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AIIS 100 FALL 2025 Finals Review

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a TEK practice?

a)

Controlled burns.

b)

Deforestation.

c)

Industrial agriculture.

d)

Monoculture farming.

2.

According to the University of Minnesota (UMN) Great Lakes TEK, TEK cannot be separated from its:

a)

holistic system

b)

generations

c)

relationships with nature

d)

people

3.

When evaluating land management using Traditional Ecological Knowledge (TEK), which approach aligns MOST with its core principles?

a)

Prioritizing community needs and long-term sustainability.

b)

Maximizing short-term profits from resource extraction.

c)

Disregarding environmental impacts for economic development.

d)

Ignoring traditional practices in favor of modern technology.

4.

Which statement best summarizes the core components of Traditional Ecological Knowledge (TEK)?

a)

Emphasis on written documentation.

b)

Focus on individual species.

c)

Static and unchanging knowledge.

d)

Holistic, relational, lived, and generational knowledge.

5.

Manoomin (wild rice) is significant in the Great Lakes region for cattle ranchers within Traditional Ecological Knowledge.

a)

true

b)

false

6.

Which of the following BEST summarizes the key events that shaped tribal gaming history?

a)

Seminole opening bingo and California v. Cabazon

b)

NIGC establishment and three classes of tribal gaming

c)

IGRA establishment in 1988 and tribal-state compacts

d)

Tribal gaming revenue usage and economic development

7.

In what year did the Seminole tribe open Hollywood Seminole Bingo?

a)

1987

b)

1992

c)

1979

d)

1969

8.

Tribal gaming is BEST defined as:

a)

Gaming regulated by the federal government

b)

Gaming taxed by the state government

c)

Gaming owned/operated by a tribal nation on tribal land

d)

Gaming available to all US citizens

9.

Traditional gaming regulated only by tribal nations falls under which class of tribal gaming?

a)

All classes

b)

Class One

c)

Class Three

d)

Class Two

10.

The 1987 Supreme Court ruling in California v. Cabazon Band of Mission Indians primarily addressed:

a)

Tribes NOT falling under state jurisdiction

b)

Tribes must share gaming revenue with the state

c)

Tribes have NO sovereignty

d)

Tribes must adhere to state regulations

11.

Which class of tribal gaming requires a tribal nation to negotiate a compact with the state?

a)

Class Two

b)

Neither Class One, Two, nor Three

c)

Class Three

d)

Class One

12.

Which best describes Nephi Craig’s work in “Gather”?

a)

Opening an Indigenous café that also serves as a nutritional recovery clinic

b)

Managing a large commercial cattle ranch

c)

Teaching Native languages in public schools

d)

Leading a legal campaign in Washington, D.C.

13.

What is Elsie Dubray’s role in the film?

a)

A journalist documenting Native political movements

b)

A lawyer arguing treaty rights cases

c)

A musician reviving traditional songs

d)

A young scientist studying bison and their nutritional and cultural significance

14.

The Ancestral Guard in “Gather” is primarily involved in:

a)

Running a nationwide Indigenous cooking show

b)

Negotiating land settlements with the federal government

c)

Building housing developments on tribal land

d)

Environmental activism to protect the Klamath River and related foodways

15.

Which broader theme does “Gather” emphasize regarding Indigenous communities?

a)

Transition away from rural reservations to major cities

b)

Replacement of traditional diets with global fast food

c)

Reconnecting with traditional foods and practices to heal from colonial trauma

d)

Encouraging total abandonment of ancestral lands

16.

Approximately how many acres of Indigenous land were redistributed under the Morrill Act to endow land-grant universities?

a)

1 million acres

b)

Nearly 11 million acres

c)

200 million acres

d)

100,000 acres

17.

Which of the following best describes how much the United States paid to extinguish Indigenous title to the lands used for Morrill Act grants?

a)

Less than $400,000, with many parcels taken without any payment

b)

More than $10 million, adjusted for inflation

c)

Nothing at all for any parcels

d)

Full market value for all parcels

18.

