP is independent of quantities produced

43.

According to the income (cost) approach, which components are summed to measure GDP?

a)

Wages and salaries

b)

Interest payments

c)

Rents

d)

Residual profits

44.

In the income approach, why are profits sometimes called a residual?

a)

Because profits are excluded from GDP and estimated later

b)

Because profits are calculated to reconcile the equality between product and income measures

c)

Because profits equal wages plus rents minus interest

d)

Because profits measure only foreign earnings

45.

Which description matches the upper loop in the circular flow diagram of macroeconomic activity?

a)

Flow of productive services from households to producers and factor payments back

b)

Flow of final goods and services from producers to purchasers and consumption expenditures back

c)

Flow of taxes from households to government and subsidies to firms

d)

Flow of imports and exports across borders

46.

Which description matches the lower loop in the circular flow diagram of macroeconomic activity?

a)

Flow of final goods and services and consumption purchases

b)

Flow of productive services such as labor and land and payments like wages, rents, and profits

c)

Flow of government purchases and transfers

d)

Flow of savings and investment funds

47.

What problem does the value-added approach solve in national accounting?

a)

Inflation bias in the price level

b)

Double, triple, or quadruple counting of inputs across production stages

c)

Measurement of underground economy

d)

Exclusion of services from GDP

48.

Which statement best defines value added for a firm?

a)

Total sales revenue regardless of input purchases

b)

The difference between a firm's sales and its purchases of materials and services from other firms

c)

The sum of wages and salaries paid to workers

d)

The market value of final goods in the economy

49.

Which is classified as a final product in GDP accounting?

a)

Flour sold to a bakery to make bread

b)

A new computer purchased by a firm for use in production

c)

Microchips sold to a computer manufacturer

d)

Steel sold to an auto plant

50.

Using the value-added bread example, which items are included in GDP and why?

a)

Bread is included; flour is excluded, because GDP sums value added at each production stage

b)

Both bread and flour are included to reflect all market activity

c)

Only wheat is included because agriculture is the base stage

d)

Bread and computer chips are both excluded as intermediate goods

51.

Which components comprise the product (expenditure) approach to GDP as listed in the national accounts details?

a)

Consumption (C)

b)

Government purchases (G)

c)

Net exports (X)

d)

Gross private domestic investment (I)

52.

Which items are included in the earnings (income) approach to GDP according to the national accounts details?

a)

Compensation of labor

b)

Corporate profits

c)

Other property income (rent, interest, proprietors' income)

d)

Depreciation and net production taxes

53.

What does an account for a firm or nation represent in national accounting?

a)

A narrative history of economic events

b)

A legal document for taxation purposes

c)

A numerical record of all flows during a given period

d)

A forecast of next year’s GDP

54.

In the farm-to-national-accounts illustration, what equality is demonstrated between the upper-loop flow of product and the lower-loop flow of earnings?

a)

Total final output value equals total costs or earnings, producing the same GDP total

b)

Final output value exceeds earnings due to depreciation

c)

Earnings exceed output value due to taxes

d)

Neither approach produces the same GDP total

55.

Which types of capital are mainly included in national accounts measures?

a)

Intangible capital such as research and education only

b)

Mainly tangible capital such as buildings and computers, omitting most intangible capital

c)

Only financial capital such as bonds and stocks

d)

Only residential housing

56.

How are government purchases treated in GDP accounting according to the material?

a)

They include consumption-type goods such as food for the military

b)

They include investment-type items such as schools or roads

c)

They exclude transfer payments because no goods or services are exchanged

d)

They include all welfare payments as government services

57.

Which formula correctly expresses real GDP (Q) as described?

a)

Q = P × Q

b)

Q = nominal GDP × GDP price index

c)

Q = nominal GDP / GDP price index

d)

Q = GDP price index / nominal GDP

58.

What is the difference between nominal GDP and real GDP?

a)

Nominal GDP measures current prices times quantities, while real GDP measures the volume or quantity produced after removing price changes or inflation

b)

Nominal GDP is adjusted for inflation, real GDP is not

c)

Real GDP excludes government spending, nominal GDP includes it

d)

Real GDP measures only services, nominal GDP measures only goods

59.

