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Biology First Semester Final Exam Review part 1 2025

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to a cell that contains mistakes in its DNA?

a)

It always dies immediately.

b)

The mistakes are always repaired by the cell's DNA repair mechanisms.

c)

It may repair errors or undergo apoptosis.

d)

The cell becomes a stem cell.

2.

What is the main purpose of cell specialization in multicellular organisms?

a)

To ensure all cells look the same.

b)

To allow organisms to grow larger.

c)

To perform specific tasks efficiently.

d)

To make cells resistant to disease.

3.

Stem cells are important because they...

a)

Are already specialized for specific functions.

b)

Can divide and become specialized cells.

c)

Die quickly after dividing.

d)

Only exist in adults.

4.

What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?

a)

Embryonic stem cells can become any cell type, while adult stem cells have limited differentiation.

b)

Adult stem cells can become any cell type, while embryonic stem cells are limited.

c)

Embryonic stem cells cannot divide.

d)

Adult stem cells are only found in the brain.

5.

Cancer is best described as...

a)

The formation of specialized cells.

b)

The uncontrolled division of abnormal cells.

c)

The shrinking of healthy tissues.

d)

Cells growing slower than usual.

6.

Metastasis occurs when...

a)

Cancer cells remain in one location.

b)

Cancer cells spread to other parts of the body.

c)

Tumors shrink without treatment.

d)

Cells become specialized for their function.

7.

Which of the following treatments targets rapidly dividing cells?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Vaccines

d)

Antihistamines

8.

Which of the following is a method to reduce the risk of cancer?

a)

Avoiding tobacco

b)

Eating a balanced diet

c)

Protecting skin from UV rays

d)

All of the above

9.

Which phase of the cell cycle is the longest?

a)

interphase

b)

G1 phase

c)

metaphase

d)

cytokinesis

10.

What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Cell growth

b)

DNA replication

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Cell division

11.

What is the main purpose of mitosis?

a)

Production of gametes

b)

Growth and replacement of damaged cells

c)

Genetic variation

d)

Energy production

12.

How many daughter cells are produced at the end of mitosis?

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

4 identical daughter cells

c)

8 identical daughter cells

d)

1 identical daughter cells

13.

Which type of cells undergo mitosis?

a)

Gametes

b)

Somatic cells

c)

Sperm cells

d)

Egg cells

14.

What are sister chromatids?

a)

Different chromosomes in a pair

b)

Identical copies of a chromosome

c)

Proteins that help spindle fibers

d)

Two different copies of a cell

15.

What happens if a cell fails a checkpoint?

a)

It continues dividing

b)

It enters apoptosis or corrects the issue

c)

It skips to the next phase

d)

It undergoes cytokinesis

16.

Identify the phase

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

cytokinesis

17.

Identify the phase. Mark only one oval.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

cytokinesis

18.

Identify the phase. Mark only one oval.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

cytokinesis

19.

How many chromosomes do normal human blood cells contain? Mark only one oval.

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

1

20.

What is the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

Single stranded molecule

b)

Triple helix

c)

Double helix

d)

Linear chain

21.

What are the complementary base pairs in DNA?

a)

Adenine pairs with Guanine, Cytosine pairs with Thymine

b)

Adenine pairs with Thymine, Cytosine pairs with Guanine

c)

Adenine pairs with Cytosine, Guanine pairs with Thymine

d)

Adenine pairs with Uracil, Cytosine pairs with Thymine

22.

What is the first stage of cellular respiration called?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Fermentation

23.

Where does Photosynthesis take place in a plant cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

24.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

glucose + oxygen --> water + carbon dioxide + light

b)

carbon dioxide + water + light --> oxygen + glucose

c)

oxygen + water + light --> carbon dioxide + glucose

d)

carbon dioxide + glucose + water --> oxygen + light

25.

The overall goal of cellular respiration is to make

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

ATP

d)

oxygen

26.

What is the primary purpose of lactic acid fermentation in cells?

a)

To produce oxygen for cellular respiration

b)

To generate energy (ATP) when oxygen is not available

c)

To break down fatty acids for energy

d)

To release carbon dioxide during aerobic respiration

27.

Identify the second stage of cellular respiration.

a)

ETC

b)

Calvin cycle

c)

Kreb's cycle

d)

Glycolysis

28.

Identify the process that releases energy by breaking down food molecules in the presence of oxygen.

a)

glycolysis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis

d)

pH scale

29.