Which statement best captures the article’s argument about the long-term impact of Morrill Act lands on universities and Indigenous nations?

a)

The grants equally benefited universities and tribal nations

b)

The grants were fully repaid to tribal nations through scholarships

c)

The grants gave only short-term support and have no modern significance

d)

The grants created enduring university wealth while dispossession and marginalization continue for Indigenous peoples

19.

What is the key distinction emphasized about treaty rights?

a)

They are limited to criminal jurisdiction

b)

They are suspended during emergencies

c)

They are retained, not newly conferred

d)

They are granted by federal courts

20.

Which areas are highlighted when revisiting treaty rights today?

a)

Education and health programs

b)

Banking and trade policy

c)

Land and water rights

d)

Taxation and voting access

21.

Select all statements that align with the nature of treaty rights.

a)

They are best understood as special favors

b)

They originate from inherent tribal sovereignty

c)

They include aspects of land and water usage

d)

They depend solely on state legislation

22.

The Winters Doctrine primarily establishes which legal principle?

a)

Reserved tribal rights to necessary water

b)

Federal control of interstate commerce

c)

Exclusive state jurisdiction over rivers

d)

Temporary wartime limits on water use

23.

Under the Winters Doctrine, what is the relationship between reservations and water rights?

a)

Water rights are subordinate to downstream municipalities

b)

Water rights are implied as necessary to fulfill reservation purposes

c)

Water rights must be purchased from private users

d)

Water rights are revoked when populations decline

24.

Which set lists only tribal nations shown in or near the Puget Sound in the Fish Wars map?

a)

Puyallup Tribe; Nisqually Indian Tribe; Suquamish Nation

b)

Nez Perce Tribe; Confederated Tribes of Warm Springs; Kalispel Tribe of Indians

c)

Lummi Nation; Swinomish Indian Tribal Community; Tulalip

d)

Makah Tribe; Hoh Tribe; Quileute Nation

25.

On the Fish Wars map, which area best represents the Columbia River/Plateau Region where inland treaty fishing was contested?

a)

Southwest Washington lowlands near the mouth

b)

Northern Puget Sound islands and inlets

c)

Outer Olympic Peninsula and Pacific coastline

d)

Eastern Washington and parts of Idaho and Oregon

26.

Which statement best captures the strategic purpose of the Fish-Ins movement by tribal members along Pacific Northwest rivers?

a)

Purposeful disobedience to assert treaty fishing rights

b)

Local fundraising to support hatchery expansion

c)

Symbolic protest to gain media sympathy

d)

Seasonal celebration of salmon with ceremonial nets

27.

Which individuals or groups are most closely associated with organizing and leading Fish-Ins in Washington state?

a)

Billy Frank Jr.

b)

State wildlife commissioners

c)

Suquamish community members

d)

Nisqually Tribe activists

28.

In the context of Indigenous identity, what does the phrase Salmon people most directly signify for tribes engaged in Fish-Ins?

a)

A cultural identity rooted in salmon lifeways

b)

A nickname for commercial fishing unions

c)

A legal term for licensed net fishers

d)

A tourism brand for river festivals

29.

Which case established a 50/50 allocation of salmon harvest between tribal nations and Washington state?

a)

Arizona v. United States (2012)

b)

Oliphant v. Suquamish (1978)

c)

Worcester v. Georgia (1832)

d)

US v. State of Washington (1974)

30.

Judge Boldt’s ruling most directly affirmed which principle regarding tribal fishing?

a)

Treaty-backed equal share of salmon harvest

b)

Federal preemption of all tribal regulations

c)

Open-access fishing for all residents

d)

Exclusive state control over fishery policy

31.

What governance change followed the Boldt Decision in Washington’s salmon fisheries?

a)

Authority transferred to federal courts

b)

Creation of a single statewide fishery council

c)

Privatization of salmon hatcheries

d)

Co-management by tribes and state agencies

32.

Which statement best describes the limit placed on Washington state officials after the Boldt Decision?

a)

Unlimited discretion over non-tribal commercial fleets

b)

Power to cancel tribal seasons unilaterally

c)

Exclusive control of all off-reservation waters

d)

Limited authority when regulating tribal treaty fisheries

33.

