wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Nursing Emergency Care Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An act mandated to strengthen disaster management in the Philippines

a)

Republic Act No. 10120

b)

Republic Act No. 10121

c)

Republic Act No. 10141

d)

Republic Act No. 10024

2.

National Disaster Response Plan (NDRP) for Hydro-Meteorological

a)

Memorandum Order No. 23, s. 2014

b)

Memorandum Order No. 23, s. 2013

c)

Memorandum Order No. 23, s. 2015

d)

Memorandum Order No. 23, s. 2012

3.

Institutionalization of the Cluster Approach in the Philippine Disaster Management System

a)

NDCC MC No. 13, s. 2008

b)

NDCC MC No. 12, s. 2009

c)

NDCC MC No. 12, s. 2008

d)

NDCC MC No. 13, s. 2009

4.

The Philippines is vulnerable to emergencies and disasters because

a)

The country is composed of many islands

b)

Its location and archipelagic nature

c)

Of the plenty of cyclones which enters the country

d)

The presence of active volcanoes in the country

5.

Which of the following is true about Disaster?

a)

Event is managed by the local administrative authorities

b)

Local administrative authorities cannot cope with the impact of the hazard

c)

Response is done by local health response

d)

None of the choices

6.

Use of force or violence against persons or property in violation of the criminal laws for the purpose of intimidation, coercion or ransom

a)

Natural disaster

b)

Biological Disaster

c)

Technological disaster

d)

Anthropogenic Disaster

7.

A Level I Disaster Nurse must have the following competency except

4 lines
8.

A Level II Disaster Nurse must have the following competencies but not:

a)

A designated disaster responder

b)

Generalized Nursing Graduate

c)

Designated by the institution as a disaster responder

d)

Competencies of level I nurse is achieved.

9.

A Disaster Nurse who is prepared to respond to a wide range of disasters and emergencies is a:

a)

Level I Disaster Nurse

b)

Level II Disaster Nurse

c)

Level III Disaster Nurse

d)

Level IV Disaster Nurse

10.

A Level III Disaster Nurse could be any of the following but:

a)

Military Nurse

b)

Nurse Educator

c)

National Responder Nurse

d)

Researcher conducting disaster nursing researches

11.

Approaches to conveying essential information within one’s place of work or emergency assignment, which domain of version 1 is applied?

a)

Preparation and planning

b)

Communication

c)

Incident management system

d)

Safety and security

12.

Assuring that nurses, their colleagues and patients do not add to the burden of response by unsafe practices, which domain of version 1 is applied?

a)

Preparation and planning

b)

Communication

c)

Incident management system

d)

Safety and security

13.

Gathering data about assigned patients/families/communities on which to base subsequent nursing actions, which domain of version 1 is applied?

a)

Safety and security

b)

Assessment

c)

Intervention

d)

Recovery

14.

Structure of disaster/emergency response required by countries/organizations/institutions and actions to make them effective, which domain of version 1 is applied?

a)

A) Preparation and planning

b)

B) Incident management system

c)

C) Assessment

d)

D) Intervention

15.

Maintains a general personal, family and professional preparedness plan

a)

Level I Disaster Nurse

b)

Level II Disaster Nurse

c)

Level III Disaster Nurse

d)

Level IV Disaster Nurse

16.

Actions taken apart from any specific emergency to increase readiness and confidence during the events, which domain of version 1 is applied?

a)

Preparation and planning

b)

Incident management system

c)

Assessment

d)

Intervention

17.

17 Communicates roles and responsibilities of nurses to others involved in planning

a)

Level I Disaster Nurse

b)

Level II Disaster Nurse

c)

Level III Disaster Nurse

d)

Level IV Disaster Nurse

18.

Mr. Jordan sprained his ankle 1 hour ago when he was running after the bulls and is experiencing swelling and pain. Your first aid instruction most appropriate in dealing with these manifestations is

a)

apply cold and heat, alternating every hour.

b)

lower the ankle below the level of the heart to promote circulation.

c)

apply heat to the area.

d)

apply ice to the area for the first 24 hours, then apply heat.

19.

In the middle of the games, Mr. Sugar Roll is brought to the station with a suspected complete fracture of the left radius. You understand that with this type of fracture, the bone is

a)

fragmented.

b)

displaced.

c)

fractured through the entire bone.

d)

fractured through to the

20.

Mr. Sugar Roll was trying to rope in the horse, when he was kicked at the hip area. In the emergent care of a client with a suspected pelvic fracture, you must be especially alert for indications of the complication of

a)

hypovolemic shock.

b)

hyperthermia.

c)

infection.

d)

deep vein thrombosis.