Which statement best distinguishes real GDP from nominal GDP?

a)

Real GDP values output using current prices, while nominal GDP uses base-year prices to remove inflation.

b)

Real GDP values output using base-year prices to remove inflation, while nominal GDP uses current prices at the time of production.

c)

Real GDP includes underground economic activity, while nominal GDP excludes it.

d)

Real GDP excludes government purchases, while nominal GDP includes them.

60.

The GDP deflator primarily serves which purpose in national income accounting?

a)

To convert nominal GDP into real GDP by adjusting for price level changes

b)

To measure changes in employment levels across industries

c)

To calculate net exports by deflating import prices

d)

To separate personal income from corporate income taxes

61.

According to the material, which is the correct distinction between real investment and financial investment?

a)

Real investment is purchasing corporate bonds; financial investment is building factories.

b)

Real investment is producing durable capital goods; financial investment is buying stocks or bonds.

c)

Real investment is saving in banks; financial investment is purchasing machinery.

d)

Real investment is government spending; financial investment is private consumption.

62.

Which definition of depreciation aligns with its use in moving from GDP to NDP?

a)

The total value of new capital produced in a year

b)

The amount of capital that has been used up in a year

c)

The portion of profits distributed as dividends

d)

The change in inventories held by firms

63.

Which statement correctly relates gross investment and net investment?

a)

Net investment equals gross investment plus depreciation.

b)

Gross investment equals net investment minus depreciation.

c)

Net investment equals gross investment minus depreciation.

d)

Gross investment excludes all newly produced investment goods.

64.

Based on the diagram pathway from GDP to DI, which component is subtracted after National Income to reach Personal Income?

a)

Personal taxes (Tp)

b)

Corporate taxes (Tc)

c)

Government purchases (G)

d)

Net exports (X)

65.

Which sequence of equalities is supported by the explanations provided?

a)

GDP − Depreciation = NDP; NDP − Ti = NI

b)

GDP + Depreciation = NDP; NDP + Ti = NI

c)

GDP − Ti = NDP; NDP − Depreciation = NI

d)

GDP = NI − Ti; NI − Depreciation = NDP

66.

Which items are included in National Income (NI) at factor costs according to the text?

a)

Wages and interest

b)

Rent and unincorporated business profits

c)

Corporate profits composed of corporate taxes, corporate savings, and dividends

d)

Transfer payments to households

67.

Which identity correctly links Personal Income (PI), Disposable Income (DI), consumption (C), and personal savings (Sp)?

a)

PI − Tp = DI = C + Sp

b)

PI + Tp = DI = C − Sp

c)

PI − Ti = DI = C + Sp

d)

PI = DI + Tp = C − Sp

68.

What does the savings-investment identity simplify to in the material when government savings are included appropriately?

a)

S = C + I + G + X

b)

S = I + X

c)

S = I − X

d)

S = C + Sp + Sc

69.

Which tax category is listed as an indirect tax in the legend?

a)

Corporate taxes on profits

b)

VAT, sales tax, and excise tax

c)

Personal income tax brackets

d)

Property taxes on households

70.

According to the flow from GDP to DI, which of the following raises Disposable Income when it increases (holding other items constant)?

a)

Transfer payments (Tr)

b)

Personal taxes (Tp)

c)

Net business saving (Sc)

d)

Corporate taxes (Tc)

71.

Which set correctly matches a symbol to its meaning as used in the notes?

a)

DI: National income at market prices

b)

NDP: Disposable income after taxes

c)

G: Government purchases of goods and services

d)

X: Gross private domestic investment

72.

Which of the following best describes a deficiency of GDP related to non-market activities?

a)

GDP fully includes the value of unpaid household work through imputed wages.

b)

GDP omits many near-market household services such as meals, laundering, and child-care provided at home.

c)

GDP double-counts underground economic activity like bartering and smuggling.

d)

GDP overstates value by excluding market consumption.

73.

Which activities are part of the underground economy and therefore not reported to the government?

a)

Gambling and prostitution

b)

Drug dealing and smuggling

c)

Work done by illegal immigrants

d)

Government purchases of office supplies

74.