In Settler v. Lameer, what authority was recognized for tribal nations?

a)

Ban all non-tribal fishing statewide

b)

Regulate tribal fishing on and off reservation

c)

Set federal court schedules for fish cases

d)

License international salmon fleets

34.

Which outcomes together characterize the Boldt Decision’s impact? Select all that apply.

a)

Tribal-state co-management

b)

Recognition of tribal regulation powers

c)

Expanded state authority

d)

50/50 salmon allocation

35.

What was the role of the United States in US v. State of Washington (1974)?

a)

Defended Washington’s exclusive control

b)

Acted as neutral mediator without arguments

c)

Represented tribal nations asserting treaty fishing rights

d)

Served as amicus with no direct stake

36.

Which outcome best describes the Gurnoe Decision of 1972 regarding the Red Cliff and Bad River Bands?

a)

Restriction of spear fishing techniques

b)

Transfer of waters to federal control

c)

Recognition of treaty-based fishing rights

d)

Creation of new state fishing licenses

37.

In 1973, Mike and Fred Tribble were arrested while exercising treaty rights. What key issue did their case highlight?

a)

Requirement of commercial boat registration

b)

Mandatory use of rod-and-reel only

c)

Legality of off-reservation fishing

d)

Ban on night fishing practices

38.

What did the Voight Decision of 1983 affirm about tribal fishing rights?

a)

They extend beyond reservation boundaries

b)

They require state-issued permits

c)

They apply only within reservation waters

d)

They ban subsistence harvesting practices

39.

Which statements accurately connect the Gurnoe and Voight Decisions to tribal sovereignty?

a)

They affirmed off-reservation harvesting rights

b)

They recognized treaty-guaranteed resource use

c)

They replaced treaties with state statutes

d)

They eliminated tribal regulatory authority

40.

Identify two realistic forms of harvester harassment documented during the Walleye Wars.

a)

Verbal intimidation of fishers

b)

Firearm discharge or fireworks

c)

Posting online rumors only

d)

Throwing objects at harvesters

41.

Which organization is most closely associated with monitoring and supporting tribal fishing rights in the Great Lakes region?

a)

Great Lakes Indian Fish & Wildlife Commission

b)

Midwest Coastal Fisheries Consortium

c)

Upper Mississippi Treaty Fisheries Board

d)

Northern Lakes Conservation Council

42.

Based on the lecture on "Indigenous gender norms," which statement best captures how Indigenous ideas of gender compare to colonist views?

a)

Adoption of colonist gender norms without change

b)

Elimination of gender categories entirely

c)

Strict binary gender identical to colonists

d)

Fluid ideas of gender that differ from colonists

43.

According to the lecture on "Indigenous gender norms," societal roles are primarily based on which organizing principle?

a)

Legal status

b)

Kinship

c)

Occupational class

d)

Binary gender

44.

Which lineage pattern is explicitly noted on the slide titled "Indigenous gender norms"?

a)

Patrilineal descent

b)

Bilateral descent

c)

Matrilineal decent

d)

Ambilineal descent

45.

What does the lecture on "Indigenous gender norms" say happened to many social and cultural norms through colonization?

a)

They were preserved unchanged

b)

They were isolated from kinship

c)

They were stolen and reshaped

d)

They were enhanced and expanded

46.

According to the Statistics panel, what percentage of Native women experience violence?

a)

50%

b)

92%

c)

56.1%

d)

84.3%

47.

What is the homicide rate ranking reported for Native women?

a)

Equal to the rate for white people

b)

Highest homicide rate

c)

Fifth-highest homicide rate

d)

Second-highest homicide rate

48.

How does the homicide rate for Native women compare to the rate for white people, as reported?

a)

Lower than for white people

b)

Nearly equal

c)

Nearly five times higher

d)

About twice as high

49.

What is the estimated number of cases reported as unsolved?

a)

4,200

b)

1,500

c)

5,000

d)

84

50.

How many cases are reported as entered into the National Crime and Information Center?

a)

3,000

b)

500

c)

4,200

d)

1,500

51.

