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BPH and ED pt 1

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the major site of testosterone production in males?

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Testis

d)

Liver

2.

Which enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?

a)

Aromatase

b)

3-β hydroxylase

c)

5-α reductase

d)

Cholesterol desmolase

3.

Which form of 5-α reductase is found primarily in urogenital tissues?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Both Type I and II

4.

DHT is more potent than testosterone because:

a)

It circulates at higher concentrations

b)

It is resistant to metabolism

c)

It is converted from cholesterol

d)

It has a hydrogen at position 5

5.

Which hormone is the primary regulator of testosterone secretion in males?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

ACTH

d)

Prolactin

6.

Most circulating testosterone is transported in plasma bound to which protein?

a)

Transferrin

b)

Albumin

c)

SHBG

d)

Globulin A

7.

Which is an androgenic effect of testosterone?

a)

Increased erythropoiesis

b)

Retention of sodium

c)

Alteration in lean body mass

d)

Closure of the epiphysis

8.

Which is an anabolic effect of androgens?

a)

Growth of the larynx

b)

Stimulation of erythropoiesis

c)

Increased body hair

d)

Increased sebum secretion

9.

Testosterone is aromatized to which compound?

a)

Estrone

b)

Estradiol

c)

Progesterone

d)

Cortisol

10.

Aromatization of testosterone contributes to which physiological process?

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Skeletal growth

c)

Muscle breakdown

d)

Prostate enlargement

11.

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism is caused by dysfunction at which level?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Pituitary

c)

Testis

d)

Liver

12.

What is a major risk of testosterone undecanoate therapy (boxed warning)?

a)

Hepatic carcinoma

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Pulmonary oil microembolism

d)

Severe renal toxicity

13.

Which adverse effect of testosterone results from its conversion to estrogen?

a)

Acne

b)

Aggression

c)

Gynecomastia

d)

Increased hematocrit

14.

Erectile dysfunction is primarily caused by:

a)

Excess testosterone

b)

Reduced blood flow to the penis

c)

High LH secretion

d)

Increased venous return

15.

Which of the following is not an organic cause of ED?

a)

Vascular disease

b)

Hormonal abnormalities

c)

Medications

d)

Performance anxiety

16.

Which is a psychogenic cause of ED?

a)

Neurogenic injury

b)

Depression

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Peripheral vascular disease

17.

Which is a major risk factor for ED?

a)

Low cholesterol

b)

Aging

c)

High fluid intake

d)

Low blood pressure

18.

Which statement best describes the mechanism of erection?

a)

Contraction of penile smooth muscle

b)

Arterial constriction

c)

Increased blood inflow compared to outflow

d)

Activation of 5-α reductase

19.

What neurotransmitter is critically involved in promoting penile smooth muscle relaxation?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Nitric oxide

d)

GABA

20.

Which PDE-5 inhibitor is also used in BPH?

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Vardenafil

c)

Tadalafil

d)

Testosterone

21.

PDE-5 inhibitors enhance erection by:

a)

Increasing testosterone

b)

Inhibiting cGMP breakdown

c)

Increasing LH

d)

Activating guanylyl cyclase directly

22.

PDE-5 inhibitors should not be combined with which medication?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Organic nitrates

d)

Diuretics

23.

A rare but serious adverse effect of sildenafil is:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Acute hearing loss

c)

Severe acne

d)

Edema

24.

During testosterone biosynthesis, cholesterol is converted to testosterone through multiple steps. What precursor contributes to testosterone synthesis?

a)

Cortisol

b)

DHEA

c)

Acetate

d)

Estradiol

25.

Which androgenic effect results specifically from increased sebum production?

a)

Gynecomastia

b)

Acne

c)

Alopecia

d)

Vocal changes

26.

What happens to epiphyseal plates under the influence of anabolic androgens?

a)

They remain open longer

b)

Closure is accelerated

c)

Growth stops prematurely only in females

d)

They are unaffected

27.

