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Worksheets

Applied Food Science Revision

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes why water is considered polar?

a)

Water has no charges anywhere in the molecule

b)

Hydrogen atoms carry full negative electric charges

c)

Oxygen end has partial negative, hydrogen end partial positive

d)

Electrons distribute evenly around all atoms

2.

In food production, why does salt dissolve readily in water?

a)

Salt has no interaction with water molecules

b)

Salt is polar and attracted to water’s partial charges

c)

Salt is non-polar like oil molecules

d)

Salt dissolves only due to high temperature

3.

Which pair correctly matches molecule type with water’s dissolving behavior?

a)

Both polar and non-polar—dissolve equally

b)

Neither polar nor non-polar—ever dissolves

c)

Polar molecules—do not dissolve; Non-polar—dissolve easily

d)

Polar molecules—tend to dissolve; Non-polar—do not dissolve

4.

What feature of water allows it to act as a universal solvent in many food processes?

a)

Its lack of any electrical properties

b)

Its bent shape creating partial charges

c)

Its ability to form metallic bonds

d)

Its straight molecular shape without angles

5.

A sauce separates when oil is added to water. Which reasoning best explains this outcome?

a)

Water is non-polar and cannot mix with oil

b)

Oil has stronger ionic bonds than water

c)

Oil is non-polar and does not interact with water’s partial charges

d)

Oil is polar and repels water’s charges

6.

Which statement most directly connects water polarity to desired textures in cookery?

a)

Polarity increases water’s viscosity to thicken foods

b)

Polarity reduces water’s temperature, preventing texture changes

c)

Polarity lets water dissolve polar ingredients, affecting structure

d)

Polarity eliminates all charges, stabilizing textures

7.

During candy making, sugar dissolves in water to form a syrup. Which concept explains this process?

a)

Water dissolves only metals, not sugars

b)

Sugar is non-polar and avoids water’s charges

c)

Sugar breaks water’s covalent bonds completely

d)

Water’s partial charges attract polar sugar molecules

8.

Which statement best describes a true solution?

a)

Homogeneous mixture with visible dispersed particles

b)

Heterogeneous mixture with intermediate particles

c)

Homogeneous mixture with dissolved solutes

d)

Heterogeneous mixture with settling particles

9.

Which mixture is most likely to show particles settling upon standing?

a)

Solution with particles under 1 nm

b)

Colloid with particles 1–1000 nm

c)

Suspension with particles over 1000 nm

d)

Solution with evenly spread molecules

10.

In a colloid, why don’t dispersed particles settle out?

a)

They are dissolved completely as solutes

b)

They are heavier than the dispersion medium

c)

They are not large like suspension particles

d)

They are smaller than solution molecules

11.

Match each mixture type to its typical particle size range.

a)

Solution: <1 nm; Colloid: 1–1000 nm; Suspension: >1000 nm

b)

Solution: variable; Colloid: dissolved; Suspension: settled

c)

Solution: >1000 nm; Colloid: <1 nm; Suspension: 1–1000 nm

d)

Solution: 1–1000 nm; Colloid: >1000 nm; Suspension: <1 nm

12.

A mixture has evenly spread particles that are intermediate in size and do not settle. What is the best classification?

a)

Solution with visible particles

b)

Colloid in any dispersion medium

c)

Suspension in water

d)

Solution in a liquid solvent

13.

Which statement best defines surface tension in liquids?

a)

A measure of liquid density near the surface

b)

A pressure increase caused by evaporation

c)

A resistance of the surface to external force

d)

A tendency of molecules to form ionic bonds

14.

What primary intermolecular interaction strengthens cohesion in water?

a)

Hydrogen bonding between water molecules

b)

Ionic bonding among dissolved salts

c)

Metallic bonding across the surface

d)

Covalent bonding within single molecules

15.

Why do water droplets tend to be spherical when forming on a surface?

a)

Evaporation cools and contracts the water

b)

Gravity compresses the liquid evenly

c)

Surface tension minimizes surface area

d)

Air pressure shapes droplets symmetrically

16.

Which scenario best illustrates capillary action driven by surface tension?

a)

Steam condensing on a cold window

b)

Water rising in thin plant xylem tubes

c)

Salt crystals forming from seawater

d)

Ice floating on a lake in winter

17.