What is meant by the informal economy as discussed in the material?

a)

Illegal activities that are prosecuted by the state and therefore excluded from GDP

b)

Not necessarily illegal activities that are not included in GDP, such as small roadside stalls

c)

All activities conducted by registered corporations

d)

Only bartered services reported for taxation

75.

Which items are examples of activities beyond traditional national accounts that augmented national accounts aim to include?

a)

Research and development and nonmarket investments in human capital

b)

Value of unpaid production in the home and value of leisure time

c)

Value of forests and some environmental assets

d)

Corporate dividends paid to shareholders

76.

Which statement about omitted environmental damage aligns with the material?

a)

GDP subtracts the monetary value of pollution to produce NDP.

b)

GDP omits some harmful side effects of economic activity, so measured output can overstate well-being.

c)

GDP includes a comprehensive valuation of forests and clean air.

d)

Environmental damage only affects real GDP, not nominal GDP.

77.

Using the definitions provided, which formula correctly defines personal saving?

a)

Personal saving = disposable personal income minus consumption

b)

Personal saving = personal income minus government spending

c)

Personal saving = consumption minus personal taxes

d)

Personal saving = wages plus interest income

78.

Disposable personal income is defined as which of the following?

a)

Personal income minus personal taxes

b)

Personal income plus personal taxes

c)

Consumption minus savings

d)

Wages minus indirect business taxes

79.

According to the 2018 data listed, which combination best matches the figures at 2018 prices?

a)

Average family income: 313 thousand pesos

b)

Average family expenditure: 203 thousand pesos

c)

Average savings: 75 thousand pesos

d)

Gini coefficient: 0.4438

80.

Referring to the expenditure patterns chart for 2018, which statement best captures the difference between the bottom 30 percent and the upper 70 percent income groups?

a)

Food takes a larger share in the bottom 30 percent budget than in the upper 70 percent

b)

Transport accounts for the same share in both groups

c)

House rent occupies a larger share in the bottom 30 percent than in the upper 70 percent

d)

Other expenditures are a smaller share for the upper 70 percent than for the bottom 30 percent

81.

Which symbol matches its macroeconomic meaning in the legend provided?

a)

C denotes Consumption

b)

Yd denotes Disposable Income

c)

LC denotes Life-cycle

d)

W denotes Wealth

82.

Which statement about the personal saving rate is accurate based on the terms provided?

a)

It is the percent saved from disposable personal income

b)

It is the ratio of personal taxes to personal income

c)

It equals disposable personal income minus consumption, divided by personal income

d)

It measures the share of government savings in GDP

83.

What relationship does the consumption function describe?

a)

The relationship between consumption expenditures and disposable income

b)

The relationship between investment and interest rates

c)

The relationship between government spending and tax revenues

d)

The relationship between exports and exchange rates

84.

Which scenario aligns with the concept of permanent income as described?

a)

A promotion that raises salary leads to a large increase in consumption

b)

A one-time bonus is mostly spent on durable goods

c)

A temporary tax rebate causes consumption to fall sharply

d)

An unexpected medical bill increases permanent income

85.

According to the life-cycle hypothesis stated, why do people save?

a)

To smooth consumption over their life-time

b)

To maximize short-run utility only

c)

To exactly match current income with current consumption

d)

To eliminate the wealth effect on spending

86.

Which macroeconomic equilibrium condition is listed as an equivalent expression of equilibrium?

a)

AS = AD

b)

Y = C + I + G + X

c)

I = S

d)

C = f(Yd, LC, W)

87.

Consider the linear consumption function C = a + bYd. Which parameter represents the marginal propensity to consume (the slope of the consumption function)?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

C

d)

Yd

88.

Using the 45-degree line framework, what happens at the break-even point where the consumption function intersects the 45-degree line?

a)

Consumption is less than income and saving is positive.

b)

Consumption equals income and saving is zero.

c)

Consumption exceeds income and saving is positive.

d)

Saving equals investment automatically.

89.

In the 45-degree line diagram of consumption versus disposable income, when the consumption function lies above the 45-degree line, households are:

a)

saving

b)

dissaving

c)

at break-even

d)

at full employment

90.

