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Routes of Drug Administration

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which route of drug administration involves the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Enteral Route

b)

Parenteral Route

c)

Topical Route

d)

Inhalational Route

2.

Which is the most common and convenient enteral route of drug administration?

a)

Rectal (PR)

b)

Oral (PO)

c)

Nasogastric tube (NG)

d)

Intravenous (IV)

3.

Which enteral route is useful when the oral route is unavailable?

a)

Rectal (PR)

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Subcutaneous (SC)

d)

Inhalational

4.

For patients unable to swallow, which enteral route is used?

a)

Nasogastric tube (NG)

b)

Intravenous route

c)

Oral route

d)

Subcutaneous route

5.

Drugs administered via the enteral route must survive the acidic stomach environment and ________.

a)

first-pass liver metabolism

b)

renal excretion

c)

pulmonary absorption

d)

biliary secretion

6.

Which route bypasses the GI tract through injection?

a)

Enteral Route

b)

Parenteral Route

c)

Percutaneous Route

d)

Oral Route

7.

Subcutaneous (SubQ) injection delivers drugs ________.

a)

Under the skin

b)

Into the muscle

c)

Into the vein

d)

On the skin surface

8.

Intramuscular (IM) injection delivers drugs into ________.

a)

muscle tissue

b)

subcutaneous tissue

c)

epidermal layer

d)

vein

9.

Intravenous (IV) injection delivers drugs directly into ________.

a)

bloodstream

b)

muscle tissue

c)

digestive tract

d)

skin layers

10.

Which parenteral route is useful for drugs destroyed by stomach acid?

a)

Parenteral Route

b)

Oral Route

c)

Topical Route

d)

Rectal Route

11.

Which route involves absorption through skin and mucous membranes?

a)

Enteral Route

b)

Parenteral Route

c)

Percutaneous Route

d)

Intravenous Route

12.

Inhalation route delivers drugs ________.

a)

Breathed into lungs

b)

Injected into veins

c)

Swallowed into stomach

d)

Applied on skin

13.

Sublingual (SL) route delivers drugs ________.

a)

Under the tongue

b)

In the stomach

c)

Through the skin

d)

Into the bloodstream directly

14.

Topical route applies drugs to ________.

a)

skin surface

b)

muscle tissue

c)

bloodstream

d)

respiratory tract

15.

Transdermal route delivers drugs through ________.

a)

skin

b)

mouth

c)

vein

d)

muscle

16.

What is the process called when a drug is released from its dosage form and dissolved in body fluids?

a)

Liberation

b)

Absorption

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion

17.

What is the process called when a drug is transferred from the administration site into circulation?

a)

Absorption

b)

Metabolism

c)

Excretion

d)

Distribution

18.

What is the process called when a drug is transported throughout the body via bloodstream?

a)

Distribution

b)

Metabolism

c)

Absorption

d)

Excretion

19.

What is the process called when a drug is chemically altered, primarily in the liver?

a)

Metabolism

b)

Absorption

c)

Excretion

d)

Distribution

20.

What is the process called when a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body?

a)

Excretion

b)

Absorption

c)

Metabolism

d)

Distribution

21.

Which stage of the LADME pathway involves the drug being released from its dosage form and dissolved in body fluids?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Liberation

d)

Metabolism

22.

What is the generic name of a drug?

a)

The name registered by the manufacturer and always capitalized

b)

The nonproprietary name assigned to a drug, not capitalized and commonly used in hospital formularies

c)

The name listed by the FDA in official publications

d)

The name followed by a trademark symbol

23.

Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name?

a)

Advil

b)

Motrin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Tylenol

24.

Fill in the blank: The official name of a drug is the name listed by the ______ in official publications. In most cases, the official name is the same as the generic name.

a)

U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

World Health Organization (WHO)

c)

American Medical Association (AMA)

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

25.

The generic name of a drug is normally not capitalized.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which statement about brand or trademark names is correct?

a)

They are always the same as the generic name

b)

They are registered by the manufacturer and always capitalized

c)

They are never followed by a trademark symbol

d)

They are used only in clinical guidelines

27.

Fill in the blank: Advil and Motrin are both brand names for ______.

a)

ibuprofen

b)

acetaminophen

c)

naproxen

d)

aspirin

28.

What does the chemical name of a drug describe?

a)

The brand name of the drug

b)

The exact chemical composition of the drug

c)

The generic name of the drug

d)

The manufacturer of the drug

29.

Fill in the blank: The chemical name for acetaminophen is _________.

a)

N-acetyl-para-aminophenol

b)

2-acetoxybenzoic acid

c)

p-aminobenzoic acid

d)

N-acetylcysteine

30.

