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Learning Objectives: Neurologic Emergencies

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a component of the neurologic examination?

a)

Mentation

b)

Respiration

c)

Digestion

d)

Circulation

2.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a component of the neurologic examination that involves observing how a patient walks and stands.

a)

Gait and posture

b)

Cranial nerve assessment

c)

Reflex testing

d)

Sensory evaluation

3.

Which nerves are assessed as part of the neurologic examination?

a)

Cranial nerves (CNs)

b)

Spinal nerves

c)

Peripheral nerves

d)

Autonomic nerves

4.

Fill in the blank: ________ reactions are evaluated during a neurologic examination to assess the body's response to changes in position.

a)

Postural reactions

b)

Reflex reactions

c)

Motor reactions

d)

Sensory reactions

5.

Spinal reflexes are not part of the neurologic examination.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Neurolocalization is also known as ________.

a)

neuroanatomic diagnosis

b)

neuropathic syndrome

c)

neurophysiological mapping

d)

neurogenetic analysis

7.

The findings of the neurologic examination result in which process?

a)

Neurolocalization

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Treatment planning

d)

Prognostication

8.

Neurolocalization considers which aspects of the patient?

a)

Patient's signalment and history

b)

Patient's dietary preferences

c)

Patient's vaccination schedule

d)

Patient's exercise routine

9.

What does neurolocalization allow the medical team to generate?

a)

A list of differential diagnosis

b)

A treatment plan for all diseases

c)

A list of medications for the patient

d)

A schedule for follow-up appointments

10.

After generating a list of differential diagnosis, what is the next step in neurolocalization?

a)

A diagnostic and treatment plan

b)

Repeat the differential diagnosis

c)

Ignore the findings and proceed

d)

Start empirical treatment without further investigation

11.

Fill in the blank: It is important to take a _______ history when assessing a patient's neurologic state.

a)

meticulous

b)

brief

c)

casual

d)

random

12.

Who is usually the first observer of changes in a patient's neurologic state?

a)

The veterinarian

b)

The veterinary technician

c)

The pet owner

d)

The nurse

13.

Fill in the blank: When taking a thorough history, you should carefully _______ the patient.

a)

observe

b)

ignore

c)

interrupt

d)

rush

14.

Fill in the blank: Physically test the _______ and responses of the patient when taking a thorough history.

a)

reflexes

b)

temperature

c)

weight

d)

pulse

15.

Fill in the blank: Attempt to localize the problem to a specific _______ region within the nervous system.

a)

anatomic

b)

chemical

c)

genetic

d)

metabolic

16.

Which of the following is a main cause of acute episodes of animals behaving strangely?

a)

Intoxications

b)

Viral infections

c)

Physical injuries

d)

Allergies

17.

Which of the following is a main cause of acute episodes of animals behaving strangely?

a)

Seizures

b)

Bacterial infections

c)

Dehydration

d)

Malnutrition

18.

Which of the following is a main cause of acute episodes of animals behaving strangely?

a)

Metabolic illnesses

b)

Heart disease

c)

Parasites

d)

Trauma

19.

Acute episodes of animals behaving strangely originate in the _______.

a)

brain

b)

heart

c)

lungs

d)

stomach

20.

Which type of seizure is characterized by rigidity?

a)

Tonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Atonic

d)

Myoclonic

21.

Which type of seizure involves the whole body shaking?

a)

Clonic

b)

Tonic

c)

Absence

d)

Myoclonic

22.

Which type of seizure is described as 'without tone'?

a)

Atonic

b)

Tonic

c)

Clonic

d)

Absence

23.

Which type of seizure is more like muscle tremors?

a)

Myoclonic

b)

Tonic

c)

Clonic

d)

Absence

24.

Which type of seizure has no outward signs?

a)

Absence

b)

Tonic

c)

Clonic

d)

Myoclonic

25.

Which of the following is a type of focal seizure?

a)

Grand mal seizure

b)

Petit mal seizure

c)

Status epilepticus

d)

Absence seizure

26.

What are some signs of petit mal and simple/complex partial seizures?

a)

Fly biting

b)

Ear twitching

c)

Blinking

d)

All of the above

27.

Grand mal seizures are classified under which type of seizures?

a)

Generalized seizures

b)

Partial seizures

c)

Absence seizures

d)

Focal seizures

28.

Status epilepticus is defined as seizure activity continuing for ______ minutes.

a)

20

b)

5

c)

10

d)

30

29.

