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Blood Cells and Immune System Quiz

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of blood cell is primarily responsible for the immune response in the body?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Thrombocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Platelets

2.

What is the main function of erythrocytes in the blood?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Immune response

d)

Inflammation

3.

Which of the following cells is involved in phagocytosis as part of the non-specific immune system?

a)

Basophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Erythrocytes

4.

Which branch of the immune system is responsible for producing antibodies?

a)

Non-specific immune system

b)

Humoral immunity (specific immune system)

c)

Inflammation

d)

Phagocytosis

5.

Which of the following best describes the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes?

a)

Granulocytes have smooth nuclei, agranulocytes have lobed nuclei

b)

Granulocytes have cytoplasmic granules, agranulocytes do not

c)

Granulocytes are only found in plasma, agranulocytes are not

d)

Granulocytes transport oxygen, agranulocytes transport carbon dioxide

6.

Which cell type is responsible for inflammation in the immune system?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Platelets

7.

Which two main branches make up the immune system?

a)

Humoral and cellular immunity

b)

Non-specific immune system and specific immune system

c)

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

d)

Plasma and platelets

8.

Which of the following cells is responsible for making antibodies?

a)

T-Lymphocytes

b)

B-Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Monocytes

9.

Which type of immune system is capable of recognizing foreign cells as distinct from its own cells?

a)

Non-specific immune system

b)

Specific immune system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Nervous system

10.

What is the main function of antigens in the specific immune system?

a)

To produce energy for cells

b)

To bind to lymphocyte cells and trigger a specific immune response

c)

To transport oxygen in the blood

d)

To break down food molecules

11.

Which cells are involved in the specific immune system and are made in the bone marrow?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Neurons

12.

What is the name given to the ability of the specific immune system to distinguish its own cells from foreign cells?

a)

Antibody generation

b)

Self/nonself recognition

c)

Antigen-antibody complex

d)

Cell division

13.

Which part of the antibody molecule is responsible for binding to antigens?

a)

Constant region

b)

Variable region

c)

Heavy chain

d)

Disulphide bridge

14.

Why do close relatives have more similar antigens than unrelated individuals or species?

a)

Because antigens are controlled by diet

b)

Because antigens are genetically controlled

c)

Because antigens are influenced by environment

d)

Because antigens are produced by bacteria

15.

Explain how the structure of antibodies allows them to bind specifically to antigens.

a)

Antibodies have a constant region that binds to all antigens equally.

b)

Antibodies have variable regions with different amino acid sequences, allowing them to bind specifically to different antigens.

c)

Antibodies have no specific binding sites for antigens.

d)

Antibodies use their heavy chains to bind to antigens.

16.

Describe the role of B-lymphocytes in the immune response.

a)

B-lymphocytes produce hormones for growth.

b)

B-lymphocytes make antibodies that bind specifically to antigens.

c)

B-lymphocytes transport oxygen in the blood.

d)

B-lymphocytes break down food molecules.

17.

A scientist is studying two individuals and finds that their antigens are very similar. What can the scientist infer about their relationship?

a)

They are likely unrelated.

b)

They are likely close relatives.

c)

They are from different species.

d)

They have identical diets.

18.

If a mutation occurs in the variable region of an antibody, what is the most likely effect on the antibody’s function?

a)

The antibody will bind to all antigens equally.

b)

The antibody may lose its ability to bind specifically to its target antigen.

c)

The antibody will become a hormone.

d)

The antibody will transport oxygen.

19.

Which of the following is true about T-lymphocyte receptor proteins?

a)

They have multiple binding sites and are secreted as soluble proteins.

b)

They are only found on the surface of T-cells and have one binding site.

c)

They are free in solution and bind to any antigen.

d)

They are identical to antibodies and found on B-cells.

20.

What is the main function of receptor proteins on T-lymphocytes?

a)

To secrete antibodies into the blood.

b)

To bind specifically to antigens and form antigen-receptor complexes.

c)

To destroy bacteria directly.

d)

To produce toxins against viruses.

21.

Why do humans have self-tolerance in their immune system?

a)

To destroy all types of antigens, including self-antigens.

b)

To ignore self-antigens and only respond to non-self antigens.

c)

To produce more antibodies against self-antigens.

d)

To prevent the production of receptor proteins.

22.

What can happen if self-tolerance fails in the immune system?

a)

The body becomes immune to all diseases.

b)

Autoimmune diseases such as type 1 diabetes may develop.

c)

The body stops producing antibodies.

d)

All B and T cells are destroyed.