Nurses rarely need to reference chemical names in daily practice.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The chemical name is rarely used in clinical practice because:

a)

it is often too complex and difficult to remember

b)

it is the most commonly used name in practice

c)

it provides no information about the drug's structure

d)

it is preferred for patient communication

32.

What is biologic therapy?

a)

A) A traditional small-molecule drug

b)

B) A revolutionary class of drugs that treats autoimmune disorders and conditions where the body's immune system attacks its own organs, tissues, and cells

c)

C) A type of surgery

d)

D) A vitamin supplement

33.

Fill in the blank: Unlike traditional small-molecule drugs, biologic agents are ______ manufactured in living systems such as bacteria, yeast, or mammalian cells.

a)

large, complex proteins

b)

simple carbohydrates

c)

small, synthetic molecules

d)

inorganic compounds

34.

Name two conditions that biologics have revolutionized treatment for.

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis

b)

Diabetes and hypertension

c)

Asthma and tuberculosis

d)

Osteoporosis and anemia

35.

Biologics offer targeted therapy with potentially fewer side effects than traditional medications.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

According to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938, 1951, 1962), what must manufacturers prove before marketing a drug?

a)

Drug safety only

b)

Drug efficacy only

c)

Drug safety and efficacy

d)

Drug cost

37.

Which schedule under the Controlled Substances Act (1970) has high abuse potential and no accepted medical use? Examples include heroin, LSD, hashish, MDMA, and ecstasy.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

38.

Fill in the blank: Schedule II drugs have high abuse potential and accepted medical use with severe restrictions. Examples include ________, opioid, morphine, Adderall, Narco, and Methadone.

a)

acetaminophen

b)

caffeine

c)

ibuprofen

d)

codeine

39.

Schedule I drugs are used in severe medical situations.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which schedule has the lowest abuse potential?

a)

Schedule V

b)

Schedule I

c)

Schedule II

d)

Schedule III

41.

What is the most serious type of warning that the FDA can require on a drug label?

a)

Black box warning

b)

Red label warning

c)

Yellow caution warning

d)

Blue border warning

42.

A black box warning is surrounded by a black border and indicates a very serious, potentially life-threatening problem discovered during postmarketing surveillance or late-stage clinical trials.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Fill in the blank: The probability of a drug acquiring a new black box warning or being withdrawn from the market within 25 years of being released is approximately ____%.

a)

20

b)

5

c)

35

d)

50

44.

Which drug is specifically mentioned as an example of one that may require a black box warning?

a)

A) Aspirin

b)

B) Warfarin

c)

C) Ibuprofen

d)

D) Acetaminophen

45.

Postmarketing surveillance represents a critical continuation of drug safety assessment after FDA approval. Ongoing safety monitoring for new drugs is important because:

a)

It helps identify rare or long-term side effects not detected in clinical trials.

b)

It increases the cost of drug development.

c)

It replaces the need for clinical trials.

d)

It is only required for generic drugs.

46.

According to the National Organization for Rare Disorders (NORD), approximately how many rare health conditions affect Americans?

a)

6,000 rare health conditions

b)

600 rare health conditions

c)

60,000 rare health conditions

d)

600,000 rare health conditions

47.

A disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than how many people in the United States?

a)

200,000 people

b)

500,000 people

c)

50,000 people

d)

1,000,000 people

48.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a rare disease?

a)

Sickle cell disease

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Common cold

d)

Genetic disorders

49.

What are orphan drugs?

a)

Medicines developed specifically for the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of rare diseases or conditions.

b)

Medicines used exclusively for common infectious diseases.

c)

Medicines that are only available over the counter.

d)

Medicines developed for cosmetic purposes.

50.

Why did pharmaceutical companies historically avoid developing treatments for rare diseases?

a)

Due to limited commercial markets and lack of special incentives.

b)

Because rare diseases are always easy to cure.

c)

Because rare diseases have no impact on public health.

d)

Because governments banned research on rare diseases.

51.

Which of the following is an incentive provided by the Orphan Drug Act of 1983?

a)

Tax credits for clinical research expenses

b)

FDA fee waivers for regulatory submissions

c)

Seven years of marketing exclusivity after approval

d)

Grant funding for clinical trials

e)

All of the above

52.