A patient is considered to be in status epilepticus after how many minutes of seizure activity?

a)

2 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

5 minutes

d)

10 minutes

30.

Vestibular disorders often present as emergencies because of alarming clinical signs.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Are vestibular disorders rarely life threatening?

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is the most common vestibular syndrome in old dogs?

a)

Idiopathic old dog (geriatric) vestibular syndrome

b)

Central vestibular syndrome

c)

Peripheral vestibular syndrome due to otitis interna

d)

Vestibular syndrome secondary to neoplasia

33.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a vestibular disorder?

a)

Feline idiopathic vestibular syndrome

b)

Otitis media/interna

c)

Horner’s syndrome

d)

Diabetes mellitus

34.

Name one vestibular disorder that affects cats.

a)

Feline idiopathic vestibular syndrome

b)

Feline diabetes mellitus

c)

Feline asthma

d)

Feline hyperthyroidism

35.

Otitis media/interna is a type of vestibular disorder.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What are common causes of emergency presentations of central vestibular syndromes in dogs?

a)

Cerebrovascular accidents (strokes)

b)

Encephalitis (inflammatory brain disease)

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

37.

A stroke patient will begin to recover in ______ days.

a)

2 to 3

b)

5 to 7

c)

10 to 15

d)

20 to 30

38.

Which condition requires much more aggressive diagnostic tests and therapy in dogs?

a)

Stroke

b)

Encephalitis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

39.

What is proprioceptive ataxia? Fill in the blank: Proprioceptive ataxia is a condition in which the animal does not know the location of its ______ or body in space.

a)

paws

b)

ears

c)

tail

d)

fur

40.

How is loss of nociception tested in animals? Fill in the blank: Loss of nociception is tested by clamping on a toe with a pair of ______; observe head for reaction.

a)

hemostats

b)

forceps

c)

scissors

d)

tweezers

41.

Causes of spinal cord injury can be divided into which two categories? Choose the correct answer:

a)

Intrinsic versus extrinsic

b)

Acute versus chronic

c)

Internal versus external

d)

Primary versus secondary

42.

Fill in the blank: One way that a disc can impinge upon a spinal cord is through __________ changes affecting the nucleus pulposus.

a)

Degenerative changes

b)

Inflammatory changes

c)

Vascular changes

d)

Traumatic changes

43.

Fill in the blank: One way that a disc can impinge upon a spinal cord is degeneration that involves a weakening and thickening of the __________.

a)

annulus fibrosus

b)

nucleus pulposus

c)

vertebral body

d)

spinal canal

44.

Fill in the blank: One way that a disc can impinge upon a spinal cord is acute __________ extrusion.

a)

nucleus pulposus

b)

ligamentum flavum

c)

annulus fibrosus

d)

vertebral body

45.

Peripheral nervous system emergencies often present with which of the following symptoms?

a)

Fever

b)

Weakness

c)

Rash

d)

Headache

46.

Peripheral nervous system emergencies can be life threatening if which muscles become paralyzed?

a)

Cardiac muscles

b)

Respiratory muscles

c)

Skeletal muscles

d)

Smooth muscles

47.

Acquired myasthenia gravis is immune mediated and results from antibodies generated against the ______ receptors on a muscle’s surface at the neuromuscular junction.

a)

acetylcholine

b)

dopamine

c)

serotonin

d)

histamine

48.

Which of the following is NOT a type of acquired myasthenia gravis?

a)

Focal

b)

Generalized

c)

Fulminant

d)

Chronic

49.

Acquired myasthenia gravis is caused by antibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Peripheral Nervous System Emergencies: Polyradiculoneuritis may also be seen in both ______ and ______.

a)

dogs and cats

b)

horses and cows

c)

birds and reptiles

d)

sheep and goats

51.

Peripheral Nervous System Emergencies: Tick paralysis is more commonly seen in ______ than ______.

a)

dogs; cats

b)

cats; dogs

c)

horses; cows

d)

cows; horses

52.

Peripheral Nervous System Emergencies: Botulism causes rapidly ascending motor paralysis in dogs resulting from ingestion of botulinum toxin produced by ______ type C.

a)

Clostridium botulinum

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Salmonella enterica

53.

Which of the following statements is true about head trauma?

a)

It is very rare

b)

It is fairly common

c)

It never occurs with car accidents

d)

It only affects children

54.