At the water’s surface, why is there a net inward pull on molecules?

a)

They bond only to neighbors beside and below

b)

They bond equally in all directions

c)

They form new bonds with the air above

d)

They lose all cohesive forces at the surface

18.

Some insects can walk on water primarily because

a)

They reduce gravity through wing flapping

b)

They are lighter than air around them

c)

Their legs chemically repel liquid water

d)

Their weight does not break surface tension

19.

Which statement best describes how pressure affects water’s boiling point?

a)

Lower pressure raises boiling temperature dramatically

b)

Higher pressure raises boiling temperature moderately

c)

Lower pressure makes boiling independent of temperature

d)

Higher pressure lowers boiling temperature significantly

20.

At roughly 2,000 meters above sea level, water typically boils near which temperature due to lower atmospheric pressure?

a)

About 93°C under reduced pressure

b)

About 110°C at high elevation

c)

Exactly 100°C at any altitude

d)

Below 80°C in all mountains

21.

A pressure cooker shortens cooking time mainly because it

a)

removes free water from ingredients

b)

decreases heat transfer to the food

c)

increases boiling point by raising pressure

d)

reduces water activity dramatically

22.

Which scenario would most likely increase the risk of microbial growth based on Aw?

a)

Moderate Aw from entrapped water

b)

High Aw with abundant free water

c)

Very low Aw due to crystallized starch

d)

Low Aw from bound water in jam

23.

Water activity (Aw) primarily measures the amount of

a)

vapour pressure at sea level only

b)

free and entrapped water available

c)

bound water unavailable to microbes

d)

total moisture including all forms

24.

Which type of water is NOT counted in Aw because it is inaccessible to microbes or vapour?

a)

Bound water held by constituents

b)

Entrapped water flowing when freed

c)

Surface moisture on vegetables

d)

Free water released by cutting

25.

A fruit gel (high pectin) contains water immobilized in its structure. Which classification fits best, and what happens if the structure is broken?

a)

Entrapped water; flows freely when released

b)

Free water; stays unchanged when disturbed

c)

Bound water; remains inaccessible after rupture

d)

Bound water; instantly evaporates when cut

26.

Choose the best explanation for why water boils at a lower temperature at high altitude.

a)

More wind increases heat loss from pots

b)

Lower humidity absorbs heat from water

c)

Less atmospheric pressure reduces required energy

d)

Colder air prevents bubbles from forming

27.

Which statement best describes ionic bonding?

a)

Atoms merge nuclei to become one particle

b)

Electrons move freely without forming compounds

c)

Ions are held together by opposite charge attraction

d)

Atoms share electrons to fill valence shells

28.

What happens to sodium chloride when it dissolves in water?

a)

It forms Na2 and Cl2 neutral atoms

b)

It releases protons to make acid

c)

It splits into Na+ and Cl− moving ions

d)

It becomes a covalent molecule NaCl

29.

Covalent bonding primarily involves which process?

a)

Electron transfer creating ions

b)

Protons exchanging between nuclei

c)

Opposite charges attracting

d)

Electron sharing between atoms

30.

Which pair of atoms most likely forms a covalent bond?

a)

Potassium and bromine in KBr

b)

Magnesium and oxygen in MgO

c)

Oxygen and hydrogen in water

d)

Sodium and chlorine in table salt

31.

An atom becomes a cation when it does what?

a)

Attracts anions through dipoles

b)

Shares electrons equally in pairs

c)

Loses electrons becoming positive

d)

Gains electrons becoming negative

32.

Why do ionic compounds form solid lattices at room temperature?

a)

Shared electrons create flexible bonds

b)

Opposite ions attract in strong arrays

c)

Metal atoms stack with free electrons

d)

Molecules align through weak forces

33.

Which explanation fits the phrase “Sharing is caring” used for covalent bonds?

a)

Electrons move independently in solutions

b)

Ions with opposite charges attract strongly

c)

Atoms share valence electrons to fill shells

d)

Atoms donate electrons to other atoms

34.

Which change would convert a neutral chlorine atom into an anion?

a)

Sharing electrons with sodium

b)

Releasing a proton from nucleus

c)

Gaining one valence electron

d)

Losing one valence electron

35.