Since the passage of the Orphan Drug Act, hundreds of orphan drugs have been approved, improving outcomes for patients with rare diseases.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What are drug receptors? Fill in the blank: Drug receptors are specific sites on cells where drugs form chemical bonds, similar to a lock and key mechanism. These receptors are typically proteins on cell surfaces or within cells that recognize and bind specific drug molecules.

a)

Specific sites on cells where drugs form chemical bonds, typically proteins on cell surfaces or within cells that recognize and bind specific drug molecules.

b)

Enzymes that break down drugs in the bloodstream.

c)

Hormones that regulate drug metabolism in the liver.

d)

Lipids that store drugs within fat cells.

54.

What is pharmacodynamics? Fill in the blank:

a)

The study of interactions between drugs and their receptors, including the series of biochemical and physiologic events that result in a pharmacologic response. This explains what the drug does to the body.

b)

The study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs.

c)

The process of drug formulation and compounding in a laboratory setting.

d)

The study of genetic factors that influence individual responses to drugs.

55.

Which of the following is an example of an agonist?

a)

Morphine binds to opioid receptors to relieve pain.

b)

Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse morphine overdose.

c)

Drug receptors are proteins on cell surfaces.

d)

Pharmacodynamics explains what the drug does to the body.

56.

Which of the following is an example of an antagonist?

a)

Morphine binds to opioid receptors to relieve pain.

b)

Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse morphine overdose.

c)

Drug receptors are proteins on cell surfaces.

d)

Pharmacodynamics explains what the drug does to the body.

57.

What is the process called where a drug is released from its dosage form and dissolved in body fluids before being absorbed into the bloodstream?

a)

Liberation

b)

Metabolism

c)

Distribution

d)

Excretion

58.

Which factor affects how quickly different drugs dissolve in the stomach?

a)

Dosage form

b)

Food and water

c)

Stomach pH

d)

Coating

59.

Enteric-coated medications cannot be ________.

a)

crushed

b)

swallowed whole

c)

taken with water

d)

stored in a cool place

60.

Immediate-release tablets dissolve quickly, while extended-release formulations dissolve slowly over hours. What is this factor called?

a)

Dosage form

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Half-life

d)

Therapeutic index

61.

Some drugs require administration with food for optimal dissolution, while others should be taken on an empty stomach. What is this factor called?

a)

Food and water

b)

Temperature

c)

Dosage form

d)

Route of administration

62.

What is absorption?

a)

Absorption is the process by which a drug is transferred from its entry site into the body's circulating fluids (blood and lymph).

b)

Absorption is the process by which a drug is eliminated from the body through urine.

c)

Absorption is the process by which a drug is broken down in the stomach.

d)

Absorption is the process by which a drug is stored in the liver.

63.

Which of the following factors affect the absorption rate of drugs?

a)

Route of Administration

b)

Blood Flow to Site

c)

Drug Solubility

d)

All of the above

64.

Oral drugs must pass through the GI tract; IV drugs enter directly into circulation, bypassing absorption. Which type of drug administration bypasses absorption?

a)

IV drugs

b)

Oral drugs

c)

Topical drugs

d)

Sublingual drugs

65.

Areas with rich blood supply absorb drugs more rapidly than poorly perfused tissues.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Lipid-soluble drugs cross membranes more easily than water-soluble drugs.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Intravenous medications are absorbed fastest because they're placed directly into the bloodstream.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Absorption of medications applied to the skin can be influenced by which of the following?

a)

Skin thickness

b)

Hydration status

c)

Presence of breaks in the skin

d)

All of the above

69.

What is metabolism (also called biotransformation) in the context of drugs? Fill in the blank: Metabolism is the process whereby the body chemically ______ drugs through enzymatic reactions.

a)

inactivates

b)

absorbs

c)

excretes

d)

dilutes

70.

Which organ is the primary site of drug metabolism?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

GI tract

71.

Which enzyme system in the liver is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?

a)

CYP450

b)

Amylase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Lipase

72.

Other than the liver, which organ contains enzymes in the intestinal wall that can metabolize some drugs before they reach systemic circulation?

a)

Lungs

b)

Gastrointestinal tract

c)

Kidneys

d)

Blood

73.

Which organ metabolizes some inhaled drugs and substances absorbed from other routes?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Lungs

c)

Liver

d)

Blood

74.

Which tissues contribute to drug metabolism to a lesser degree? Fill in the blank: ______, blood, and other tissues contribute to metabolism to a lesser degree.

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

75.

What is excretion?

a)

The absorption of nutrients

b)

The elimination of drug metabolites and some unchanged active drug from the body

c)

The process of digestion

d)

The breakdown of proteins

76.

Which organ is the major organ of drug excretion?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

77.

