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Foundations of Pharmacology

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the comprehensive study of drugs and their actions or effects on living organisms called?

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pathology

c)

Microbiology

d)

Toxicology

2.

The term 'pharmacology' originates from two Greek words. What does 'pharmakon' mean?

a)

Study or science

b)

Drug or medicine

c)

Water or light

d)

Stressor

3.

The term 'pharmacology' originates from two Greek words. What does 'logos' mean?

a)

A) Drug or medicine

b)

B) Study or science

c)

C) Light or heat

d)

D) Stressor

4.

Which therapeutic approach uses water, light, and heat for treatment?

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Physiotherapy

c)

Psychotherapy

d)

Biology

5.

Which therapeutic approach identifies stressors and methods to reduce them?

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Physiotherapy

c)

Psychotherapy

d)

Biology

6.

Which therapeutic method uses nutritional interventions to prevent, manage, or treat disease conditions, including specialized diets for diabetes, heart disease, and gastrointestinal disorders?

a)

Diet Therapy

b)

Physical Therapy

c)

Radiation Therapy

d)

Occupational Therapy

7.

Which therapeutic method involves the use of pharmaceutical agents to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose disease and represents the primary focus of pharmacology and nursing practice?

a)

Drug Therapy

b)

Physical Therapy

c)

Radiation Therapy

d)

Surgical Therapy

8.

Which therapeutic method employs physical methods such as exercise, massage, heat, and cold to restore function and relieve symptoms?

a)

Physiotherapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiotherapy

d)

Homeopathy

9.

Which therapeutic method addresses mental and emotional disorders through verbal communication, behavioral techniques, and cognitive interventions?

a)

Psychotherapy

b)

Pharmacotherapy

c)

Surgery

d)

Radiation therapy

10.

What is biologic therapy?

a)

A) A type of surgery

b)

B) A revolutionary class of drugs for autoimmune disorders

c)

C) A form of physical therapy

d)

D) A traditional small-molecule drug

11.

Unlike traditional small-molecule drugs, biologic agents are ______ manufactured in living systems such as bacteria, yeast, or mammalian cells.

a)

large, complex proteins

b)

simple carbohydrates

c)

small, inert molecules

d)

synthetic polymers

12.

Which of the following conditions can biologics help treat?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Crohn's disease

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Certain cancers

e)

All of the above

13.

Biologic agents include which of the following?

a)

Monoclonal antibodies

b)

Recombinant proteins

c)

Gene therapies

d)

All of the above

14.

Biologics offer targeted therapy with potentially fewer side effects than traditional medications.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What does the chemical name of a drug describe?

a)

The exact chemical composition of the drug molecule, including the precise placement of atoms and molecular groupings.

b)

The brand under which the drug is sold.

c)

The therapeutic use of the drug.

d)

The company that manufactures the drug.

16.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical name for acetaminophen?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

N-acetyl-para-aminophenol

c)

Tylenol

d)

Ibuprofen

17.

The chemical name of a drug is rarely used in clinical practice due to its complexity.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

According to the clinical note, why is it important for nurses to understand the existence of chemical names, even if they rarely use them in daily practice?

a)

Understanding their existence helps appreciate the scientific foundation of pharmacology.

b)

It allows nurses to prescribe medications independently.

c)

It is required for nurses to memorize all chemical names for exams.

d)

It helps nurses identify drug allergies more accurately.

19.

What is the generic name of a drug?

a)

The name registered by the manufacturer and always capitalized

b)

The nonproprietary name assigned to a drug, not capitalized, and commonly used in hospital formularies, insurance plans, and clinical guidelines

c)

The name listed by the FDA in official publications

d)

The name followed by a trademark symbol

20.

Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name?

a)

Advil

b)

Motrin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Tylenol

21.

The official name of a drug is usually the same as the ________ name.

a)

generic

b)

brand

c)

chemical

d)

trade

22.

What is the brand or trademark name of a drug?

a)

The nonproprietary name assigned to a drug

b)

The name listed by the FDA in official publications

c)

The name registered by the manufacturer, always capitalized, and may have multiple names for the same generic drug

d)

The name used in clinical guidelines

23.

Advil and Motrin are both brand names for which generic drug?

a)

Metformin

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Acetaminophen

24.

Fill in the blank: The generic name of a drug is normally not _________

a)

capitalized

b)

abbreviated

c)

italicized

d)

pluralized

25.

Which name(s) of a drug should the nurse use when teaching a patient about a new prescription?

a)

Trade

b)

Generic and trade

c)

Generic and chemical

d)

Official

26.

What does Body System Classification refer to in drug classifications?

a)

Groups drugs by the body system they affect, such as cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, respiratory, or nervous system medications.

b)

Groups drugs by their chemical structure and molecular formula.

c)

Groups drugs by their brand names and manufacturers.

d)

Groups drugs by their dosage forms, such as tablets, capsules, or injections.