23.

Which cells are the most important antigen-presenting cells in the immune system?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Platelets

d)

Neurons

24.

Which of the following is NOT a possible source of non-self antigens that can trigger an immune response?

a)

A virus

b)

A bacterial cell

c)

A transplanted cell

d)

A red blood cell

25.

Explain how macrophages contribute to the initiation of a specific immune response.

a)

By secreting antibodies into the bloodstream.

b)

By ingesting foreign antigens and presenting them on their surface to activate other immune cells.

c)

By destroying all cells in the blood.

d)

By producing toxins against antigens.

26.

Which type of cell presents antigens to T-helper cells in the process of clonal selection?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Red blood cell

c)

Platelet

d)

Neutrophil

27.

What is the main function of cytokines released by T-helper cells during clonal selection?

a)

Stimulate lymphocytes to activate, proliferate, and differentiate

b)

Destroy pathogens directly

c)

Produce antibodies

d)

Inhibit immune response

28.

What process results in the formation of a clone army of genetically identical lymphocyte cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Binary fission

d)

Budding

29.

Why is clonal selection important in the immune response?

a)

It ensures only lymphocytes with receptors matching the antigen are cloned

b)

It increases the number of pathogens in the blood

c)

It prevents the production of antibodies

d)

It destroys red blood cells

30.

What do T-killer cells secrete to kill infected human cells or pathogens?g

a)

Perforin proteins

b)

Antibodies

c)

Hormones

d)

Enzymes

31.

How do perforin proteins help T-killer cells destroy infected cells?

a)

They create pores in the cell membrane, causing the cell to burst by osmotic lysis

b)

They block nutrient uptake

c)

They stimulate antibody production

d)

They prevent cell division

32.

Explain the analogy used to describe the interaction between antigen-presenting cells and T-helper cells.

a)

It is compared to Prince Charming finding Cinderella with the exact fit for the glass slipper

b)

It is compared to a chef choosing ingredients for a recipe

c)

It is compared to a teacher grading papers

d)

It is compared to a gardener planting seeds

33.

What is cellular immunity?

a)

Immunity where foreign cells are killed directly by lymphocyte cells

b)

Immunity provided by antibodies in the blood

c)

Immunity achieved by vaccination

d)

Immunity that only targets bacteria

34.

Which type of cell do activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into during humoral immunity?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Platelets

35.

What is the main function of plasma cells in the immune response?

a)

To produce and secrete large amounts of soluble antibodies

b)

To destroy infected cells directly

c)

To transport oxygen in the blood

d)

To produce hormones

36.

Which process describes antibodies binding to antigens on viruses and bacteria to prevent them from attaching to cells?

a)

Opsonisation

b)

Agglutination

c)

Neutralisation

d)

Precipitation

37.

What is opsonisation in the context of the immune response?

a)

The process of stimulating phagocytosis and the non-specific immune response

b)

The process of changing the shape of toxin proteins

c)

The process of linking cells together

d)

The process of producing antibodies

38.

How do antibodies immobilise viruses and cells during agglutination?

a)

By linking cells together into large clumps

b)

By destroying the cell membrane

c)

By producing toxins

d)

By increasing cell division

39.

Why do memory cells play an important role in immunological memory?

a)

They remain in the blood for years and quickly divide to form a new clone army upon re-infection

b)

They produce hormones to fight infection

c)

They destroy pathogens directly

d)

They prevent antibody production

40.

What is the secondary immune response?

a)

The rapid division of memory cells to form a new clone army upon re-exposure to the same antigen

b)

The initial response to a new infection

c)

The destruction of pathogens by phagocytes

d)

The production of plasma cells

41.

Explain how antibodies can bind to two different pathogens at the same time.

a)

Each antibody molecule has two antigen-binding sites, one on each arm

b)

Antibodies have only one binding site

c)

Antibodies bind only to toxins

d)

Antibodies cannot bind to more than one pathogen

42.

Describe the role of agglutination in the immune response.

a)

It immobilises viruses and cells, and precipitates soluble toxins for destruction

b)

It stimulates antibody production

c)

It increases the number of plasma cells

d)

It prevents antibody-antigen binding

43.

Which of the following is the first stage in the specific immune system response?

a)

Antigen Presentation

b)

Clonal Selection

c)

Cellular Immunity

d)

Humoral Immunity

44.