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP?

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

glycolysis

d)

anaerobic respiration

30.

Where does aerobic respiration take place?

a)

ribosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

31.

Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

C and D

32.
Question Image

Match each label to the correct term:

a)

sunlight

1.

glucose

b)

CO2

2.

O2

c)

glucose

3.

CO2

d)

O2

4.

H2O

e)

H2O

5.

sunlight

33.

Which is the main function of the plant roots?

a)

reproduction

b)

supports the plant

c)

absorbs water and mineral salts from the soil

d)

protection from herbivoires

34.

Identify the organelle is presented in this image.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi Apparatus

35.

Identify the organelle is presented in this image.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi Apparatus

36.

Which of the following is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

a)

Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus, while eukaryotic cells do.

b)

Prokaryotic cells are typically larger in size than eukaryotic cells.

c)

Prokaryotic cells typically have a higher amount & variety of organelles than eukaryotic cells.

d)

Prokaryotic cells do not have cell walls, while eukaryotic cells do.

37.

Greenhouse gases have environmental impacts on marine ecosystems. Which environmental impact is not a result of greenhouse gases?

a)

Global Warming

b)

Sea levels rising due to melting glaciers

c)

Cooling of ocean waters

d)

Coral bleaching due to acidified oceans

38.

Without the greenhouse effect, Earth would be

a)

Unchanged in its ability to house life on the planet

b)

Warmer but livable

c)

Colder and uninhabitable

d)

Warmer and uninhabitable

39.

Forest clearing, farming, and road building are all examples of:

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Population distribution

c)

Habitat loss

d)

Climate change

40.

What factors most influence an individual's ecological footprint?

a)

Income level, amount of education, and distance traveled daily.

b)

Type of food consumed, energy usage, transportation choices, and waste production.

c)

Water consumption, soil quality, and number of pets owned.

d)

Number of family members, social status, and type of employment.

41.

An endangered species is:

a)

A species that has not been spotted after many years

b)

A species whose numbers are so small, that it is at risk of extinction

c)

A species whose population has many naturally occurring illnesses

d)

A species that has been newly introduced in a foreign ecosystem

42.

Which of the following is the law that is designed to protect plant & animal species?

a)

The Biome Protection Act

b)

The Habitat & Biodiversity Preservation Act

c)

The Endangered Species Act

d)

The C.I.T.I.E.S. Law

43.

Which one of the following does not add carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

a)

Cooking with a gas stove

b)

Burning a campfire

c)

Planting Trees

d)

Riding a bus

44.

Why is the increase of greenhouse gases a big issue?

a)

It causes climate change & increases global temperatures

b)

It encourages more factories to be made throughout the world

c)

It encourages more greenhouses to be constructed throughout the world

d)

It causes a major decrease in biomagnification

45.

Removing too many of a single species from the environment in a short period of time is problematic for all of the following reasons, except:

a)

It threatens the biodiversity of the ecosystem

b)

Removing one species directly impacts other species also

c)

It can lead to the species becoming endangered

d)

It can cause the species' population to increase unexpectedly

46.

Which of the following is a consequence of ozone layer depletion?

a)

Increased biodiversity

b)

Increased amount of ultraviolet (UV) radiation on Earth

c)

Decreased skin cancer rates

d)

Decreased rates of adult-onset blindness

47.

The term applied to a species where its members can no longer be found living is:

a)

Threatened

b)

Extinct

c)

Endangered

d)

Invasive

48.

Which of the following is an example of a human activity that causes a species population to dramatically decrease?

a)

Conservation efforts

b)

Promoting wildlife preservations

c)

Sustainable fishing

d)

Habitat fragmentation

49.

Which of the following statements about the Endangered Species Act of 1973 is false?

a)

It grants federal protection for endangered species

b)

It grants federal protection for ALL species; regardless of conservation status

c)

It gives the federal government authority to prosecute individuals that negatively impact the status of a protected species

d)

It grants the federal government the authority to dedicate certain parts of the country as protected territory.

50.

Which of the following is the main mission of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)?

a)

To protect human health and ecosystems around the nation.

b)

To increase sources of pollution & mining of nonrenewable resources.

c)

To reduce biodiversity by promoting the construction of multiple factories.

d)

To pass laws for large corporations to overharvest Earth's natural resources.

51.