27.

Which classification categorizes drugs by their therapeutic purpose or what condition they treat, such as antacids, antibiotics, antihypertensives, or analgesics?

a)

Therapeutic Use or Clinical Indications

b)

Chemical Structure

c)

Mechanism of Action

d)

Pharmacological Class

28.

Physiologic or Chemical Action classifies drugs by how they work at the cellular or molecular level. Which of the following is an example of this classification?

a)

Antacids

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Analgesics

d)

Antibiotics

29.

Which category of drugs requires an order by a health professional licensed to prescribe drugs, such as physicians, nurse practitioners, or physician assistants?

a)

Prescription Drugs

b)

Nonprescription (OTC)

c)

Illegal or Recreational

d)

Biosimilar

30.

Over-the-counter drugs are sold without a prescription.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Substances used for nontherapeutic purposes and obtained illegally are classified as ________.

a)

Illegal or Recreational

b)

Prescription

c)

Over-the-counter

d)

Therapeutic

32.

A biologic product that is highly similar in structure and function to an existing FDA-approved biologic product is called a ________.

a)

Biosimilar

b)

Generic drug

c)

Prodrug

d)

Biologic agent

33.

Which of the following is an example of a nonprescription (OTC) drug?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Meth

c)

Biosimilar

d)

Prescription Drug

34.

Coke, meth, and marijuana are examples of which drug category?

a)

Stimulants

b)

Depressants

c)

Hallucinogens

d)

Opioids

35.

What is the official public standards-setting authority for all prescription and over-the-counter medicines and other healthcare products manufactured or sold in the United States?

a)

The United States Pharmacopeia (USP)/National Formulary (NF)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

d)

World Health Organization (WHO)

36.

Which resource provides standardized drug nomenclature for clear communication across healthcare settings?

a)

USP Dictionary of USAN and International Drug Names

b)

Physicians' Desk Reference

c)

Merck Manual

d)

Gray's Anatomy

37.

Which clinical practice resource provides detailed prescribing information by manufacturers?

a)

Package inserts

b)

Clinical guidelines

c)

Textbooks

d)

Review articles

38.

Which clinical practice resource offers evidence-based articles on drug therapy and medication management?

a)

Nursing journals

b)

Travel magazines

c)

Cooking blogs

d)

Sports news websites

39.

Which clinical practice resource is rapidly updated and easily searchable for drug information systems?

a)

Electronic databases

b)

Printed textbooks

c)

Manual logbooks

d)

Paper charts

40.

Nurses should utilize multiple reliable sources when seeking drug information to ensure safe medication administration and comprehensive patient education.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following is a comprehensive database of nursing and allied health journals providing evidence-based information for clinical practice?

a)

Lexicomp

b)

CINAHL

c)

ePocrates

d)

DailyMed

42.

Which drug information database is widely used in hospitals and offers detailed monographs, drug interactions, dosing calculators, and patient education materials in multiple languages?

a)

Lexicomp

b)

CINAHL

c)

ePocrates

d)

DailyMed

43.

Which mobile-friendly drug reference tool is popular among healthcare providers and features drug information, interaction checker, pill identifier, and clinical practice guidelines?

a)

Lexicomp

b)

CINAHL

c)

ePocrates

d)

DailyMed

44.

Which free online resource from the National Library of Medicine provides access to FDA-approved drug labeling and package inserts in standardized format?

a)

Lexicomp

b)

CINAHL

c)

ePocrates

d)

DailyMed

45.

Which source of information is best for the nurse to obtain drug information?

a)

A. Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)

b)

B. Nursing journals

c)

C. United States Pharmacopeia (USP) and National Formulary (NF)

d)

D. Electronic databases

46.

According to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938, 1951, 1962), what must manufacturers prove before marketing a drug?

a)

Drug safety only

b)

Drug efficacy only

c)

Drug safety and efficacy

d)

Drug price

47.

Which act established five classifications or schedules for controlled substances based on abuse potential and accepted medical use?

a)

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

b)

Controlled Substances Act (1970)

c)

Pure Food and Drug Act

d)

Drug Enforcement Act

48.

Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Which of the following is a Schedule I drug?

a)

Heroin

b)

Tylenol 3

c)

Valium

d)

Lyrica

49.

Schedule II drugs have high abuse potential and accepted medical use with severe restrictions. Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?

a)

Lyrica

b)

Morphine

c)

Valium

d)

Tylenol 3

50.

Schedule III drugs have moderate to low abuse potential. Which of the following is a Schedule III drug? Select the correct answer.

a)

Tylenol 3

b)

Heroin

c)

Lyrica

d)

Valium

51.