21.

When asked by the player’s coach while you were applying improvised traction. You explained to the coach that in addition to approximating the bone fragments, traction also

a)

reduces muscle spasm.

b)

increases blood supply to the fracture site.

c)

reduces risk for skin impairment.

d)

reduces risk for neuromuscular dysfunction.

22.

You assessed an 85-year-old male who has fallen off a horse and finds crepitus and swelling below the right elbow. You interpret these findings as:

a)

related to degenerative joint disease.

b)

a normal variation related to age.

c)

a suspected dislocation of the humerus and ulna.

d)

a suspected closed fracture.

23.

The first aid intervention that would be most appropriate for a client who has been brought to your station with a severe strain to the knee is:

a)

apply a heat pack to reduce swelling.

b)

manipulate the knee in the full range of motion.

c)

apply an Ace bandage as a pressure dressing.

d)

elevate the leg and apply ice.

24.

24. You assessed a client who has been brought to your station who complains of shoulder pain and is unable to abduct or externally rotate the right arm. From these observations you suspect injury to the _______.

a)

rotator cuff

b)

biceps tendon

c)

ulnar nerve

d)

deltoid muscle

25.

Which of the following is the correct answer?

a)

anterior cruciate ligament.

b)

rotator cuff.

c)

meniscus.

d)

tendonitis.

26.

Which of these victims who can have treatment delayed for a few hours:

a)

black eye from having been hit by a baseball.

b)

large laceration that needs suturing.

c)

broken finger.

d)

head injury from a fall.

27.

After stabilizing a trauma victim's airway, breathing, and circulation, the next item in your secondary assessment to assess is:

a)

neurologic status.

b)

broken bones.

c)

abdomen.

28.

A 20 year old male with a suspected neck injury caused by fall. The responder should

a)

place a rolled towel under the client’s neck.

b)

apply a hard cervical collar to the neck.

c)

adjust the table to sit the client upright.

d)

check for full range of motion of the head.

29.

A victim with a chest injury due to head on collision develops respiratory distress, distended jugular neck veins, and tracheal deviation. The responder suspects that these manifestations are consistent with

a)

hemothorax.

b)

flail chest.

c)

adult respiratory distress syndrome.

d)

tension pneumothorax.

30.

A victim of bar melee was lying down on the dance floor exhibits raccoon's eyes and Battle's sign. The nurse interprets that these manifestations are compatible with

a)

basilar skull fracture.

b)

opiate overdose or poisoning.

c)

extreme fatigue and sensory deprivation.

d)

subarachnoid hemorrhage.

31.

The student nurse is caring for a client brought to the first aid station after suffering amputation of a toe. The student nurse should take care to avoid

a)

cleansing the stump area with normal saline.

b)

placing the toe directly on ice.

c)

wrapping the toe in sterile gauze moistened with saline.

d)

placing the wrapped toe in a plastic bag.

32.

The responder closely assesses the victim who experienced crushing injuries due to vehicular crash and is in shock because he is more prone to develop

a)

metabolic alkalosis.

b)

intravascular clotting.

c)

fat emboli.

d)

adult respiratory distress syndrome.

33.

The responder would assess the individual in the most serious stage of shock as

a)

a 22-year-old man with a falling BP.

b)

a 50-year-old woman with a MAP of 90.

c)

a 60-year-old man with a pulse rate of 100.

d)

a 35-year-old woman with a pulse pressure of 40.

34.

33 An elderly client who was found unresponsive at home now opens his eyes when spoken to and answers simple questions when asked; and left alone usually sleeps. The responder would document this information in the Glasgow Coma Scale using the categories of:

a)

Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

b)

Pupil reaction, motor response, verbal response

c)

Eye opening, pupil reaction, motor response

d)

Verbal response, motor response, blood pressure

35.

Which of the following are assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

a)

A. eye opening and best verbal response.

b)

B. eye opening and motor activity.

c)

C. motor activity and motor response.

d)

D. best verbal response and best motor response.

36.

During secondary assessment of a head-injured client, the responder notes that the arms, wrists, and fingers are flexed, and the arms are adducted. The client is demonstrating

a)

normal flexion in comatose individuals.

b)

spasticity.

c)

decerebrate posturing.

d)

decorticate posturing.

37.

The responder recognizes a particular abnormal posturing that indicates the poorest prognosis in a brain-injured patient is

a)

abnormal flexion

b)

abnormal extension

c)

unilateral

38.

