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WorksheetsFall Semester ~ Science Test ~ 2025
Total questions: 132
Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The amount of inertia an object has depends on its .
a)
force
b)
mass
c)
friction
d)
age
2.
Which of the following is NOT measured in newtons (N)?
a)
weight
b)
mass
c)
net force
3.
A group of students are playing tug-of-war. The students on both sides pull with EQUAL force. This is an example of?
a)
unbalanced forces
b)
balanced forces
c)
acceleration
d)
air resistance
4.
The sum of all the forces acting on an object is called the force.
a)
net
b)
gravitational
c)
final
d)
inertial
5.
If the same force is applied to each of these balls, which one will have the SMALLEST acceleration?
a)
baseball
b)
bowling ball
c)
golf ball
d)
tennis ball
6.
Which of the following is NOT an example of unbalanced forces acting on an object?
a)
An acorn falling from a tree, accelerating.
b)
A car moving straight at 80 km/h.
c)
A car changing speed from 50 km/h to 80 km/h.
d)
A truck slowing down as it approaches a stop sign.
7.
A person in a head-on car collision, who is not wearing a seatbelt, continues to move forward at the original speed of the car because of .
a)
friction
b)
inertia
c)
gravity
d)
weight
8.
A feather will fall through the air more slowly than a brick because of acting on it.
a)
gravity
b)
air resistance
c)
terminal velocity
d)
momentum
9.
The force that pulls all objects towards the Earth is called?
a)
friction
b)
gravity
c)
magnetic
d)
electrical
10.
A force that is transferred from a person or object to another object is called?
a)
applied
b)
spring
c)
friction
d)
gravity
11.
The force exerted by a compressed or stretched spring on any object that is attached to it is called?
a)
normal
b)
applied
c)
spring
d)
tension
12.
The force that pushes objects up due to the fluid pressure of a liquid is called?
a)
air resistance
b)
normal
c)
buoyancy
d)
spring
13.
The force that is transmitted through a string, rope, cable or wire when it is pulled tight is called?
a)
applied
b)
normal
c)
gravity
d)
tension
14.
The force that is created when two surfaces rub against one another is called?
a)
normal
b)
tension
c)
friction
d)
applied
15.
The force that pushes objects up when they are on a solid surface is called?
a)
normal
b)
tension
c)
friction
d)
applied
16.
A rocket's action is to push down on the ground with the force of its powerful engines. The reaction is that the ground pushes the rocket upwards with an equal force but opposite in direction. Which law best explains this event?
a)
The Universal Law of Gravity
b)
Newton's 1st Law of Motion
c)
Newton's 2nd Law of Motion
d)
Newton's 3rd Law of Motion
17.
While driving down the road a firefly hits the windshield of a bus. This makes a big mess on the glass. This is certainly an example of Newton's Third Law of Motion, but which object has the greater force when the firefly hit? The firefly hit the bus and the bus hit the firefly back. Which of the two forces is greater: the force on the firefly or the force on the bus?
a)
The force is equal for the firefly and the bus because of Newton's Third Law of Motion.
b)
The force of the firefly is greater because it was moving faster than the bus.
c)
The firefly has so little mass, it has no force.
d)
The force of the bus is greater because it has more mass.
18.
What is Newton's Third Law of Motion?
a)
Force = mass x acceleration
b)
Same as the law of inertia
c)
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
d)
An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force
19.
In the image below, two teams are playing tug of war. The arrows and their labels demonstrate the strength and direction of each team's pull force. What can be concluded based on the diagram?
a)
The rope will not move.
b)
The rope will not be acted on by friction.
c)
The rope will move toward team X.
d)
The rope will move toward team Y.
20.
Which of the following options BEST applies Newton’s First Law of Motion to the image below?
a)
The coin started off in motion until an unbalanced force force caused it to stop.
b)
The coin started off in motion until a balanced force caused it to stop.
c)
The coin started off at rest until an unbalanced force caused it to move.
d)
The coin started off at rest until a balanced force caused it to move.