Which of the following would be an example of a nonrenewable resource?

a)

Solar Panels

b)

Wind Turbines

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Hydropower

52.

Which of the following best describes the difference between a renewable resource and a nonrenewable resource?

a)

Renewable resources can be replenished, while nonrenewable resources cannot.

b)

Renewable resources are man-made, while nonrenewable resources occur naturally.

c)

Renewable resources are always found on the Earth's surface, while nonrenewable resources are found underground.

d)

Renewable resources have a higher environmental impact compared to nonrenewable resources.

53.

Which of the following best describes the interaction between invasive species and native species?

a)

Invasive species have no impact on native species.

b)

Invasive species coexist peacefully with native species.

c)

Invasive species outcompete and negatively affect native species.

d)

Native species benefit and thrive in the presence of invasive species.

54.

Which of the following levels of organizations in ecology is arranged in the CORRECT sequence from most specific to most broad?

a)

species, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, species

c)

population, community, species, biosphere, ecosystem

d)

species, community, ecosystem, population, biosphere

55.

Which of the following describes a benefit of biodiversity to an ecosystem?

a)

DECREASES the energy flow through the ecosystem.

b)

INCREASES the maximum number of trophic levels.

c)

INCREASES the maximum biomass of the ecosystem.

d)

Allows the ecosystem the stability to withstand environmental changes.

56.

Which data is most useful for analyzing the climate of a region?

a)

The temperature of that region today

b)

The highest and the lowest daily rainfall in only July of this year

c)

The daily high temperature for every day in July of this year

d)

Average temperatures for July measured over the course of the past 50 years

57.

A heron is a bird whose survivability is affected by many factors in its environment. What distinguishes the biotic from the abiotic factors?

a)

Location in the water vs out of the water

b)

Plant vs animal

c)

Living vs nonliving

d)

Food vs not food

58.

If 1,000 J of energy is captured by primary producers in an ecosystem, how much energy would typically be passed on to the consumer at the next level of the food web for that ecosystem?

a)

1,100 J of energy

b)

1,000 J of energy

c)

100 J of energy

d)

10 J of energy

59.

Which of the following ecosystems has the greatest biodiversity?

a)

Grasslands

b)

Taiga

c)

Tropical Rain Forest

d)

Desert

60.

Which of the following is most likely to cause a decrease in biodiversity?

a)

The immigration of species from another ecosystem

b)

A decrease in the total population of an ecosystem

c)

An increase in the total population of an ecosystem

d)

A species extinction in the ecosystem due to climate change

61.

Which of the following is NOT true of the ecological pyramid presented?

a)

Around 90% of food energy transferred from one trophic level to another is LOST as heat.

b)

Primary (Level B) individuals are generally herbivores.

c)

Relatively few Quaternary (Level D) individuals are supported by the ecosystem.

d)

Tertiary (Level C) individuals have a greater biomass than Secondary (Level B) individuals.

62.

A moose is considered a consumer because it:

a)

Gets energy by eating other resources

b)

Makes its own food

c)

Forms carbohydrates using chemicals

d)

Uses sunlight to obtain energy

63.

Food webs are a more realistic representation than food chains because:

a)

Many animals that comprise the links in a food chain are migratory.

b)

Most organisms eat/are eaten by many different organisms.

c)

Over time, food chains always become food webs.

d)

Over time, food webs always become food chains.

64.

In the illustration below, the Algae are:

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Omnivores

d)

Detritivores

65.

What type of symbiotic relationship is this considered?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Predation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

66.

The graph presented shows changes in a fruit fly population over time. The dashed line in the graph represents the carrying capacity. When the fruit fly population MATCHES the carrying capacity, the overall population will most likely:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Crash to near ZERO levels

d)

Stay the same

67.

The mistletoe plant lives on a spruce tree. The mistletoe extracts water & nutrients that the spruce tree needs; harming it in the process. Which type of symbiotic relationship is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Socialism

68.

Bears have the digestive system of because it has the ability to digest both plant and meat sources

a)

carnivores

b)

omnivores

c)

herbivores

d)

scavengers

69.

Which of the following in this food chain is considered as the secondary consumer?

a)

the snake

b)

the frog

c)

the insect

d)

the plant

70.

Which of the following is the decomposer in this food chain?

a)

the racoon

b)

the owl

c)

the plants

d)

the mushrooms

71.