The nursing care that should be included in the care of a recently stabilized client who had head trauma is to

a)

encourage full fluids.

b)

administer steroids in high continuous doses.

c)

assess vital signs and neurologic status hourly.

d)

maintain the head of the bed in a flat position.

39.

The nurse responder explains that the most serious complication of increased ICP is

a)

ventricular arrhythmias.

b)

coma.

c)

motor deficits.

d)

brain herniation.

40.

The Nurse responder during a seminar reminds a group of high school students that the most common cause of spinal cord injury (SCI) is

a)

drownings.

b)

vascular disease.

c)

trauma.

d)

cervical spondylosis.

41.

The ambulance nurse assessing oval pupils, a comatose victim after a motorcycle accident, documents and reports this change because it indicates

a)

brain herniation.

b)

optic involvement that may lead to blindness.

c)

increasing ICP.

d)

imminent seizure.

42.

The nurse responder explains during a lecture demonstration that brain edema, in contrast to brain swelling, is caused by an increase in

a)

cerebral blood volume.

b)

brain bulk from tumor growth.

43.

Which of the following is related to ventricular pressure?

a)

(Not visible)

b)

(Not visible)

c)

ventricular pressure.

d)

fluid content surrounding the brain.

44.

The nurse responder conducting a secondary assessment is assessing a victim’s pupillary reactions. To do this correctly, the nurse would

a)

ask the client to open the eyes and stare into the penlight.

b)

bring the penlight in from the side to shine directly over the pupil.

c)

ask the client to stare straight ahead and then turn on the penlight.

d)

bring the penlight up from the client’s chin to shine directly over the pupil.

45.

The responder would explain to a burn victim that when a major burn occurs, the body’s initial systemic responses include:

a)

elevated pulse rate, decreased cardiac output, and polyuria.

b)

production of epinephrine, vasodilation, and increased cardiac output.

c)

plasma leakage into surrounding tissue, decreased hematocrit, and oliguria.

46.

The ambulance nurse would perform close respiratory assessment for a client with inhalation injuries because lung tissue injury due to inhalation of smoke is caused by

a)

A. chemical action on lung tissues.

b)

B. heat damage from superheated air.

c)

C. anoxia from lowered blood oxygen content.

d)

D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

47.

Responding to a victim with burns covering the entire surface of both arms and the anterior trunk. Using the rule of nines, the responder would estimate the percentage of burn surface area to be

a)

18%

b)

27%

c)

36%

d)

45%

48.

A burn victim was brought to the ambulance with burns on the chest and neck exhibits a wet, shiny, weeping surface with some blistering. The ambulance nurse would document these burn injuries as:

a)

superficial, first degree.

b)

partial thickness, second degree.

c)

full thickness, third degree.

d)

full thickness, fourth degree.

49.

The nurse would assess that the victim at highest risk for burns sustained from clothing ignition during a burning house response:

a)

an 18-month-old toddler.

b)

a 5-year-old child.

c)

a 15-year-old teenager.

d)

a 75-year-old adult.

50.

Which statement would emphasize that the leading cause of burn injury for toddlers is:

a)

playing with matches.

b)

contact with scalding liquids.

c)

touching hot radiators.

d)

open flames, including space heaters.

51.

Which statement, if made by a community nurse teaching disaster-preparedness to a group of community members, is accurate?

a)

Change stored bottled water every year.

b)

Keep on hand a 3-day supply of water, 1 gallon per person per day.

c)

Animals will be able to fend for themselves in a disaster.

d)

Beside water, include in the disaster supply kit a 1-day supply of food and other necessities for each person in the household.

52.

While walking by the road on your way to school, when a parent calls sobbing hysterically and stating, “My baby has just put an electrical cord in her mouth!” What do I do? Which statement or question identifies the first priority?

a)

Is your child breathing?

b)

How old is your child?

c)

What type of cord was it?

d)

Has your child had any previous accidents?

53.

Which of the following is the most important question to ask when a parent calls about a newborn with a cord around the neck?

a)

Call 911 and have them bring your baby to the emergency department.

b)

Have you removed the cord from the baby’s mouth?

c)

Is there bleeding at or around the mouth?

d)

What does your baby’s mouth look like?

54.

Triaging in a bus accident, you determined that a child is experiencing severe respiratory distress when observing:

a)

diaphoresis, restlessness, tachypnea, and anorexia.

b)

pallor, coughing, wheezing, and confusion.

c)

retractions, grunting, cyanosis, and bradycardia.

d)

agitation, decreased level of consciousness, diarrhea, and tachypnea.