What is the main function of a macrophage in the specific immune system?

a)

To present antigens to T-helper cells

b)

To produce antibodies

c)

To destroy infected cells directly

d)

To clone memory cells

45.

During clonal selection, which type of cell releases cytokines to activate other immune cells?

a)

T-helper cell

b)

B-plasma cell

c)

T-killer cell

d)

Macrophage

46.

Which cells are responsible for cellular immunity by attacking infected human cells?

a)

T-killer cells

b)

B-memory cells

c)

B-plasma cells

d)

Macrophages

47.

What is the role of B-plasma cells in humoral immunity?

a)

To produce soluble antibodies

b)

To destroy infected cells directly

c)

To present antigens

d)

To release cytokines

48.

Which stage of the specific immune system involves the formation of memory cells for long-term immunity?

a)

Cloning (Stage 5)

b)

Antigen Presentation (Stage 1)

c)

Cellular Immunity (Stage 3)

d)

Humoral Immunity (Stage 4)

49.

Explain how clonal selection leads to the production of both effector and memory cells in the immune response.

a)

Clonal selection activates specific T-helper and B-cells, which then undergo cloning to produce large numbers of effector cells (such as T-killer and B-plasma cells) for immediate response, as well as memory cells for long-term immunity.

b)

Clonal selection only produces effector cells and does not contribute to memory cell formation.

c)

Clonal selection is responsible for antibody production only.

d)

Clonal selection occurs after cellular immunity is complete.

50.

Compare the roles of cellular immunity and humoral immunity in the specific immune system.

a)

Cellular immunity targets infected human cells using T-killer cells, while humoral immunity targets pathogens using antibodies produced by B-plasma cells.

b)

Both cellular and humoral immunity use antibodies to destroy pathogens.

c)

Cellular immunity is only involved in antigen presentation.

d)

Humoral immunity destroys infected cells directly.

51.

What is the term for the slow and weak immune response that occurs when the body encounters a new antigen for the first time?

a)

Secondary immune response

b)

Primary immune response

c)

Non-specific immune response

d)

Antigenic variability

52.

Which type of immune response is characterized by a much faster and greater production of clone B and T lymphocytes upon subsequent infection by the same antigen?

a)

Primary immune response

b)

Antigenic variability

c)

Secondary immune response

d)

Non-specific immune response

53.

What remains in the blood after a primary immune response, allowing for a faster response upon subsequent infection by the same antigen?

a)

Pathogens

b)

Memory cells (T and B lymphocytes)

c)

Antibodies

d)

Toxins

54.

Why is the secondary immune response able to destroy pathogens before they reproduce enough to cause disease?

a)

Because the body produces toxins

b)

Because the clonal selection stage is bypassed and more lymphocytes and antibodies are produced quickly

c)

Because the pathogen mutates rapidly

d)

Because the non-specific immune response is activated

55.

What does the graph illustrate about the concentration of antibodies in the blood during primary and secondary immune responses?

a)

The primary response produces more antibodies than the secondary response

b)

The secondary response produces antibodies more slowly than the primary response

c)

The secondary response produces a much higher concentration of antibodies much faster than the primary response

d)

Both responses produce the same concentration of antibodies

56.

What is antigenic variability?

a)

The ability of the immune system to produce more antibodies

b)

The process by which pathogens develop new strains with different antigens due to mutations

c)

The constant presence of antigens in pathogens

d)

The destruction of pathogens by memory cells

57.

Why can we catch diseases like the common cold or flu multiple times?

a)

Because the immune system does not produce antibodies

b)

Because these pathogens have antigens that remain constant

c)

Because these pathogens develop new strains with different antigens, leading to antigenic variability

d)

Because memory cells are always present

58.

Explain why an individual is immune to a disease after a secondary immune response.

a)

Because the pathogen mutates rapidly

b)

Because the immune response is slow and weak

c)

Because memory cells allow for a rapid and strong immune response that destroys the pathogen before it can cause disease

d)

Because the non-specific immune response is activated

59.

Which of the following best describes the process of immunisation?

a)

Injecting a non-virulent antigen to promote the primary immune response

b)

Injecting antibiotics to kill pathogens directly

c)

Consuming vitamins to boost the immune system

d)

Exposing a person to the actual disease to build immunity

60.