According to the Major Crimes Act (1885), major crimes jurisdiction is directed to which courts?

a)

State courts

b)

Tribal courts

c)

Federal courts

d)

Municipal courts

52.

In Oliphant v. Suquamish (1978), jurisdiction over non-Native offenders is placed under which authority?

a)

County-level control

b)

Exclusive tribal control

c)

State/federal control

d)

International treaty bodies

53.

Which listed items assign jurisdiction to federal courts? Select all that apply.

a)

General Crimes Act (1817)

b)

Major Crimes Act (1885)

c)

Public Law 280 (1953)

d)

Oliphant v. Suquamish (1978)

54.

Refer to Table 1 titled “Breakdown of Federal, State, and Tribal Jurisdiction in Indian Country.” For an Indian alleged perpetrator and an Indian alleged victim, which authority has jurisdiction over all other crimes (not major crimes as defined by the Major Crimes Act)?

a)

State

b)

Tribal

c)

Federal

d)

Federal and Tribal

55.

Refer to Table 1 titled “Breakdown of Federal, State, and Tribal Jurisdiction in Indian Country.” For an Indian alleged perpetrator and a Non-Indian alleged victim, which authorities share jurisdiction over all other crimes?

a)

Tribal only

b)

Federal and Tribal

c)

State only

d)

Federal only

56.

Refer to Table 1 titled “Breakdown of Federal, State, and Tribal Jurisdiction in Indian Country.” For a Non-Indian alleged perpetrator and an Indian alleged victim, which authority has jurisdiction over major crimes, noting the Major Crimes Act applies only to Indian defendants?

a)

Federal (pursuant to the General Crimes Act)

b)

Tribal

c)

Federal and Tribal

d)

State

57.

Refer to Table 1 titled “Breakdown of Federal, State, and Tribal Jurisdiction in Indian Country.” For a Non-Indian alleged perpetrator and a Non-Indian alleged victim, which authority has jurisdiction over major crimes?

a)

Federal

b)

Tribal

c)

State

d)

Federal and Tribal

58.

Based on the footnote in Table 1, under PL 280, what can states assume within Indian Country?

a)

Exclusive tribal jurisdiction

b)

Municipal policing authority only

c)

Federal jurisdiction

d)

Criminal appellate jurisdiction only

59.

According to the footnote in Table 1, which act allows tribes to assume federal jurisdiction over non-Indian perpetrators of specific domestic violence–related crimes when procedural guarantees are met?

a)

General Crimes Act

b)

Violence Against Women Act

c)

Major Crimes Act

d)

Indian Civil Rights Act

60.

According to Table 1, when a Non-Indian is the alleged perpetrator and an Indian is the alleged victim in a major crime, which statute provides the basis for federal jurisdiction?

a)

Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act

b)

PL 280

c)

General Crimes Act

d)

Major Crimes Act

61.

Refer to Table 1. For an Indian alleged perpetrator and a Non-Indian alleged victim, which authorities have jurisdiction over major crimes as defined by the Major Crimes Act?

a)

Federal only

b)

Tribal only

c)

State

d)

Federal and Tribal

62.

In PL 280 states, for a major crime under the Major Crimes Act involving a non-Indian perpetrator and a non-Indian victim on a reservation, who has jurisdiction according to the chart?

a)

State jurisdiction

b)

Federal jurisdiction

c)

Concurrent Tribal and State jurisdiction

d)

Tribal jurisdiction

63.

In a PL 280 state reservation, for all other crimes (not under the Major Crimes Act) when the perpetrator is Indian and the victim is non-Indian, who has jurisdiction according to the chart?

a)

State jurisdiction only

b)

State and Tribal jurisdiction

c)

Federal jurisdiction only

d)

Tribal jurisdiction only

64.

Which of the following is listed as a PL 280 state in the footnotes accompanying the chart “Criminal jurisdiction in PL 280 states”?

a)

New Mexico

b)

Arizona

c)

California

d)

Montana

65.