55.

Which injured client of a mass casualty disaster should a triage nurse in an emergency department establish as the priority client?

a)

An unresponsive client with a penetrating head injury.

b)

A partially responsive client with a sucking chest wound.

c)

A client with a maxilla fracture and facial wounds without airway compromise.

d)

A client with third-degree burns over 65% of the body surface area.

56.

The presence of blood in the urine is called:

a)

Hematemesis

b)

Hematuria

57.

The following are parts of the Scene size-up, EXCEPT:

a)

Body substance isolation

b)

Consider cervical spine control

c)

Mechanism of injury

d)

General impression

58.

The part of Patient Assessment that wherein potential life threats are identified and treated:

a)

Nature of Illness

b)

Initial Assessment

c)

Mechanism of injury

d)

General impression

59.

Blood Sweep is a subsection of what component in the Initial Assessment:

a)

Airway

b)

Breathing

c)

Circulation

d)

General impression

60.

The part of focused history and physical exam whose goal is to quickly identify the potential hidden injuries or identifiable causes that may not have been easily found in the initial assessment:

a)

Focused Physical Exam

b)

Detailed Physical Exam

c)

Rapid Physical Exam

d)

General Impression

61.

In detailed physical assessment, discoloration behind the ear is termed as:

a)

Raccoon’s sign

b)

Otorrhea

c)

Battle’s sign

d)

Rhinorrhea

62.

A test for mental status by checking the patient’s memory and thinking ability:

a)

Responsiveness

b)

Orientation

c)

Consciousness

d)

General impression

63.

The dent at the steering wheel is an example of:

a)

Newton’s First Law

b)

Newton’s Second Law

c)

Newton’s Third Law

d)

First Collision

64.

The collision between the passenger’s internal organs against the solid structures of the body is called:

a)

First Collision

b)

Second Collision

c)

Third Collision

d)

Lateral Collision

65.

The collision between the passenger against the interior of the car is called:

a)

First Collision

b)

Second Collision

c)

Third Collision

d)

Lateral Collision

66.

The collision between a car against a barrier is called:

a)

First Collision

b)

Second Collision

c)

Third Collision

d)

Lateral Collision

67.

Which of the following is considered the most lethal collision?

a)

First Collision

b)

Second Collision

c)

Third Collision

d)

Lateral Collision

68.

The primary cause of shock is

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Hypoperfusion

d)

Hyperperfusion

69.

Damage of the cervical spine causes widespread blood vessel dilation in which type of shock?

a)

Neurogenic

b)

Septic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Hypovolemic

70.

Which of the following refers to a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that results fainting?

a)

Neurologic shock

b)

Psychogenic shock

c)

Dehydration

d)

Hypovolemic shock

71.

Stretching and or tearing of the muscles causing pain and swelling of the soft tissues occurs in

a)

Strain

b)

Sprain

c)

Dislocation

d)

Fracture

72.

What is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone?

a)

Comminuted fracture

b)

Pathologic fracture

c)

Epiphysial fracture

d)

Greenstick fracture

73.

To assess the neurovascular status of a trauma patient, you should do the following EXCEPT:

4 lines
74.

You notice that the trachea appears to be pushed to one side in a patient who has suffered chest trauma. This may indicate the patient may have a:

a)

Traumatic asphyxia

b)

Tension pneumothorax

c)

Flailed chest

d)

Pulmonary edema

75.

Narrowing of the pulse pressure, weak pulse, hypotension, and faint heart sounds indicate:

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Pulmonary contusion

c)

Pericardial tamponade

d)

Pulmonary tamponade

76.

The movement of the detached portion of the chest wall that is opposite to normal is

a)

Paradoxical motion

b)

Parabolic motion

c)

Converse movement

d)

Bilateral movement

77.

In assessing a responsive medical patient, “SAMPLE” is used to obtain information. In this memory aid, the letter “P” stands for:

a)

Past medical history

b)

Physical examination

c)

Presenting complaint

d)

Patient's family history

78.

Baseline vital signs in the unresponsive medical patient include an assessment of the patient’s respiration, pulse, blood pressure, pupils and:

a)

Past medical history

b)

Symptoms

c)

Allergies

d)

Skin condition

79.

The signs and symptoms of a skull or brain injury include:

a)

Fluid flowing from ears or nose

b)

Yellow discoloration in the eyes

c)

Bruising around the base of the nose

d)

Pain at the base of the neck

80.