What is the main difference between active and passive immunity?

a)

Active immunity involves receiving antibodies, while passive immunity involves receiving antigens

b)

Active immunity involves the body producing its own antibodies, while passive immunity involves receiving antibodies from another source

c)

Both active and passive immunity involve vaccination

d)

Passive immunity lasts longer than active immunity

61.

Which of the following diseases is commonly prevented in UK children through vaccination?

a)

Malaria

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Chickenpox

d)

Influenza

62.

Passive immunity can be achieved naturally by:

a)

Injecting modified antigens

b)

Passing antibodies from mother to child through placenta and milk

c)

Catching a disease and recovering

d)

Receiving a vaccination

63.

Which term describes the process of injecting antibodies against certain pathogens into the blood?

a)

Active immunity

b)

Vaccination

c)

Passive immunity

d)

Antigenic variation

64.

Why is breast feeding considered important for a newborn's immunity?

a)

It provides essential vitamins for growth

b)

It helps the baby digest food more easily

c)

It supplies immunoglobulin proteins that help protect against pathogens

d)

It prevents allergies in the baby

65.

Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?

a)

Injection of modified antigens in a vaccination

b)

Passing antibodies from mother to child through milk

c)

Injection of antibodies in an antiserum

d)

Catching a disease and recovering

66.

Explain how vaccination provides artificial immunity and why it is effective in preventing diseases. (DoK Level 3)

a)

Vaccination introduces non-virulent antigens, prompting the body to produce memory cells that recognize and respond quickly to future infections, preventing the disease before it can cause harm.

b)

Vaccination introduces antibiotics that kill pathogens directly, preventing infection.

c)

Vaccination exposes the body to the actual disease, allowing it to build immunity naturally.

d)

Vaccination provides immediate antibodies that fight off any infection present.

67.

A newborn baby is protected from certain diseases even before its own immune system is fully developed. Using evidence from the text, explain how this protection is achieved and why it is important. (DoK Level 3)

a)

The baby receives antibodies from the mother through the placenta and colostrum, which help protect against pathogens until the baby's immune system matures. This is important because the baby's digestive system cannot absorb proteins intact, making passive immunity crucial for survival.

b)

The baby receives antigens from the mother, which stimulate its own immune response.

c)

The baby is vaccinated immediately after birth to provide immunity.

d)

The baby produces its own antibodies from birth.

68.

What is herd immunity?

a)

Protection of unvaccinated individuals when enough people are vaccinated in a population

b)

Immunity gained by eating healthy foods

c)

Immunity that only occurs in animals

d)

Immunity achieved by taking antibiotics

69.

Which percentage range of a population typically needs to be vaccinated to achieve herd immunity?

a)

85-95%

b)

50-60%

c)

30-40%

d)

100%

70.

Who are examples of individuals who cannot be safely vaccinated?

a)

New-born infants and those undergoing chemotherapy

b)

Healthy adults

c)

People with minor colds

d)

Athletes

71.

What is the risk associated with too many "free-riders" in a population?

a)

Compromising herd immunity

b)

Increasing food shortages

c)

Causing economic inflation

d)

Improving herd immunity

72.

What was the main claim made in the MMR hoax?

a)

The MMR vaccine was linked to autism

b)

The MMR vaccine cured measles

c)

The MMR vaccine was 100% effective

d)

The MMR vaccine was never tested

73.

What was the consequence of the MMR hoax on vaccination rates in the UK?

a)

Vaccination rates fell from 92% to 84%

b)

Vaccination rates increased to 100%

c)

Vaccination rates remained unchanged

d)

Vaccination rates fell to 50%

74.

How did the incidence of measles and mumps change in the UK after the drop in vaccination rates?

a)

Increased to 37 times their previous level

b)

Decreased to zero

c)

Remained the same

d)

Doubled

75.

Why do some individuals rely on herd immunity instead of vaccination?

a)

They cannot be safely vaccinated due to medical reasons

b)

They prefer natural remedies

c)

They do not believe in science

d)

They are allergic to water

76.

Based on the bar chart, which disease requires the highest threshold of population immunity for herd immunity?

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Polio

d)

Rubella

77.

Explain why the presence of too many free-riders can compromise herd immunity. Use evidence from the text to support your answer.

a)

Because the threshold required for herd immunity is very high, and too many free-riders reduce the number of vaccinated individuals, making it easier for diseases to spread.

b)

Because free-riders increase the cost of vaccines.

c)

Because free-riders make vaccines less effective.

d)

Because free-riders are immune to all diseases.