In the same diagram, when the consumption function lies below the 45-degree line, households are:

a)

dissaving

b)

at break-even

c)

having positive savings

d)

experiencing zero income

91.

Which statement correctly interprets the parameter a in the consumption function C = a + bYd?

a)

It is autonomous consumption, the amount consumed when income is zero.

b)

It is the income level at break-even.

c)

It is the fraction of income saved out of each additional peso.

d)

It is total consumption at full employment income.

92.

Refer to the plotted consumption function against the 45-degree line. Identify the economic meaning of the vertical distance between the 45-degree line and the consumption function at a given disposable income.

a)

It equals saving at that income level.

b)

It equals dissaving only at low incomes.

c)

It equals investment expenditure.

d)

It equals the marginal propensity to consume.

93.

Which formula gives the saving function implied by C = a + bYd?

a)

S = a + (1 − b)Yd

b)

S = −a + (1 − b)Yd

c)

S = Yd − b

d)

S = b − aYd

94.

From the identities Yd = S + C and C = a + bYd, which step correctly derives S?

a)

S = Yd + C

b)

S = Yd − C = Yd − a − bYd

c)

S = a − Yd + b

d)

S = a + bYd − Yd

95.

If the marginal propensity to consume is b, what is the marginal propensity to save (MPS)?

a)

b

b)

1 − b

c)

a

d)

Yd

96.

Which statement about MPC and MPS is correct?

a)

MPC + MPS = b

b)

MPC + MPS = 1

c)

MPC = 1 − a

d)

MPS = a + b

97.

According to the notes, when Yd = 0, what are C and S?

a)

C = 0 and S = 0

b)

C = a and S = −a

c)

C = a and S = a

d)

C = Yd and S = 0

98.

According to the notes, when S = 0, what is C equal to?

a)

C = a

b)

C = bYd

c)

C = Yd

d)

C = −a

99.

Which definition best describes the marginal propensity to consume (MPC)?

a)

The extra amount saved when income increases by one peso.

b)

The extra amount consumed when disposable income increases by one peso.

c)

The share of total income that is autonomous.

d)

The change in total output resulting from investment.

100.

Which definition best describes the marginal propensity to save (MPS)?

a)

The fraction of an extra peso of disposable income that goes to extra saving.

b)

The amount of saving when income is zero.

c)

The slope of the 45-degree line.

d)

The ratio of saving to consumption at all income levels.

101.

In the saving function diagram, what economic relationship does the upward-sloping saving line depict?

a)

Saving decreases as income rises.

b)

Saving is unrelated to disposable income.

c)

Saving increases with disposable income by (1 − b) per peso of Yd.

d)

Saving equals consumption at all income levels.

102.

Which pair correctly matches role of investment in macroeconomics?

a)

It is a large and volatile component of spending affecting aggregate demand and the business cycle.

b)

It reduces the nation’s potential output in the long run.

c)

It leads to capital accumulation that promotes long-run growth.

d)

It eliminates the need for saving in the economy.

103.

Which items are listed as determinants of investment decisions for businesses?

a)

Revenues or output produced by new investments

b)

Interest rates and taxes

c)

Business expectations about the economy

d)

Autonomous consumption a

104.

Gross private domestic investment (I) is described as which of the following?

a)

The total of domestic and foreign investment combined.

b)

The domestic component of national investment, one part of total social investment.

c)

Only government investment in infrastructure.

d)

An accounting identity equal to saving by definition only.

105.

Investment demand can shift due to changes in macroeconomic conditions. Based on the section’s focus, which change would most likely increase investment demand at every interest rate?

a)

Higher output raising expected revenues

b)

Higher taxes on capital income

c)

A fall in business expectations

d)

An increase in interest rates

106.

Which statement best captures the two main roles of investment in macroeconomics as presented in the instructional text?

a)

It determines household saving and sets the money supply

b)

It adds to aggregate demand and augments productive capacity

c)

It fixes government spending and controls net exports

d)

It only changes with income and is independent of interest rates

107.