This Act shall be known as the "Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010".

a)

RA 11021

b)

RA 11201

c)

RA 10121

d)

RA 12012

81.

73 a combination of all strengths and resources available within a community, society or organization that can reduce the level of risk, or effects of a disaster.

a)

MITIGATION

b)

CAPACITY

c)

ADAPTATION

d)

RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

82.

74 the adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual or expected climatic stimuli or their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial opportunities.

a)

MITIGATION

b)

CAPACITY

c)

ADAPTATION

d)

RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

83.

75 a form of human-induced emergency in which the cause of the emergency as well as the assistance to the afflicted IS complicated by intense level of political considerations.

a)

CONFLICT

b)

COMPLEX EMERGENCY

c)

DISCORD

d)

EMERGENCY

84.

76 are often described as a result of the combination of: the exposure to a hazard, the conditions of vulnerability that are present and insufficient capacity or measures to reduce or cope with the potential negative consequences,

a)

CONFLICT

b)

DISASTER

c)

DISCORD

d)

EMERGENCY

85.

A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread human, material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources.

a)

CONFLICT

b)

DISASTER

c)

DISCORD

d)

EMERGENCY

86.

The lessening or limitation of the adverse impacts of hazards and related disasters.

a)

PREPAREDNESS

b)

RESPONSE

c)

MITIGATION

d)

INSTITUTIONALIZATION

87.

Based on a sound analysis of disaster risk and good linkages with early warning systems, and includes such activities as contingency planning, stockpiling of equipment and supplies, the development of arrangements for coordination, evacuation and public information, and associated training and field exercises.

a)

PREPAREDNESS

b)

RESPONSE

c)

MITIGATION

d)

INSTITUTIONALIZATION

88.

The outright avoidance of adverse impacts of hazards and related disasters.

a)

PREPAREDNESS

b)

RESPONSE

c)

MITIGATION

d)

PREVENTION

89.

80 unforeseen or sudden occurrence, especially danger, demanding immediate action.

a)

EMERGENCY

b)

ACCIDENT

c)

INCIDENT

d)

HAZARD

90.

which shall be responsible for setting the direction, development, implementation and coordination of disaster risk management programs within their territorial jurisdiction.

a)

NDRRMC

b)

NDRRMP

c)

LDRRM

d)

NEDA

91.

82 THE DRRMO IS COMPLIMENTED BY THESE THREE, EXCEPT:

a)

A. SECRETARIAT AND AUDIT

b)

B. ADMINISTRATION AND TRAINING

c)

C. OPERATIONS AND WARNING

d)

D. RESEARCH AND PLANNING

92.

THE RESPONSIBILITY OF SUBMITTING THE LIST OF VOLUNTEERS OF CSO’s

a)

OCD

b)

LGU

c)

SK

d)

DRRM

93.

THE PRESIDENT WHO SIGNED THE DRRM ACT:

a)

PRES. BENIGNO AQUINO JR

b)

PRES. GLORIA ARROYO

c)

PRES. RODRIGO DUTERTE

94.

The set of capacities needed to generate and disseminate timely and meaningful warning information to enable individuals, communities and organizations threatened by a hazard to prepare and to act appropriately and in sufficient time to reduce the possibility of harm or loss.

a)

PREPAREDNESS

b)

RESPONSE

c)

MITIGATION

d)

EARLY WARNING SYSTEM

95.

The degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard events of different magnitudes.

a)

VULNERABILITY

b)

HAZARD

c)

RISK

d)

DISASTER

96.

Unforeseen or sudden occurrence, especially danger, demanding immediate action.

a)

VULNERABILITY

b)

HAZARD

c)

EMERGENCY

d)

DISASTER

97.

Modular approach which allows expansion and contraction depending on size and complexity of incident used on any type or size of incident.

a)

ICS

b)

MGB

c)

MCI

d)

DVI

98.

Its features are all of these except:

a)

Modular - Allows expansion and contraction depending on size and complexity of incident used on any type or size of incident

b)

Integrated communications using jargons and codes for security

c)

Comprehensive resource management – categorizing/ typing, ordering, dispatching, TRACKING, etc.

d)

Span of control of 3 to 7 subordinates for any individual

99.

In the incident command system the primary response agency for hazardous materials is:

a)

PCG

b)

BFP

c)

BCG

d)

PNP

100.

The DOH is the lead agency on MDM, one of these is not its responsibility:

a)

Formulates policies, protocols, guidelines, standards on MDM

b)

Release information on mortalities

c)

Disposition and victim identification

d)

Publishes general information in handling/transferring of remains