Fill in the blank: Schedule IV drugs have ______ abuse potential and include drugs such as Valium and Fetonal.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

moderate

d)

no

52.

Fill in the blank: The drug Lyrica is classified as a Schedule ___ drug, which has the lowest abuse potential.

a)

V (five)

b)

I (one)

c)

II (two)

d)

III (three)

53.

Which entity is responsible for monitoring drug safety in the United States?

a)

Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

b)

Department of Justice (DOJ)

c)

U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

World Health Organization (WHO)

54.

Which drug schedule indicates drugs with the highest risk for abuse?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

55.

Specific requirements must be met to prescribe, dispense, and administer scheduled medications, including: ________ (Fill in the blank: What is required to legally handle scheduled medications?)

a)

Valid DEA registration number

b)

State-issued driver’s license

c)

Hospital employee ID badge

d)

Proof of malpractice insurance

56.

Specific requirements must be met to prescribe, dispense, and administer scheduled medications, including: ________ (Fill in the blank: What is required for proper documentation?)

a)

Proper documentation and record-keeping

b)

Verbal instructions only

c)

Patient self-reporting

d)

No documentation required

57.

Specific requirements must be met to prescribe, dispense, and administer scheduled medications, including: ________ (Fill in the blank: What is required for secure storage?)

a)

Secure storage in locked cabinets or automated dispensing systems

b)

Storage in open shelves accessible to all staff

c)

Keeping medications in patient rooms for convenience

d)

Storing medications in unlocked drawers

58.

Specific requirements must be met to prescribe, dispense, and administer scheduled medications, including: ________ (Fill in the blank: What is required for inventory management?)

a)

Regular inventory counts and reconciliation

b)

Annual staff parties

c)

Patient satisfaction surveys

d)

Weekly marketing meetings

59.

Specific requirements must be met to prescribe, dispense, and administer scheduled medications, including: ________ (Fill in the blank: What is required for reporting?)

a)

Reporting of discrepancies or losses

b)

Reporting of patient allergies

c)

Reporting of medication expiration dates

d)

Reporting of prescription refills

60.

Hospital controls: Healthcare facilities implement strict inventory and dispersion control records for all controlled substances. These systems typically include automated dispensing cabinets with user identification, witness requirements for disposal, and comprehensive audit trails. Which of the following is NOT typically included in hospital controls for controlled substances?

a)

Automated dispensing cabinets with user identification

b)

Witness requirements for disposal

c)

Comprehensive audit trails

d)

Unrestricted access to medication cabinets

61.

Which of the following is a critical nursing responsibility regarding controlled substances?

a)

A) Nurses may keep controlled substances for personal use

b)

B) Nurses may possess controlled substances only if properly prescribed to them

c)

C) Nurses may borrow medications between patients

d)

D) Nurses may carry controlled substances on their person

62.

What are the possible consequences of diverting controlled substances?

a)

Criminal prosecution

b)

Loss of licensure

c)

Potential imprisonment

d)

All of the above

63.

Fill in the blank: Any controlled substance removed from secure storage must be immediately administered, wasted with a witness, or returned to ________.

a)

secure storage

b)

the pharmacy

c)

the nurse's station

d)

the medication cart

e)

the supervisor

64.

Which entities help enforce drug legislation and maintain public safety?

a)

FDA

b)

DEA

c)

State boards of pharmacy and nursing

d)

All of the above

65.

Which of the following is the first stage in the FDA drug approval process?

a)

Clinical Research & Development

b)

Preclinical Research & Development

c)

New Drug Application (NDA) Review

d)

Postmarketing Surveillance

66.

Fill in the blank: The average time for Preclinical Research & Development is ________ months.

a)

18

b)

6

c)

36

d)

48

67.

Which stage of the FDA drug approval process involves three phases of human trials to assess safety, dosing, efficacy, and side effects?

a)

Preclinical Research & Development

b)

Clinical Research & Development

c)

New Drug Application (NDA) Review

d)

Postmarketing Surveillance

68.

Postmarketing Surveillance involves ongoing monitoring to identify rare or long-term adverse effects after drug approval.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

What is the purpose of the FDA's Fast Tracking program?

a)

To delay drug approval for safety reasons

b)

To expedite drug development and approval for medications treating serious conditions and filling an unmet medical need

c)

To restrict access to investigational drugs

d)

To eliminate the need for FDA communication

70.

Parallel Tracking is used for patients with life-threatening illnesses who cannot participate in controlled clinical trials and have no other treatment alternatives.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

What is a black box warning?

a)

The least serious type of warning the FDA can require on a drug label

b)

The most serious type of warning the FDA can require on a drug label

c)

A warning that only applies to over-the-counter drugs

d)

A warning that means the drug should never be used

72.

Fill in the blank: An example of a drug with a black box warning mentioned in the worksheet is _________.

a)

warfarin

b)

acetaminophen

c)

amoxicillin

d)

ibuprofen

73.