Renal function significantly impacts drug clearance, making kidney disease a major consideration in medication dosing.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Fill in the blank: Decreased kidney function requires _______ for renally excreted drugs.

a)

dose reduction

b)

dose increase

c)

no change

d)

additional monitoring

79.

Which of the following is the primary route for most drugs and metabolites?

a)

Fecal (Stool)

b)

Renal (Urine)

c)

Sweat

d)

Saliva

80.

Name two other routes of drug excretion besides renal (urine).

a)

Biliary (feces) and pulmonary (exhaled air)

b)

Renal (urine) and sweat

c)

Renal (urine) and saliva

d)

Renal (urine) and tears

81.

What is the purpose of therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

a)

To ensure drug levels remain within the therapeutic range

b)

To increase drug toxicity

c)

To avoid taking blood samples

d)

To reduce drug effectiveness

82.

Drug blood level monitoring is especially important for which of the following types of medications?

a)

Anticonvulsants

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Cardiac medications

d)

All of the above

83.

Fill in the blank: TDM is particularly important for drugs with ______ therapeutic windows, where the difference between therapeutic and toxic levels is small.

a)

narrow

b)

wide

c)

variable

d)

irrelevant

84.

Which of the following is an example of an anticonvulsant that requires drug blood level monitoring?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Digoxin

d)

Lithium

85.

Which of the following is an immunosuppressant that may require drug blood level monitoring?

a)

Tacrolimus

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Valproic acid

d)

Gentamicin

86.

Name one mood stabilizer for which drug blood level monitoring is important.

a)

Lithium

b)

Valproic acid

c)

Lamotrigine

d)

Carbamazepine

87.

What do unbound (free) drugs represent in the bloodstream? Fill in the blank: Unbound (free) drugs represent the pharmacologically ______ portion that can reach target tissues and produce effects.

a)

active

b)

inactive

c)

bound

d)

neutral

88.

Bound drugs are attached to ______ in the bloodstream and are temporarily inactive, serving as a reservoir. Fill in the blank.

a)

plasma proteins

b)

red blood cells

c)

platelets

d)

white blood cells

89.

Which of the following statements is true about the clinical significance of protein binding?

a)

The more a drug is bound to protein, the more available it is for distribution to target sites.

b)

The more a drug is bound to protein, the less available it is for distribution to target sites.

c)

Protein binding has no effect on drug distribution.

d)

Drugs do not exist in equilibrium between bound and free forms.

90.

When protein binding is high (>90%), what effect can small changes in binding have on free drug concentration and clinical effects? Fill in the blank: Small changes in binding can cause ______ changes in free drug concentration and clinical effects?

a)

large

b)

small

c)

no

d)

minor

91.

Fill in the blank: A drug interaction is said to occur when the action of one drug is ______ or changed by the action of another drug.

a)

altered

b)

ignored

c)

enhanced

d)

delayed

92.

Which of the following describes enhanced effects in drug interactions?

a)

Agents that, when combined, increase the action of one or both drugs.

b)

Agents that, when combined, decrease the effectiveness of one or both drugs.

c)

Agents that have no effect when combined.

d)

Agents that only work individually.

93.

Which of the following describes decreased effects in drug interactions?

a)

A) Agents that, when combined, increase the action of one or both drugs.

b)

B) Agents that, when combined, decrease the effectiveness of one or both drugs.

c)

C) Agents that have no effect when combined.

d)

D) Agents that only work individually.

94.

Changes in Absorption: Most drug interactions that alter absorption take place in the gastrointestinal tract, where drugs can interfere with each other's ability to pass through the intestinal wall and enter the bloodstream. Which of the following is a common absorption interaction that involves antacids increasing gastric pH and inhibiting the dissolution of certain tablets?

a)

Chelation

b)

Delayed gastric emptying

c)

pH changes

d)

Enzyme induction

95.

Changes in Absorption: Some drugs bind to minerals (calcium, iron, magnesium) and form insoluble complexes that can't be absorbed. This process is called _________. Example: Tetracycline antibiotics binding to calcium in dairy products.

a)

Chelation

b)

Oxidation

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Sublimation

96.

Changes in Absorption: Some drugs slow movement through the GI tract, affecting absorption of other medications. This is known as:

a)

pH changes

b)

Chelation

c)

Delayed gastric emptying

d)

Enzyme inhibition

97.

Changes in Absorption: Many alterations in absorption can be managed by separating the administration times of interacting drugs. Generally, spacing medications by ________ allows one drug to be absorbed before the other interferes.

a)

2-4 hours

b)

10-15 minutes

c)

6-8 hours

d)

24 hours