Which set lists the four core parts found in every amino acid?

a)

Hydroxyl group, aldehyde group, nitrogen base

b)

Carbonyl group, methyl group, sulfur, R group

c)

Amino group, carboxyl group, phosphate, sugar

d)

Central carbon, hydrogen, amino group, R group

36.

What best describes the R group in amino acids?

a)

Charged group always hydrophilic

b)

Fixed group identical in all amino acids

c)

Backbone forming peptide linkage

d)

Variable side chain determining properties

37.

During peptide bond formation, which two groups react directly?

a)

Two R groups from adjacent residues

b)

Amino of one and R group of another

c)

Carboxyl of one and amino of another

d)

Hydrogen from backbone and hydroxyl

38.

Which statement about a dehydration reaction in peptide bond formation is correct?

a)

Water is converted into hydroxide

b)

Two water molecules are released

c)

A molecule of water is absorbed

d)

A molecule of water is released

39.

An amino acid with a non-polar R group is most likely to be

a)

Hydrophobic and water-hating

b)

Hydrophilic and water-loving

c)

Always basic and positively charged

d)

Always acidic in solution

40.

Which change would most likely alter a protein’s properties without breaking the backbone?

a)

Eliminating the amino group from all residues

b)

Deleting the carboxyl group from the backbone

c)

Removing the central carbon from residues

d)

Replacing an R group with a different side chain

41.

You join three amino acids sequentially. How many peptide bonds form and how many water molecules are released?

a)

Three bonds and three waters

b)

One bond and one water

c)

Two bonds and three waters

d)

Two bonds and two waters

42.

Which sequence correctly describes building a polypeptide chain?

a)

Amino acids link by peptide bonds

b)

R groups condense into nucleotides

c)

Carboxyl groups form hydrogen bonds

d)

Water adds to break peptide bonds

43.

Which description best matches primary protein structure?

a)

Linear order of amino acids with peptide bonds

b)

Association of multiple polypeptide subunits

c)

Local folding into helices and sheets structures

d)

Overall 3-D shape of a single polypeptide

44.

Which feature is characteristic of secondary protein structure?

a)

Alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet patterns

b)

Specific sequence of amino acid residues

c)

Binding between different protein subunits

d)

Covalent disulfide linkages only

45.

Tertiary structure is primarily determined by which interactions?

a)

Peptide bond formation along the chain

b)

Side chain interactions forming a 3-D fold

c)

Subunit assembly into larger complexes

d)

Hydrogen bonds in helix and sheet motifs

46.

Quaternary protein structure refers to what organization?

a)

Local helix or sheet within one chain

b)

Single-chain 3-D folding conformation

c)

Arrangement of more than one polypeptide

d)

Exact amino acid sequence information

47.

Which statement distinguishes an alpha-helix from a beta-pleated sheet?

a)

Alpha-helix forms a coiled structure; beta-sheet forms aligned strands

b)

Alpha-helix creates multi-subunit complexes; beta-sheet does not

c)

Alpha-helix defines primary sequence; beta-sheet defines peptide bonds

d)

Alpha-helix involves only covalent bonds; beta-sheet involves none

48.

A protein with two identical polypeptide chains functioning together exemplifies which level?

a)

Secondary structure forming sheets and helices

b)

Quaternary structure involving subunit association

c)

Tertiary structure of a single polypeptide

d)

Primary structure listing amino acid sequence

49.

If a mutation changes one amino acid in a polypeptide, which level is directly altered first?

a)

Primary sequence of the polypeptide chain

b)

Quaternary arrangement of multiple chains

c)

Secondary motifs such as helices and sheets

d)

Tertiary fold of the complete protein

50.

Which statement best describes protein denaturation in foods?

a)

Proteins gain more active sites and increased activity

b)

Proteins dissolve completely into amino acids

c)

Proteins undergo physical unfolding and loss of function

d)

Proteins form stronger native bonds and harden

51.

Which condition commonly causes proteins to denature during food processing?

a)

Heat, acid, salt, alcohol, or agitation

b)

Low light exposure in storage

c)

Mild cooling below room temperature

d)

Addition of water without mixing

52.