21.
An object's speed or direction will not change unless it is acted on by a(n) .
a)
push force
b)
unbalanced force
c)
balanced force
d)
pull force
22.
The tendency of an object at rest to stay at rest (or an object in motion to stay in motion) is known as?
a)
velocity
b)
gravity
c)
acceleration
d)
inertia
23.
A force is described as a .
a)
back and a forth
b)
pull only
c)
push or pull
d)
push only
24.
A notebook is placed on a table. Two students both reach for and pull the notebook. Student A pulls to the left with 70 N. Student B pulls to the right with 50 N. What is the net force on the notebook?
a)
20 N to the left
b)
20 N to the right
c)
220 N total
d)
60 N to the left
25.
This force of attraction exists between objects in the universe. We are pulled downward to Earth. This force is known as?
a)
electromagnetism
b)
friction
c)
strong
d)
gravity
26.
A baseball is thrown into the air. As it falls to the ground, what forces are acting on the ball?
a)
air resistance and gravity
b)
gravity only
c)
air resistance only
d)
air resistance and normal
27.
Objects at rest tend to stay at rest. This is described by?
a)
Newton's First Law of Motion
b)
Newton's Second Law of Motion
c)
Newton's Third Law of Motion
d)
Newton's Laws of Acceleration
28.
Which of Newton's Laws of Motion states that the acceleration of an object is dependent on its mass and the net force acting on it?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
All answers are correct.
29.
The arrows in this diagram represent the sizes of forces acting on a stationary box. What will happen to the box?
a)
The box will move 2N to the North.
b)
The box will move 2N to the South.
c)
The box will not move.
d)
The box will move 8N to the North.
30.
The diagram shows forces acting on a box. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about the diagram?
a)
The magnitude of the net force is 4 N.
b)
The directions of the net force is to the left.
c)
The forces on the box are balanced.
d)
The forces on the box are unbalanced.
31.
If the mass of an object is 300 kg and the applied force is 3,600 N, what is the acceleration?
a)
1,080,000 m/s/s
b)
12 m/s/s
c)
0.083 m/s/s
d)
3,600 m/s/s
32.
If the acceleration is 500 m/s/s and the mass is 200 kg, what is the force?
a)
2.5 N
b)
3 N
c)
200 N
d)
100,000 N
33.
If the force is 1,500 N and the acceleration is 500 m/s/s, what is the mass?
a)
750,000 kg
b)
1.5 kg
c)
3 kg
d)
5,000 kg
34.
An object can still be in motion if the net force acting on it is zero.
a)
True
b)
False
35.
Which of the following is true about mass and weight?
a)
Mass and weight are the same thing.
b)
Mass changes when gravity changes but weight stays the same.
c)
Weight changes when gravity changes, but mass stays the same.
d)
Both mass and weight change when gravity changes.
36.
Which scientist wrote the laws of gravity in the 1600s?
a)
Darwin
b)
Newton
c)
Nye
d)
Pasteur
37.
What is a wave?
a)
a movement of matter
b)
a disturbance that carries energy
c)
the process of electrons being transferred
d)
large fluctuations in force
38.
Type of wave that requires a medium to travel through?
a)
Electromagnetic
b)
Mechanical
39.
Why do waves move fastest through solid mediums?
a)
because the particles are moving faster
b)
because the particles are moving slower
c)
because the particles are closer together
d)
because the particles are farther apart
40.
What property of a wave is represented by letter A?
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
speed
d)
frequency
41.
What property of a wave is represented by letter B?
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
trough
d)
frequency
42.
What property of a wave is represented by letter C and is measured per second?
a)
amplitude
b)
speed
c)
frequency
d)
crest
43.
What part of a wave is represented by letter D?
a)
crest
b)
compression
c)
rarefaction
d)
trough
44.
What part of a wave is represented by letter E?
a)
crest
b)
compression
c)
rarefaction
d)
trough
45.