Which overarching area frames the listed responses to MMIW on this page?

a)

Classroom instruction units

b)

Law enforcement operations

c)

Activism, organizing, and visibility

d)

Private fundraising initiatives

66.

Select all items that are listed under Programs and services in Responses to MMIW.

a)

Holistic programming

b)

Indian Health Services

67.

Which contemporary social movements are identified as inspirations for Red Power? Select all that apply.

a)

Chicano movement

b)

Civil Rights

c)

Temperance movement

d)

Black Power

68.

Which principle is presented as a core aim of Red Power?

a)

Restoration of monarchy

b)

Laissez-faire economics

c)

Sovereignty and self-determination

d)

Isolationism in foreign policy

69.

According to the lecture, what best summarizes Red Power?

a)

A Cold War campaign to oppose communism in the United States

b)

A 19th-century initiative to expand railroads across the West

c)

A movement for Native sovereignty and self-determination inspired by other contemporary social movements

d)

A youth fashion trend centered on the color red

70.

Third World Liberation Front Student Strikes: Which description best characterizes this movement?

a)

A faculty-only demonstration

b)

A coalition of student groups

c)

A protest by a single academic department

d)

A new government education policy

71.

According to the slide on Third World Liberation Front Student Strikes, what did the strikes fight for within the university?

a)

Ethnic studies programs and Indigenous representation

b)

Increased athletic funding and new stadiums

c)

Higher tuition to fund research

d)

Elimination of student organizations

72.

What was one outcome of the Third World Liberation Front Student Strikes?

a)

Consolidation of all departments into a single college

b)

A ban on all student protests on campus

c)

Creation of Indigenous studies departments and the founding of tribal colleges & universities (TCUs)

d)

Closure of ethnic studies programs

73.

According to the typed statement titled “A Challenge to the University of Wisconsin,” which group authored and presented the challenges to the University of Wisconsin on September 25, 1970?

a)

University of Wisconsin Board of Regents

b)

Wisconsin Historical Society

c)

Coalition of Native Tribes for Red Power

d)

American Indian Movement (AIM) national office

74.

One challenge in the document calls for the University of Wisconsin to employ personnel in the Special Five Year Program. How many Native Americans does the statement specify should be employed to work with Native American students on campus?

a)

Eight

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

Six

75.

What recruitment target does the statement set for Native American students to begin immediately for the fall semester of the 1971–72 school year?

a)

250 students

b)

150 students

c)

100 students

d)

50 students

76.

According to the document, how much money does the Coalition request be appropriated to publish a newspaper aimed at recruiting youth in Indian country?

a)

$1,000

b)

$2,500

c)

$500

d)

$250

77.

What policy change regarding language requirements for Native American students does the statement propose?

a)

Require all students to study a second European language

b)

Exempt Native American students who speak their native tongue and accept their tribal language as a first language with English counted as the foreign language

c)

Allow test-out only through a standardized European language exam

d)

Require English-only coursework for the first two years

78.

What is an activity/activities that is generally part of the "RED POWER Pow-Wow" tradition and traditional cultural knowledge?

a)

Baseball tournament

b)

Film screening

c)

Modern art exhibition

d)

bead work and basketry

79.

According to the UW News press release, what was announced regarding Native American Programs at UW–Madison?

a)

A faculty–student Ad Hoc Committee was appointed

b)

A campus closure for renovations was scheduled

c)

A tuition increase for all students was approved

d)

A new varsity sports team was created

80.

What directive did the chancellor give the new committee, according to the UW News release?

a)

Reduce the number of history courses offered

b)

Plan an outdoor festival for prospective students

c)

Select a new university mascot

d)

Make recommendations on increasing academic offerings about American Indians and culture

81.

According to the UW News release, the committee formed was a response to what group’s challenges?

a)

The Parent–Teacher Association

b)

The State Legislature Budget Office

c)

The Alumni Council for Athletics

d)

The Coalition of Native Tribes for Red Power

82.

According to the section titled American Indian Movement, where and when was the organization founded?

a)

Albuquerque, NM in 1970

b)

Chicago, IL in 1965

c)

Seattle, WA in 1971

d)

Minneapolis, MN in 1968