Why is denaturation considered desirable when cooking eggs?

a)

It prevents any structural change during heating

b)

It increases yolk color intensity and shine

c)

It unfolds proteins so they coagulate and firm

d)

It keeps proteins soluble and runny in liquid

53.

In cheese making, what role do acid or rennet enzymes play?

a)

They pasteurize milk by killing microbes

b)

They add flavor without changing proteins

c)

They dissolve casein to make milk sweeter

d)

They denature casein allowing curd formation

54.

A baker wants bread with good structure and volume. Which process supports this outcome?

a)

Keeping gluten fully native and flexible

b)

Adding cold water to avoid protein changes

c)

Denaturing gluten and egg proteins by heat

d)

Preventing any agitation of the batter

55.

What happens to enzyme activity when the enzyme protein is denatured?

a)

It breaks down only lipids and not proteins

b)

It gains new active sites and extra products

c)

It no longer fits the substrate; reaction stops

d)

It binds substrates more tightly and faster

56.

Match each enzyme to its substrate and product.

a)

Amylase → starch → simple sugars

b)

Lactase → starch → glucose and fructose

c)

Lactase → lactose → glucose and galactose

d)

Protease → starch → amino acid fragments

57.

A food technologist notices an enzyme-substrate complex fails to form. Which reasoning best explains this?

a)

The enzyme is folded perfectly and highly specific

b)

The products are already leaving the active site

c)

The substrate concentration is exactly optimal

d)

The enzyme is denatured and active site misshapen

58.

Which statement best defines protein coagulation in foods?

a)

A change in protein structure causing thickening

b)

A cooling process that keeps proteins dissolved

c)

A sugar reaction that browns the surface slowly

d)

A moisture loss that dehydrates the whole food

59.

When egg white turns from clear to solid during heating, which process is occurring?

a)

Coagulation of egg proteins

b)

Fermentation of albumen

c)

Gelatinization of starch

d)

Emulsification of lipids

60.

Which condition most commonly triggers protein coagulation in foods like eggs and milk?

a)

High sugar and salt addition

b)

Cold storage with low humidity

c)

Heat or acid causing denaturation

d)

Extended fermentation with yeast

61.

Gluten in dough develops most effectively under which set of conditions?

a)

Salt dissolved, dough folded, air-dried

b)

Water added, dough kneaded, kept warm

c)

Dry flour sifted, dough rested, kept cold

d)

Oil added, dough mixed lightly, chilled

62.

Which pair are the main proteins that combine to form gluten?

a)

Albumen and myosin

b)

Prolamin and glutelin

c)

Casein and whey

d)

Glutenin and gliadin

63.

Which factor inhibits gluten formation during dough preparation?

a)

Presence of fat in the mixture

b)

Warm environment during proofing

c)

Adequate water for hydration

d)

Prolonged kneading of dough

64.

A baker wants a tender pastry with minimal gluten. Which modification best achieves this?

a)

Add extra water to hydrate proteins

b)

Keep dough warm to accelerate bonds

c)

Increase fat to coat flour particles

d)

Knead longer to align protein chains

65.

Seitan is primarily made from which ingredient and is best described how?

a)

Soy protein isolate; dairy-free cheese alternative

b)

Vital wheat gluten; plant-based meat substitute

c)

Brown rice gluten; high-fat meat replacement

d)

Pea protein flour; fermented grain product

66.

Compared with animal meat, what is a nutritional limitation of seitan?

a)

Excess saturated fat from grain oils

b)

High sugar formation during cooking

c)

Low carbohydrate content in gluten

d)

Limited amino acid profile due to gluten

67.

Which description of gluten’s role in dough is most accurate?

a)

Reduces moisture and prevents hydration entirely

b)

Acts as a leavening gas that expands bubbles

c)

Adds sweetness and increases browning reactions

d)

Provides elasticity and helps hold dough together

68.

Which classification describes monosaccharides within carbohydrates?

a)

Polymers forming storage starch

b)

Dimers forming complex fibers

c)

Monomers forming simple sugars

d)

Cross-linked proteins chains

69.

