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Radiopharmaceuticals and Pulmonary Drug Delivery

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

FDA does not regulate the nuclear pharmacy

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The radiopharmaceuticals administered at standard doses produce a pharmacologic response.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Neutron is not one of the product of beta minus decay

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Alpha decay has the strongest penetration ability in all the three radioactive decay

a)

True

b)

False

5.

99mTc has a half-life of 6 hours, determine the fraction remaining after 12 hours

a)

12.5%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

6.

A radiopharmaceutical has a physical half-life of 3 hours and a biological half-life of 12 hours, calculate its effective half-life.

a)

0.42 hours

b)

1.2 hours

c)

2.4 hours

d)

7.5 hours

7.

Beta-emitting nuclides are usually used for diagnostic purposes

a)

True

b)

False

8.

99mTc is usually used in therapeutics

a)

True

b)

False

9.

For an excepted packaging, a safety analysis report must be submitted and approved before transporting

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Beta minus (β–) decay emits which particles?

a)

Positron and neutrino

b)

Electron and antineutrino

c)

Neutron and proton

d)

Gamma photon

11.

Gamma decay involves a nucleus:

a)

Increasing atomic number by 2

b)

Transitioning from high to lower energy state without changing atomic identity

c)

Converting a neutron into a proton

d)

Emitting a positron

12.

The SI unit of activity is the:

a)

Curie (Ci)

b)

Gray (Gy)

c)

Becquerel (Bq)

d)

Sievert (Sv)

13.

Which characteristic is ideal for diagnostic radiopharmaceuticals?

a)

Long biological half-life

b)

Beta emission for tissue damage

c)

Pure gamma emission with short half-life

d)

Extensive metabolism

14.

Which of the following does NOT regulate radiopharmaceuticals?

a)

State board of pharmacy

b)

FDA

c)

NRC

d)

EPA

15.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals can pass the blood brain barrier?

a)

[15O]-oxygen

b)

[15O]-carbon monoxide

c)

[15O]-water

d)

[11C]-acetate

16.

Match the radiopharmaceutical to the application:

a)

[15O]-oxygen

1.

Cerebral Oxygen extraction, metabolism

b)

[11C]-acetate

2.

Myocardial

Metabolism

c)

[18F]-fluorodeoxyglucose

3.

Cerebral/Myocardial/Tumor glucose Metab.

d)

[15O]-water

4.

Cerebral/Myocaridal blood flow

e)

[13N]-ammonia

5.

Myocardial blood flow

17.

Match the radiopharmaceutical to its primary use:

a)

Oxyquinoline

1.

Radiolabel autologous leukocytes

b)

Tc red blood cells

2.

Image GI Bleeding, cardiac chambers

c)

Tc sestamibi

3.

Image myocaridal perfusion, breast tumor

d)

I sodium iodide

4.

Thyroid imaging and uptake

e)

Y ibitumomab tiuxetan

5.

Non-hodgkin lymphoma

18.

What is used in 90% of all diagnostic imaging studies?

a)

Technetium-99m

b)

Tc Exametazime

c)

Y microspheres

d)

Ho-DOTMP

19.

Which factor does NOT affect the dose of a radiopharmaceutical?

a)

Administered Activity

b)

Effective Half-Life

c)

Bio-Distribution

d)

Energy of emissions

e)

Temperature

20.

Which of the following is NOT part of the S-Factor

a)

Total energy from radiation type

b)

Fraction of energy absorbed by target organ, emitted by source organ

c)

Mass of target organ

d)

Mass of radiopharmaceutical

21.

Which type of radioactive decay involves the emission of a positron?

a)

β⁻ decay

b)

β⁺ decay

c)

α decay

d)

γ decay

22.

In gamma decay, a nucleus transitions from:

a)

Low energy → high energy

b)

High energy → lower energy

c)

Proton converted into neutron

d)

Neutron converted into proton

23.

Tc-99m emits radiation at approximately:

a)

50–100 keV

b)

140 keV

c)

511 keV

d)

1–5 MeV

24.

The half-life of Tc-99m is approximately:

a)

20 minutes

b)

6 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

10 days

25.

Transport of radioactive materials is governed under:

a)

OSHA Medical Hazardous Goods Act

b)

Carriage of Dangerous Goods 2009

c)

Clean Air Handling Act

d)

FDA Consolidated Shipping Act

26.

Physical half-life refers to:

a)

Time to clear 50% via metabolism

b)

Time for activity in tissue to drop due to decay and clearance

c)

Time required for radioactive atoms to decay 50%

d)

Time to lose target activity in imaging

27.