Rabbits are members of a community in a grassland. The rabbits eat grasses, clovers, as well as roots, seeds, and tree bark. Other organisms that would share the same trophic level as the rabbits would be the:

a)

Snakes, hawks, and other animals that eat rabbits

b)

Community members that interact with rabbits

c)

Meadow animals that are about the same size as a rabbit

d)

Meadow animals that are classied as herbivores

72.
  1. A _______________ is an organism's role in the ecosystem. This includes what the organism eats, where it lives, and what it does.

a)

niche

b)

ecosystem

c)

habitat

d)

resource partitioning

73.
  1. Which of the following is considered a Density DEPENDENT factor?

a)
  1. Disease

b)
  1. Earthquakes

c)
  1. Volcanic Eruptions

d)
  1. Wildres

74.
  1. Which of the following choices is an example of Interspecies Competition?

a)
  1. Male lions fighting other male lions for dominance

b)
  1. Male peacocks using their brightly colored feathers to attract potential female mates

c)
  1. Lions & Leopards hunting for the same prey resource

d)
  1. Barnacles competing with other barnacles for the same area of rock on the tidepool

75.

What macromolecule is shown in this image below?

a)

protein

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acid

76.

What macromolecule is shown in this image below?

a)

protein

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acid

77.

What macromolecule is shown in this image below?

a)

protein

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acid

78.

All carbohydrates are:

a)

Composed of Carbon, Hydrogen, & Oxygen atoms

b)

Composed of Amino Acids

c)

Composed of Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, & Nitrogen atoms

d)

Composed of Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, & Phosphorus atoms

79.
  1. Which does not describe a function of proteins?

a)
  1. They encode genetic information

b)
  1. They allow muscle cells to contract

c)
  1. They help carry out chemical reactions

d)
  1. They make up structures that support the cell

80.
  1. Which macromolecule has the job of storing & transmitting genetic information?

a)
  1. Proteins

b)
  1. Lipids

c)
  1. Nucleic Acids

d)
  1. Carbohydrates

81.
  1. What are the reactants of the following chemical reaction?

a)
  1. NH2 and H2

b)
  1. N2 and H2

c)
  1. NH2

d)
  1. N2, H2, and NH2

82.

Which of the following best describes this graph

a)

Endothermic reaction

b)

Exothermic reaction

c)

BOTH Endothermic & Exothermic reactions

d)

NEITHER Endothermic nor Exothermic reactions

83.

The enzyme lactase catalyzes the breakdown of lactose (milk sugar) into glucose. If a student adds lactase enzyme to milk, how will the concentrations change? (Please read each option carefully)

a)

Lactase enzyme will DECREASE, glucose will INCREASE

b)

Glucose will DECREASE, lactose will INCREASE

c)

Glucose will INCREASE, lactase will remain the SAME

d)

Lactose will INCREASE, glucose will remain the SAME

84.

Compare the two pathways: Which pathway shows the reaction that has taken place with the help of an ENZYME?

a)

Reaction #1

b)

Reaction #2

c)

You cannot tell from these graphs

d)

Both reactions involved an enzyme.

85.

Determine if mass is conserved in the following chemical reaction.

a)

YES, mass is conserved

b)

NO, mass is not conserved

86.
  1. Which model explains how an enzyme and substrate fit together?

a)
  1. Lock and key model

b)
  1. Jack in the box model

c)
  1. Luck box model

d)
  1. Lock and lock model

87.
  1. Which of the following is an example of an enzyme?

a)
  1. Glucose

b)
  1. Amylase

c)
  1. Lactose

d)
  1. Sucrose

88.
  1. The removal of a(n) _____________ would directly contribute to destabilizing the local ecosystem.

a)
  1. Invasive Species

b)
  1. Keystone Species

c)
  1. Indicator Species

d)
  1. Reese's Pieces

89.
  1. Increased levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere will ________the Earth's average temperature and _________the Earth's overall albedo.

a)
  1. Increase ; Decrease

b)
  1. Decrease ; Increase

c)
  1. Increase ; Increase

d)
  1. Decrease ; Decrease

90.
  1. _____________ occurs when fertilizers, animal waste, sewage, or other substances rich in nitrogen & phosphorus flow into waterways causing excessive algae growth.

a)
  1. Biomagnifcation

b)
  1. Nitrogen Fixation

c)
  1. Eutrophication

d)
  1. Waste of Nonrenewable Resources