According to the note in the simple multiplier model, how is investment treated and what primarily influences it?

a)

Investment is proportional to income and driven by taxes

b)

Investment is autonomous and primarily a function of the interest rate

c)

Investment is determined by government budget deficits alone

d)

Investment is fixed by business expectations and unaffected by money supply

108.

Which determinants are most directly cited as shifting the investment demand schedule in the material? Select all that apply.

a)

Higher output (via expected revenues)

b)

Higher taxes on capital income

c)

Business euphoria (improved expectations)

d)

Changes in household consumption propensity

109.

Given Model #2 with parameters a = 50, b = 0.8, I0 = 40, G = 0, X = 0, and potential output Y* = 500, the equilibrium condition is Ye2 = C + I0 with C = a + bYe2. What is the resulting equilibrium income Ye2?

a)

410

b)

450

c)

490

d)

500

110.

In Model #2, using a = 50, b = 0.8, and Ye2 = 450, compute consumption C from the consumption function C = a + bYe2.

a)

360

b)

400

c)

410

d)

450

111.

For Model #2, national saving S is defined as S = Ye2 − C. With Ye2 = 450 and C = 410, what is S, and how does it relate to autonomous investment I0 = 40?

a)

S = 30, which is less than I0

b)

S = 40, which equals I0

c)

S = 50, which exceeds I0

d)

S = 60, which exceeds I0

112.

The diagram shows a shift in the C line due to investment. Based on the worked example for Model #2, which statement best interprets the shift and the new equilibrium?

a)

The C line shifts down by 40, lowering equilibrium income to 410, which is below potential.

b)

The C line shifts up by 40, raising equilibrium income to 450, which remains below potential output 500.

c)

The C line remains unchanged, but investment reduces equilibrium income to 450.

d)

The C line shifts up by 50, increasing equilibrium income to potential output 500.

113.

Using the gap formulation Y* = Ye2 + gap × (multiplier), with Y* = 500, Ye2 = 450, and multiplier k = 5, what is the required gap in autonomous spending to reach potential output?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

50

114.

In the fiscal policy extension (Model #3), with a = 50, b = 0.8, I0 = 40, G0 = 10, X = 0, the model implies Ye3 = 450 + 10 × (1/(1 − 0.8)). What is Ye3 and does saving equal investment at this level?

a)

Ye3 = 450 and S = I0

b)

Ye3 = 500 and S ≠ I0

c)

Ye3 = 500 and S = I0

d)

Ye3 = 460 and S ≠ I0

115.

The consumption function with taxes is written as C = a − bT + bY. If taxes are modeled as a proportional income tax T = tY, what is the resulting consumption function?

a)

C = a + bY

b)

C = a + b(1 − t)Y

c)

C = a − bt + bY

d)

C = a − tY + bY

116.

Suppose taxes are a lump-sum head tax T0. Using the consumption function with taxes, which expression is correct?

a)

C = a + b(Y − tY)

b)

C = a − bT0 + bY

c)

C = a − t0 + bY

d)

C = a + b(1 − t)Y

117.

Given parameters a = 50, b = 0.8, I0 = 40, G0 = 10, X = 0, T = 10, and a full-employment output Y* = 500. Under the head-tax model, which equilibrium condition is used to solve for Y in Model #4?

a)

Y = C + I0 + G0 + X

b)

Y = C − I0 + G0

c)

Y = a − bT + bY

d)

Y = a + bY − T0

118.

Under the head-tax assumption, the worked derivation shows that Y equals Ye3 minus a term involving T0. What is the tax multiplier implied by that derivation?

a)

1/(1 − b)

b)

b/(1 − b)

c)

−b

d)

−b/(1 − b)

119.

Which statement about the tax multiplier in this model is correct?

a)

It is identical to the government expenditure multiplier 1/(1 − b).

b)

It is one less than the government multiplier and therefore always larger in magnitude.

c)

It equals b/(1 − b) in magnitude and is smaller than the government multiplier.

d)

It does not depend on the marginal propensity to consume b.

120.

The balanced budget multiplier M is computed as M = 1/(1 − b) − b/(1 − b). What is its value and interpretation here?

a)

M = 0; equal increases in G and T leave income unchanged.

b)

M = 1; raising G and T by the same amount raises income by that amount.

c)

M = b; equal increases in G and T raise income by the MPC.

d)

M = 1 − b; income rises by the portion not consumed.