Which of the following can act as a medium for a wave?
a)
sound and light
b)
water
c)
air
d)
solids, liquids, and gases
46.
When the frequency of a wave decreases .
a)
the wavelength increases
b)
the wavelength decreases
c)
the wavelength increases and then decreases
d)
the wavelength remains the same
47.
Mechanical waves can travel through empty space and do not require a medium through which to travel.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
A transverse wave moves the medium perpendicular (right angle) to the direction in which the wave travels.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
As amplitude increases, energy increases.
a)
True
b)
False
50.
In transverse waves, what is the distance between 2 consecutive crests or 2 troughs?
a)
amplitude
b)
wavelength
c)
crest
d)
trough
51.
What is the unit of measurement for wavelength?
a)
decibels
b)
meters
c)
hertz
d)
meters/seconds
52.
The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time (1 second) is called?
a)
amplitude
b)
frequency
c)
decibels
d)
energy
53.
What is the unit of measurement for frequency?
a)
decibels
b)
meters
c)
hertz
d)
meters/seconds
54.
What is the unit of measurement for speed/velocity?
a)
decibels
b)
meters
c)
hertz
d)
meters/seconds
55.
A wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the direction the wave travels is called?
a)
surface wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
wavelength
d)
longitudinal wave
56.
The area in a longitudinal wave in which the particles are closest together is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
57.
The area in a longitudinal wave in which the particles are farthest apart is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
58.
The highest point of a transverse wave is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
59.
The lowest point of a transverse wave is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
60.
All sound waves are what kind of waves?
a)
transverse
b)
longitudinal
c)
surface
d)
gnarly
61.
The higher the frequency, the the pitch of the sound we hear.
a)
lower
b)
higher
62.
If a wave is traveling at 30 m/s and has a wavelength of 60 meters, what is its frequency?
a)
5 Hz
b)
2 Hz
c)
0.5 Hz
d)
1800 Hz
63.
Which type of wave is continuous and transmits signals that become weaker over long distances?
a)
digital
b)
analog
64.
Which type of wave encodes information into a series of 1's and 0's (binary)?
a)
digital
b)
analog
65.
Which type of wave has a signal that is more susceptible to interference?
a)
digital
b)
analog
66.
Radio waves are an example of which kind of wave?
a)
electromagnetic
b)
longitudinal
c)
mechanical
d)
transverse
67.
Sound waves can be heard in space.
a)
True
b)
False
68.
All electromagnetic waves have the same .
a)
frequency & wavelength
b)
speed and amplitude
c)
pitch and sound
d)
energy
69.
Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?
a)
orange
b)
violet
c)
red
d)
green
70.
All of the following are examples of analog signals EXCEPT?
a)
human voice speaking
b)
music from speakers
c)
fiber optics
d)
music from a guitar
71.
All of the following are examples of digital signals EXCEPT?
a)
computers
b)
CDs
c)
DVDs
d)
a dog barking
72.
A force combining both electric and magnetic forces is called?
a)
magnetism
b)
electricity
c)
electromagnetism
d)
forces of nature
73.
This force occurs when there is an attractive and repulsive force between two poles.
a)
magnetic
b)
electric
c)
electromagnetism
74.
The farther away from the poles, the the magnetic field.
a)
stronger
b)
weaker
c)
larger
d)
smaller
75.
Electric charges in motion create a (an) .
a)
magnetic field
b)
solenoid
c)
insulator
d)
magnet
76.
What makes an electromagnet stronger?
a)
Increasing the number of loops of wire.
b)
Decreasing the number of loops of wire.
c)
Decreasing the amount of current.
d)
Increasing the length of the wire.
77.
Where is the strongest part of the magnet?
a)
the north pole
b)
the south pole
c)
both poles
d)
The magnet's strength is equal on all sides.
78.
The invisible space around a magnet where the magnetic forces act is called?
a)
magnetic pole
b)
magnetic field
c)
lodestone
d)
magnetic domain
79.