True or False: Black box warnings mean the drug should be avoided completely.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

According to the worksheet, what is the probability that a drug will acquire a new black box warning or be withdrawn from the market within 25 years of being released?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

50%

75.

According to the National Organization for Rare Disorders (NORD), approximately how many rare health conditions affect Americans?

a)

1,000

b)

6,000

c)

20,000

d)

200,000

76.

A disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than how many people in the United States?

a)

200,000

b)

500,000

c)

50,000

d)

1,000,000

77.

What are orphan drugs?

a)

Medicines for common diseases

b)

Medicines developed specifically for rare diseases or conditions

c)

Over-the-counter drugs

d)

Herbal supplements

78.

Which of the following is NOT an incentive provided by the Orphan Drug Act of 1983?

a)

Tax credits for clinical research expenses

b)

FDA fee waivers for regulatory submissions

c)

Free healthcare for all patients

d)

Grant funding for clinical trials

79.

Fill in the blank: The Orphan Drug Act of 1983 provides seven years of _______ after approval for orphan drugs.

a)

marketing exclusivity

b)

patent protection

c)

clinical trials

d)

tax incentives

80.

Since the passage of the Orphan Drug Act, hundreds of orphan drugs have been approved, improving outcomes for patients with rare diseases.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

How many years on average does it take for a drug to be brought to market from the time of its conception?

a)

2 to 3 years

b)

4 to 7 years

c)

8 to 15 years

d)

12 to 18 years

82.

What are drug receptors? Fill in the blank: Drug receptors are _________.

a)

Specific sites on cells where drugs form chemical bonds, typically proteins on cell surfaces or within cells that recognize and bind specific drug molecules.

b)

Enzymes that break down drugs in the liver.

c)

Hormones released in response to drug intake.

d)

Cells that transport drugs throughout the body.

83.

What is pharmacodynamics? Fill in the blank:

a)

The study of interactions between drugs and their receptors, including the series of biochemical and physiologic events that result in a pharmacologic response. This explains what the drug does to the body.

b)

The study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs.

c)

The study of genetic variations that influence individual responses to drugs.

d)

The process of drug formulation and compounding in a laboratory setting.

84.

Which of the following is an example of an agonist?

a)

Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse morphine overdose.

b)

Morphine binds to opioid receptors to relieve pain.

c)

Drug receptors are proteins on cell surfaces.

d)

Pharmacodynamics is the study of drug interactions.

85.

Which of the following is an example of an antagonist?

a)

Morphine binds to opioid receptors to relieve pain.

b)

Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse morphine overdose.

c)

Drug receptors are proteins on cell surfaces.

d)

Pharmacodynamics is the study of drug interactions.

86.

What does an agonist drug do?

a)

Binds to the receptor and causes an action

b)

Blocks the receptor

c)

Destroys the receptor

d)

Has no effect on the receptor

87.

Fill in the blank: An agonist drug binds to the _______ and causes an action.

a)

receptor

b)

enzyme

c)

hormone

d)

membrane

88.

According to the key, what does the lock represent?

a)

receptor

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

hormone

89.

What is the most common and convenient route of drug administration via the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Oral (PO)

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Subcutaneous (SC)

d)

Inhalation

90.

Which enteral route is useful when the oral route is unavailable?

a)

Rectal (PR)

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Subcutaneous (SC)

d)

Inhalational

91.

For patients unable to swallow, which enteral route is used for drug administration?

a)

Nasogastric tube (NG)

b)

Intravenous injection

c)

Transdermal patch

d)

Sublingual tablet

92.

Drugs administered via the enteral route must survive the _______ and first-pass liver metabolism.

a)

acidic stomach environment

b)

alkaline intestinal environment

c)

neutral blood pH

d)

basic oral cavity

93.

Which parenteral route involves injection under the skin?

a)

Subcutaneous (SubQ)

b)

Intramuscular (IM)

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Intradermal (ID)

94.

Which parenteral route involves injection into muscle tissue?

a)

Intramuscular (IM)

b)

Subcutaneous (SC)

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Intradermal (ID)

95.

Which parenteral route delivers drugs directly into the bloodstream?

a)

Intravenous (IV)

b)

Intramuscular (IM)

c)

Subcutaneous (SC)

d)

Intradermal (ID)

96.

Parenteral route is useful for drugs destroyed by _______.

a)

stomach acid

b)

liver enzymes

c)

intestinal bacteria

d)

pancreatic juice

97.

Which percutaneous route involves breathing the drug into the lungs?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Transdermal

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Intramuscular

98.

Which percutaneous route involves placing the drug under the tongue?

a)

Sublingual (SL)

b)

Buccal

c)

Transdermal

d)

Intranasal