121.

Using a = 50, b = 0.8, and T0 = 10 under the head-tax model, the worked solution computes C = a − bT0 + bY when Y = 460. What is the resulting consumption level C?

a)

C = 420

b)

C = 410

c)

C = 460

d)

C = 450

122.

With Y = 460 and C = 410 under the head-tax model, national saving is S = Y − C. What does the worked example conclude about macroeconomic equilibrium given S = 50 and government saving T − G = 40?

a)

There is macroeconomic equilibrium because S equals government saving.

b)

There is no macroeconomic equilibrium because S ≠ government saving.

c)

Equilibrium holds only if b = 0.8.

d)

Equilibrium holds only with proportional income tax.

123.

Refer to the AD diagram showing shifts due to components C, I, G, and X. Which component shift would most directly result from an increase in lump-sum taxes T0, holding other components constant?

a)

A leftward shift in AD via lower C

b)

A rightward shift in AD via higher G

c)

A rightward shift in AD via higher X

d)

No shift because taxes do not affect AD

124.

Using the diagrams of aggregate demand, identify which scenario represents a shift of the AD curve rather than a movement along it.

a)

A fall in the price level causing real GDP to rise along the same AD curve

b)

An increase in government spending that raises total demand at every price level

c)

A decrease in household wealth leading to lower spending at the current price

d)

A change in the price level due to moving from point C to point B on the same curve

125.

According to the table of factors that increase aggregate demand, which policy action directly increases spending and shifts AD to the right?

a)

Raising income taxes to reduce the deficit

b)

Increasing government purchases of goods and services

c)

Tightening monetary policy to curb credit growth

d)

Imposing higher import tariffs to protect domestic firms

126.

Which of the following is an exogenous variable that can increase aggregate demand by boosting net exports?

a)

Monetary expansion that lowers interest rates

b)

Fiscal tax incentives for investment

c)

Output growth abroad

d)

A reduction in domestic money wages

127.

Select all factors that the material identifies as potentially increasing aggregate demand through wealth or cost-of-capital channels.

a)

A rise in stock market prices that increases household wealth

b)

Higher stock prices lowering the cost of capital and raising investment

c)

Technological advances that open new opportunities for business investment

d)

An increase in taxes that discourages consumption

128.

Based on the notes provided, what is the expected effect of a tax increase on aggregate demand?

a)

Aggregate demand increases because disposable income rises

b)

Aggregate demand decreases because disposable income falls

c)

Aggregate demand is unchanged because taxes and spending offset

d)

Aggregate demand increases only if interest rates decline

129.

The figure comparing the multiplier model with the AS–AD approach shows equilibrium at point E. In the AS–AD panel, what feature indicates the economy’s capacity limit?

a)

The downward-sloping AD curve

b)

The vertical line labeled Potential GDP

c)

The 45-degree line in the TE diagram

d)

The intercept of the AS curve on the price axis

130.

In the multiplier model panel, which schedule represents total expenditure after including investment?

a)

C only

b)

C + I only

c)

C + I = TE

d)

AS

131.

Which monetary policy action is described as potentially lowering interest rates and loosening credit conditions, thereby raising investment and consumption of durables?

a)

Monetary contraction

b)

Monetary expansion

c)

Balanced budget amendment

d)

Exchange rate devaluation

132.

Which items are categorized as policy variables affecting aggregate demand in the material? Select all that apply.

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Foreign output

d)

Advances in technology

133.

According to the notes, how does aggregate supply behave as the economy approaches potential output?

a)

It remains perfectly flat at all output levels

b)

It slowly rises until it reaches potential output

c)

It becomes vertical immediately at low levels of GDP

d)

It falls as technology improves

134.

Which statement best describes the primary role of the financial system as introduced in this section?

a)

It produces real goods and services for households.

b)

It channels funds between savers and investors through markets and intermediaries.

c)

It sets government tax rates and spending priorities.

d)

It guarantees profits on all financial assets.

135.