Isotopes are defined as nuclides that share the same:

a)

Neutron number

b)

Proton number

c)

Mass number

d)

Decay mode

28.

Radioactivity is defined as:

a)

Conversion of drug into metabolites

b)

Emission of radiation due to spontaneous nuclear transformation

c)

Breakdown of molecules by enzymatic action

d)

Artificial induction of ionizing energy

29.

Effective half-life accounts for:

a)

Only radioactive decay

b)

Only biological clearance

c)

Both physical and biological half-life

d)

Only metabolic elimination

30.

Cold kits contain all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Buffer systems

b)

Compound to be labeled

c)

Antioxidants

d)

Radionuclide already complexed

31.

Surface area decreases with the increasing distance of the airway from the glottis

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Pulmonary delivered drugs may produce local side effects due to the oropharyngeal deposition.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Pulmonary delivery dosage forms are inhaled through the nose

a)

True

b)

False

34.

For pressurized metered inhalers (pMDIs), the momentum of aerosol particles are generated depends on the device rather than the patient's IFR

a)

True

b)

False

35.

For efficient deposition, breath-holding for a period less than 5 seconds after inspiration is recommended

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Narrowing airways can decrease linear velocities, enhance inertial impartion, and produce more deposition in the central airways.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Inertial impaction is the general mechanism for deposition of particles greater than 5 micrions in diameter.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Deposition by sedimentation mainly occurs in the lung periphery.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Deposition by diffusion increases with the decrease in particle size.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Dissolution in the mucus is the rate limiting step for absorption of water soluble drugs.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The macrophages engulfed particles will be eliminated via the lymphatic system or absorbed into the pulmonary circulation.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Propane cannot be used as propellant

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Tin plated steel is usually used for small volume aerosols

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The actuator in the valve assembly prevents leakage of the formulation when the valve is in the closed position

a)

True

b)

False

45.

If the drugs are suspended or emulsified in the propellant system, constant agitation during manufacture and use is required.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Valve discharge rate of an aerosol is the amount of the drug discharged per unit volume.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The pharmacists are not allowed to put any label on an aerosol container because only the manufacturers can do that.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

If multiple dosing is recommended in administering a pMDI, the patients need to wait for about 1 minute interval between actuations.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Ultra sonic nebulizers can nebulize high viscosity liquids

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following is an advantage of pulmonary drug delivery?

a)

Increased first-pass metabolism

b)

Requires higher doses to reach systemic circulation

c)

Rapid onset of action and lower systemic side effects

d)

Suitable for all drugs regardless of absorption properties

51.

What is the primary mechanism of deposition for particles greater than ~5 µm in diameter?

a)

Brownian diffusion

b)

Gravitational sedimentation

c)

Inertial impaction

d)

Passive filtration in alveoli

52.

Deposition by gravitational sedimentation primarily occurs in:

a)

Trachea and bronchi

b)

Central airways during high inspiratory flow

c)

Small distal airways where airflow is low

d)

Nasal cavity due to mucociliary clearance

53.

What particle size range allows optimal penetration to alveolar regions?

a)

<0.1 µm

b)

1–5 µm

c)

>10 µm

d)

8–12 µm

54.

Failure to coordinate inhalation with firing of a pMDI leads to:

a)

Increased alveolar deposition

b)

Decreased oropharyngeal deposition

c)

Increased systemic toxicity

d)

Increased deposition in the oropharynx and reduced lung entry

55.

Which factor increases deeper lung penetration of aerosol particles?

a)

Increasing inspiratory flow rate

b)

Decreasing tidal volume

c)

Slow, deep inhalation with breath-holding

d)

Rapid inhalation through the nose

56.

What is a disadvantage of pulmonary delivery?

a)

Reduced systemic effects

b)

Needle-free administration

c)

High cost and complexity of device engineering

d)

Ability to bypass first-pass metabolism

57.

Drug particles delivered via dry powder inhalers must first:

a)

Evaporate into gas-phase molecules

b)

Dissolve in mucus before absorption

c)

Diffuse directly through alveolar macrophages

d)

Undergo enzymatic activation in the trachea

58.

Which material provides the pressure needed for spray actuation in pMDIs?

a)

Dissolution enhancer

b)

Surfactant

c)

Propellant

d)

Plastic actuator nozzle

59.

Major disadvantage of older air-jet nebulizers includes:

a)

Inability to nebulize solutions

b)

Evaporation of solvent leading to drug loss

c)

High temperature degradation of protein drugs

d)

Requirement of breath coordination

60.

Which region of the respiratory tract has the largest surface area available for drug absorption?

a)

Nasopharyngeal region

b)

Trachea

c)

Alveolar region

d)

Bronchi