Which set lists examples of disaccharides?

a)

Sucrose maltose lactose

b)

Glucose fructose ribose

c)

Starch cellulose glycogen

d)

Galactose glucose fructose

70.

Which category includes starch, cellulose, and glycogen?

a)

Disaccharides dimers

b)

Polysaccharides polymers

c)

Lipids triglycerides

d)

Monosaccharides monomers

71.

Identify the molecule type shown as a single ring labeled glucose in the diagram.

a)

Monosaccharide single unit

b)

Amino acid building block

c)

Polysaccharide many units

d)

Disaccharide two units

72.

Monosaccharides in food science most relevant are which two?

a)

Sucrose and lactose

b)

Ribose and cellulose

c)

Glucose and fructose

d)

Starch and glycogen

73.

All three—glucose, galactose, and fructose—share C6H12O6 but differ in arrangement. What term describes this relationship?

a)

Isomers same formula

b)

Isotopes extra neutrons

c)

Enzymes protein catalysts

d)

Ions charged atoms

74.

A student claims fructose and glucose have identical properties because their formulas match. What is the best response?

a)

They are disaccharides only

b)

They are the same sugar

c)

They differ as isomers

d)

They become equal in water

75.

Which statement correctly contrasts simple and complex carbohydrates in the diagrams?

a)

Simple are single or double units

b)

Complex are single units only

c)

Simple are long branched chains

d)

Complex are one-ring structures

76.

Which statement best describes a reducing sugar in food chemistry?

a)

Donates electrons to another molecule

b)

Absorbs electrons from proteins

c)

Forms water when heated strongly

d)

Always occurs only in disaccharides

77.

Which reaction requires amino acids and involves browning and aroma formation?

a)

Simple hydrolysis

b)

Fermentation process

c)

Maillard reaction

d)

Caramelisation only

78.

Which carbohydrate is NOT a reducing sugar?

a)

Lactose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Maltose

d)

Glucose

79.

What primarily causes browning when sucrose is heated without proteins present?

a)

Gelatinisation

b)

Maillard reaction

c)

Oxidative rancidity

d)

Caramelisation

80.

Which statement about monosaccharides and disaccharides is accurate?

a)

Only ketoses are reducing carbohydrates

b)

Only sucrose is a reducing disaccharide

c)

No disaccharides are reducing sugars

d)

All monosaccharides are reducing sugars

81.

Sugar alcohols are commonly called polyols and are used to replace which ingredient in foods and drinks?

a)

Fat triglycerides

b)

Dietary fiber cellulose

c)

Table sugar sucrose

d)

Protein casein

82.

Which property most distinguishes sugar alcohols from regular sugar?

a)

About half the calories

b)

Higher melting point

c)

Stronger sweetness always

d)

Requires protein to react

83.

Which scenario best explains why some "sugar free" products still taste sweet?

a)

They contain sugar alcohol polyols

b)

They rely solely on amino acids

c)

They use only unsweet starches

d)

They are sweet due to proteins

84.

Which statement best describes sugar crystallisation during confectionery making?

a)

Water is driven off forming thick syrup

b)

Fats emulsify to create smooth texture

c)

Proteins denature creating firm structure

d)

Starch gels to trap water molecules

85.

Which product most commonly relies on sugar crystallisation for its texture?

a)

Shortcrust pastry cases

b)

Yeast-leavened breads

c)

Tablet and toffee sweets

d)

Crème caramel dessert

86.

What visible change signals sugar caramelisation when heated in a liquid or as a topping?

a)

Turns brown due to heat

b)

Separates into oil droplets

c)

Forms opaque white crystals

d)

Produces foamy air bubbles

87.

Which kitchen outcome is a risk if sugar is caramelised for too long?

a)

It will curdle dairy proteins

b)

It will burn and taste bitter

c)

It will ferment into alcohol

d)

It will freeze and harden

88.

During aeration, what role does sugar play when creamed with fat?

a)

Raises gelatinisation temperature

b)

Stabilises emulsions preventing separation

c)

Absorbs moisture to reduce stickiness

d)

Traps air making mixtures lighter

89.

Which baked item most depends on aeration from sugar creamed with fat?

a)

Pickled vegetables

b)

Cakes and sponge batters

c)

Roasted meats with glaze

d)

Custard-based desserts

90.