What do you end up with if you cut a magnet in half?
a)
Two unmagnetized pieces of metal.
b)
Two pieces, one with only a north pole and one with only a south pole.
c)
Two complete magnets, each with a north and south pole.
80.
Will this circuit work?
a)
Yes
b)
No
81.
Will this circuit work?
a)
Yes
b)
No
82.
Three bar magnets are held together (as pictured below). What will the magnets look like when the hands let go of the magnets?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
83.
A student has two magnets. One magnet is on top of the table. The other magnet is in his hand (1). He puts his hand with the magnet under the table, and the magnet on top of table begins to move (2).
This demonstration provides evidence that .
a)
The force of magnetism (the magnetic field) goes through some materials.
b)
Magnets sometimes repel each other.
c)
Magnets sometimes attract each other.
d)
The bottom of the magnet makes the table into a temporary magnet; which then attracts the magnet on top so it moves.
84.
Which label corresponds with winter in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
85.
Which label corresponds with fall in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
Which best describes spring in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun.
b)
Northern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight.
c)
South Pole receives constant sunlight.
d)
Equal length of day and night.
87.
Two students are trying to understand this diagram. Here is what they think:
Jose: It is winter in the Southern Hemisphere because the equator points away from the Sun.
Darlene: It is summer in the Southern Hemisphere because it receives more direct sunlight.
a)
Jose
b)
Darlene
c)
both students
d)
neither student
88.
The time it takes a planet to go around the Sun is called its .
a)
orbital radius
b)
orbital period
c)
day
d)
orbital velocity
89.
The spinning motion of a planet on its axis is called?
a)
rotation
b)
revolution
c)
orbital period
d)
orbital radius
90.
The orbital motion of an object around another object is called?
a)
rotation
b)
revolution
c)
orbital period
d)
orbital radius
91.
Which planet has the shortest orbital period?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars
d)
Neptune
92.
Which planet has the longest orbital radius?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars
d)
Neptune
93.
As you move farther away from the Sun, how does the orbital period change?
a)
It doesn't change
b)
it gets longer
c)
it gets shorter
94.
As you move farther away from the sun, how does the orbital speed change?
a)
The orbital speed stays the same
b)
The orbital speed gets faster
c)
The orbital speed gets slower
95.
The Sun's gravity keeps the planets in orbit. How does the force of the Sun's gravitational pull change as you move away from the Sun?
a)
It gets stronger.
b)
It gets weaker.
c)
It doesn't change.
96.
The Moon makes its own light.
a)
True
b)
False
97.
What term is used to describe the phases of the Moon that appear to be getting bigger?
a)
waxing
b)
waning
c)
gibbous
d)
crescent
98.
You are standing outside looking up at the sky. You remember just a few nights ago there was a new moon, and you couldn't see anything. What kind of moon do you think you are looking at now?
a)
waxing gibbous
b)
waxing crescent
c)
full moon
d)
waning gibbous
99.
Which moon phase do we see at position 5?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full moon
d)
third quarter
100.
What moon phase do we see at position 8?
a)
new moon
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waning crescent
101.
What does the Moon orbit around?
a)
the Sun
b)
nothing
c)
its moon
d)
Earth
102.
How long does a lunar cycle take?
a)
3.5 days
b)
7 days
c)
29.5 days
d)
365 days
103.
What is the only phase of the Moon that will cause a solar eclipse?
a)
full moon
b)
new moon
c)
first quarter
d)
third quarter
104.
When a solar eclipse occurs, which of the following is true?
a)
The Sun moves between the Moon and the Earth.
b)
The Earth moves between the Moon and the Sun.
c)
The Moon moves between the Sun and the Earth.
105.
Which phase of the Moon can experience a lunar eclipse?
a)
full moon
b)
new moon
c)
first quarter
d)
third quarter
106.
What is the force of gravity acting on a mass?
a)
force
b)
gravity
c)
weight
d)
intertia
107.