Head trauma is usually associated with a history of being hit by a car or other object.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Actual neurologic exam findings will depend on the ______ of brain injury.

a)

site

b)

severity

c)

duration

d)

type

56.

Brain injury occurs in two stages: primary brain injury as a direct result of trauma, and secondary injury as a ______.

a)

sequel

b)

cause

c)

remedy

d)

prevention

57.

Which of the following is a direct result of trauma in brain injury?

a)

Secondary injury

b)

Primary brain injury

c)

Chronic injury

d)

None of the above

58.

Secondary injury in brain trauma occurs as a:

a)

Direct result of trauma

b)

Sequel

c)

Initial event

d)

None of the above

59.

What type of disease is Rabies?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Viral encephalitis

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Parasitic infection

60.

Rabies presents a zoonotic risk to humans.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following is NOT an initial clinical sign of Rabies?

a)

A) Anorexia

b)

B) Vomiting

c)

C) Hypersalivation

d)

D) Skin rash

62.

Fill in the blank: Initial clinical signs of Rabies are _________.

a)

nonspecific

b)

severe

c)

specific

d)

chronic

63.

Which of the following is a possible form of Rabies?

a)

Furious form

b)

Dumb form

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

64.

Name one initial clinical sign of Rabies.

a)

Behavior or temperament changes

b)

Lameness

c)

Skin rash

d)

Coughing

65.

Fill in the blank: One of the components of history taking is the history of _________

a)

chief complaint

b)

physical examination

c)

laboratory findings

d)

treatment plan

66.

Fill in the blank: Medical history includes reproductive status and copies of _________

a)

vaccinations

b)

prescriptions

c)

x-rays

d)

insurance forms

67.

Which of the following is included in medical history?

a)

Environmental history

b)

Reproductive status

c)

Chief complaint

d)

None of the above

68.

Fill in the blank: Another component of history taking is ________ history.

a)

Environmental

b)

Physical

c)

Social

d)

Medical

69.

Which of the following is indicated to stop seizure activity in an emergency?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Emergency treatment

c)

Dehydration therapy

d)

Nausea medication

70.

High-frequency seizures should be treated _________

a)

aggressively

b)

slowly

c)

casually

d)

sporadically

71.

The therapeutic approach for seizures depends on whether these are the patient's first seizures or if epilepsy has been previously diagnosed.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Emergency treatment for vestibular disorders may be required to treat which of the following?

a)

Seizure activity

b)

Dehydration

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Aggression

73.

Which of the following can be treated with antibiotics in the context of vestibular disorders?

a)

Seizure activity

b)

Nausea

c)

Dehydration

d)

Vestibular disorders

74.

What is the first step in managing a spinal cord injury according to the slide?

a)

Provide analgesia

b)

Complete neurologic examination

c)

Use corticosteroids

d)

Test nociception

75.

If there is no voluntary movement in a patient with spinal cord injury, what should be tested?

a)

Pain threshold

b)

Nociception

c)

Reflexes

d)

Corticosteroid response

76.

Analgesia should be provided if the patient with spinal cord injury is in pain.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The use of corticosteroids in spinal cord injury is universally recommended.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

What is the first concern in peripheral nervous system emergencies?

a)

Pain management

b)

Respiratory stability

c)

Feeding position

d)

Nursing care

79.

Patients with megaesophagus should be fed in the ______ position.

a)

upright

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

lateral

80.

No specific treatment requirements exist for peripheral nervous system emergencies beyond supportive nursing care.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Head trauma is often accompanied by ________ injuries.

a)

systemic

b)

localized

c)

chronic

d)

minor

82.

Which therapy is used to reduce increased ICP and improve cerebral blood flow in head trauma?

a)

Steroids

b)

Mannitol

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Oxygen

83.

Mechanical ________ may be required in cases of head trauma.

a)

ventilation

b)

suction

c)

hydration

d)

immobilization

84.

Steroids are sometimes used as a ________ resort in head trauma.

a)

last

b)

first

c)

common

d)

primary

85.

Rabies diagnosis is confirmed by ________ confirmation.

a)

laboratory

b)

clinical

c)

radiological

d)

surgical

86.

Is there a treatment for rabies?

a)

Yes

b)

No

87.

What should be done to unvaccinated exposed animals in cases of rabies?

a)

They should be euthanized.

b)

They should be isolated for 10 days.

c)

They should be given antibiotics.

d)

They should be vaccinated immediately.