How does sugar contribute to colour in baked products?

a)

Gives a golden brown surface

b)

Bleaches pigments during baking

c)

Creates bright red caramel hue

d)

Prevents any browning reactions

91.

Which combination correctly matches a functional property with a typical use?

a)

Caramelisation—crème caramel

b)

Aeration—jam preservation

c)

Colour—bread fermentation

d)

Crystallisation—meat tenderising

92.

Which statement best describes aeration during the creaming of sugar and fat?

a)

Air is added by melting fat gently

b)

Fine powders prevent any air incorporation

c)

Sugar crystals cut fat, trapping air bubbles

d)

Fat dissolves sugar crystals completely

93.

Why is caster sugar preferred over icing sugar for aeration in baking?

a)

Icing sugar has more moisture content

b)

Caster sugar crystals are finer and sharper

c)

Caster sugar dissolves slower in water

d)

Icing sugar contains added starch thickeners

94.

During aeration, what role does fat play in the mixture?

a)

Fat evaporates to lighten the batter

b)

Fat reacts chemically with sugar

c)

Fat surrounds and traps air bubbles

d)

Fat expels air from the mixture

95.

Artificial sweeteners often fail to aerate mixtures effectively because they are typically:

a)

Amorphous gels with high viscosity

b)

Highly hygroscopic solids

c)

Large crystalline granules

d)

Very fine powders lacking sharp edges

96.

Starch gelatinisation requires the combined presence of:

a)

Acid, light, and cold

b)

Starch, moisture, and heat

c)

Protein, enzymes, and salt

d)

Sugar, fat, and pressure

97.

What occurs between about 60°C and 71°C during starch gelatinisation?

a)

Amylose chains fully crosslink

b)

Paste sets into a permanent gel

c)

Grains burst and form a sol

d)

Water is absorbed by starch grains

98.

Which sequence correctly depicts the later stages of gelatinisation?

a)

Absorption stops, grains shrink, paste thins

b)

Water evaporates, grains crystallise, fluid thins

c)

Grains swell, rupture, sol forms, viscosity increases

d)

Grains freeze, amylose leaches, paste clarifies

99.

In food applications, gelatinisation is primarily used to:

a)

Stabilise proteins in meat marinades

b)

Aerate cakes and cookies

c)

Thicken sauces, soups, and custards

d)

Caramelise sugars in syrups

100.

Which event initiates the caramelisation of sucrose during heating?

a)

Melting of the sugar with foaming

b)

Immediate formation of caramels

c)

Rapid crystallisation on cooling

d)

Addition of water to the mixture

101.

During caramelisation, sucrose first breaks down into which two monosaccharides?

a)

Glucose and fructose

b)

Glucose and galactose

c)

Ribose and glucose

d)

Fructose and lactose

102.

Which statement best describes the role of condensation in caramelisation?

a)

Steam removes volatile flavours

b)

Water condenses on cooler surfaces

c)

Sugars absorb water and expand

d)

Sugars lose water and react together

103.

Which product group mainly contributes to the complex flavours formed during caramelisation?

a)

Aromatic compounds from caramelins

b)

Organic acids from fermentation

c)

Proteins from Maillard browning

d)

Mineral salts from inversion

104.

Identify the correct sequence element found among the reactions in caramelisation.

a)

Isomerization of aldoses to ketoses

b)

Hydrogenation of double bonds

c)

Oxidation producing carbon dioxide

d)

Formation of crystalline lattices

105.

What happens when sugar is dissolved in water, heated, and then cooled?

a)

It decomposes into carbon dioxide

b)

It reverts to a crystalline form

c)

It remains a supersaturated liquid

d)

It forms stable glassy amorphous solids

106.

To achieve smoother fudge, what processing step is applied as the mixture cools?

a)

Resting to allow large crystals

b)

Adding salt to halt crystallisation

c)

Filtering to remove seed crystals

d)

Beating to create smaller crystals

107.

Which syrup stage most closely matches 118–120°C and about 87% sugar concentration?

a)

Thread stage for syrups

b)

Hard crack stage for brittles

c)

Soft ball stage for fudge

d)

Firm ball stage for caramels