You would weigh less on Uranus than you do on Earth. Uranus has more mass than the Earth, so why is the force of gravity lower?
a)
Uranus has a much smaller radius so you are closer to the center of mass.
b)
Uranus has a much larger radius so you are much farther to the center of mass.
c)
Uranus has the same radius as Earth.
108.
What is the attractive force between all objects in the universe?
a)
force
b)
gravity
c)
weight
d)
inertia
109.
What is the path a planet follows as it moves around the Sun?
a)
orbit
b)
rotation
c)
axis
d)
revolution
110.
What are the two factors that affect the force of gravity between two objects?
a)
weight and mass
b)
mass and speed
c)
mass and distance
d)
weight and speed
111.
The force of gravity would if the Sun got bigger.
a)
incresase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
112.
If you went to Jupiter, your mass would .
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
113.
If you went to the Moon, your weight would .
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
114.
Which picture shows what would happen if the force of gravity between the Sun and Earth were turned off?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
115.
Gravity pulls everything towards .
a)
the ground
b)
the Moon
c)
the center of a mass
d)
the Sun
116.
Any object with mass has gravity.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
It depends
117.
The gravity of the is the biggest factor in determining the ocean tides.
a)
Sun
b)
Moon
c)
Earth
d)
planets
118.
What type of tides would Earth experience during these moon phases?
a)
neap
b)
lunar
c)
spring
d)
solar
119.
What type of tides would Earth experience during these moon phases?
a)
neap
b)
lunar
c)
spring
d)
solar
120.
What type of tide has the highest "high tides" and the lowest "low tides"?
a)
regular
b)
neap
c)
spring
121.
During what type of tide would there be the LEAST difference between low and high tides (lower "high tides" and higher "low tides")?
a)
regular
b)
neap
c)
spring
122.
Since the Earth rotates, most shorelines will experience two high tides and two low tides approximately every hours.
a)
6
b)
8
c)
12
d)
24
123.
Which statement is NOT true about the inner planets?
a)
They are made mostly of rock.
b)
They are the smallest four planets.
c)
They have a longer revolution.
d)
They are more dense than the other planets.
124.
Which statement is NOT true about the outer planets?
a)
They are made mostly of gas.
b)
They are the largest four planets.
c)
They are farther apart than the other planets.
d)
More is known about them than the other planets.
125.
What is an icy celestial body that orbits the Sun?
a)
asteroid
b)
moon
c)
meteor
d)
comet
126.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of comets?
a)
They have a nucleus, coma, and a tail.
b)
They orbit around the Sun.
c)
Their tail point towards the Sun.
d)
They are sometimes called a "dirty snowball."
127.
What is solar wind?
a)
Solar wind is a material that sprays off the tail of a comet.
b)
Solar wind is a breeze from the Sun.
c)
Solar wind is the hot wind we feel in the summer.
d)
Solar wind is the charged particles ejected from the Sun.
128.
How does solar wind impact comets?
a)
Solar wind is frozen ice that crashes into comets knocking them off course.
b)
Solar wind pushes the particles coming off the comet away from the Sun.
c)
Solar wind cools comets down so they don't explode.
d)
Solar wind is a myth. It has no impact on comets.
129.
What is a small-bodied object in the solar system that is an irregularly-shaped rock mainly found between Mars and Jupiter?
a)
comet
b)
asteroid
c)
meteor
d)
moon
130.
Why do meteors burn up in the atmosphere?
a)
Meteors crash into each other breaking them into tiny pieces that burn up easily.
b)
Meteors shower down causing the atmosphere to heat up and set them ablaze in the sky.
c)
Meteors burn up from friction as they speed through Earth's atmosphere.
d)
Meteors don't burn up in the atmosphere, they melt because they are made of ice.
131.
When a meteor hits the surface of a planet and is no longer moving it is called?
a)
comet
b)
asteroid
c)
meteorite
d)
meteoroid
132.
Comets, asteroids, meteors, and meteorites all orbit the Sun.
a)
True
b)
False
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