Financial markets in this section include which of the following categories?

a)

Money markets

b)

Bond and mortgage markets

c)

Labor markets

d)

Foreign exchange markets

136.

Which example correctly pairs a financial intermediary with a core function described in the material?

a)

Commercial banks — take deposits, make loans, and create money

b)

Labor unions — negotiate wages and allocate savings

c)

Retailers — pool customer payments and issue bonds

d)

Central planners — set prices and clear transactions

137.

According to the flow of funds concept, which path illustrates how household savings can finance business investment without buying securities directly?

a)

Household deposits salary in a bank; bank lends to a small business for equipment

b)

Household buys a pizza oven; firm issues an IPO to repay the household

c)

Household purchases a government bond; firm buys back shares from the household

d)

Household pays taxes; government transfers funds to the firm

138.

Based on the diagram of the flow of funds, what role do mutual funds play?

a)

They issue currency used for daily transactions.

b)

They buy diversified portfolios of stocks, pooling and subdividing securities.

c)

They regulate interest rates for all banks.

d)

They directly set the exchange rate in foreign markets.

139.

The note under the flow of funds diagram states a key macro relationship. What is it?

a)

Government spending always equals tax revenue.

b)

Measured savings is equal to investments.

c)

Imports always equal exports.

d)

Bank deposits always equal loans.

140.

Which function is listed as part of the financial system’s role in transferring resources?

a)

Transferring resources across time, sectors, and regions

b)

Transferring ownership from firms to governments only

c)

Transferring only physical capital between factories

d)

Transferring voting rights among shareholders

141.

Which items are explicitly identified as functions of the financial system in this section?

a)

Manage risks for the economy

b)

Pool and subdivide funds

c)

Perform a clearinghouse function enabling rapid transfers

d)

Set the legal definition of property rights

142.

What example illustrates the clearinghouse function of the financial system?

a)

A bank issues new shares to raise capital.

b)

Writing a check for a computer, where a clearinghouse debits your bank and credits the seller’s bank.

c)

A firm announces an IPO to attract investors.

d)

A government imposes tariffs to protect domestic industries.

143.

Which is the definition of a financial asset given in the material?

a)

A tangible resource used directly in production, like machinery

b)

A claim by one party against another party, consisting of currency-denominated assets and equities

c)

A non-monetary store of value that cannot be traded

d)

A contractual obligation that never changes in value

144.

Which pairing correctly matches the financial asset with its description from the list provided?

a)

Common stocks — peso-denominated obligations of governments

b)

Savings accounts — deposits with banks or credit institutions

c)

Derivatives — ownership rights to companies

d)

Pension funds — funds that hold only short-term assets

145.

According to the risk–return figure and discussion, which statement aligns with the historical pattern described?

a)

Short-term government bonds tend to have the highest average return and highest risk.

b)

Large-company and small-company stocks have higher average returns but face higher risks than bonds.

c)

Long-term government bonds have higher risk and return than stocks.

d)

Savings accounts historically match the return of small-company stocks.

146.

How is rate of return defined in this section?

a)

Total peso gain from a security measured as a percent of the price at the beginning of the period

b)

Change in nominal GDP over a calendar year

c)

Difference between bid and ask prices at market open

d)

Interest rate after taxes and fees only

147.

The text provides an example where stocks had an average annual return of 6% with a standard deviation of 16%. What does this imply about the approximate range for the real rate of return?

a)

Between 0% and 12%

b)

Between 6% and 16%

c)

Between −10% and 22%

d)

Between −22% and 10%

148.

Which sequence reflects the evolution of money described in the section?

a)

Modern money to commodity money to barter

b)

Commodity money to barter to modern money

c)

Barter to commodity money to modern (paper) money

d)

Barter to modern money to commodity money

149.

Which are listed as functions of money in this section?

a)

Medium of exchange

b)

Unit of account for measuring value

c)

Store of value, relatively less risky than stocks or real estate

d)

Source of government tax revenue

150.

Which component is included in M1 (narrow money) in the Philippines?

a)

Time deposits held at banks

b)

Foreign currency deposits

c)

Checking deposits that can be withdrawn on demand

d)

Total liquidity aggregates excluded from broad money