In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, both LH/FSH and testosterone are low due to:

a)

Testicular failure

b)

Pituitary or hypothalamic dysfunction

c)

Excess prolactin

d)

High SHBG

28.

Which adverse outcome of testosterone therapy is associated with increased hematocrit?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Reduced clotting

c)

Hyperviscosity and increased clot risk

d)

Muscle wasting

29.

Which event maintains penile rigidity during erection?

a)

Venous dilation

b)

Venous occlusion

c)

Increased arterial resistance

d)

NO inhibition

30.

Which PDE-5 inhibitor has the longest duration of action?

a)

Sildenafil

b)

Vardenafil

c)

Tadalafil

d)

Testosterone

31.

Which of the following correctly defines benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a)

Malignant enlargement of the prostate

b)

Non-malignant increase in prostate size leading to urethral compression

c)

Inflammation of the prostate due to infection

d)

Enlargement of testicles leading to obstruction

32.

Which factor is NOT a cause or contributor to BPH?

a)

Excessive accumulation of dihydrotestosterone

b)

Aging

c)

Decreased estrogen stimulation

d)

Hormonal alterations with endocrine changes

33.

What is the main pathological outcome of enlarged prostate nodules compressing the urethra?

a)

Increased urine acidity

b)

Urinary retention due to obstruction

c)

Increased kidney filtration

d)

Decreased bladder pressure

34.

Which of the following is a common irritative or obstructive symptom of BPH?

a)

Polyphagia

b)

Hesitancy in starting urination

c)

Jaundice

d)

Excessive sweating

35.

Which symptom indicates incomplete bladder emptying?

a)

Terminal dribbling

b)

Chest pain

c)

PhotophobiaHyperreflexia

36.

BPH affects approximately what percentage of men over age 80?

a)

10%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

Over 80%

37.

When should BPH be treated?

a)

As soon as the prostate begins enlarging

b)

Only if symptoms affect quality of life or complications occur

c)

When PSA levels rise

d)

When the patient develops nocturia alone

38.

A majority of alpha-1 antagonists share which key structural feature?

a)

Quinazoline ring and piperazine ring

b)

Imidazole ring

c)

Phenylalanine backbone

d)

Dicarboxylic acid group

39.

What is the primary mechanism of action of alpha-1 antagonists in treating BPH?

a)

Shrinking prostate gland volume

b)

Blocking 5-alpha reductase

c)

Relaxing smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate

d)

Increasing testosterone production

40.

Which alpha-1 antagonist selectively targets the alpha-1A receptor subtype found in prostate smooth muscle?

a)

Prazosin

b)

Terazosin

c)

Doxazosin

d)

Tamsulosin

41.

Which adverse effect is uniquely associated with tamsulosin and cataract surgery?

a)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

b)

Intraoperative floppy iris syndrome

c)

Gynecomastia

d)

Hyperkalemia

42.

What is the mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?

a)

Blocking testosterone receptors

b)

Inhibiting conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

c)

Stimulating PSA production

d)

Increasing bladder muscle contractility

43.

Which 5-alpha reductase inhibitor is selective for the type-2 isoenzyme?

a)

Dutasteride

b)

Finasteride

c)

Tamsulosin

d)

Doxazosin

44.

Which agent inhibits BOTH type-1 and type-2 5-alpha reductase?

a)

Finasteride

b)

Tamsulosin

c)

Dutasteride

d)

Terazosin

45.

Which structural feature is shared by finasteride and dutasteride?

a)

Quinazoline core

b)

Azasteroid-17-amide derivatives

c)

Piperazine ring

d)

Beta-lactam ring

46.

A major clinical consideration with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors is:

a)

They increase PSA by 50%

b)

They lower PSA levels by up to 50%

c)

They have no effect on PSA

d)

They cause rapid improvement within 24 hours

47.

Which adverse effect is MOST associated with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Erectile dysfunction and lowered libido

c)

Weight loss

d)

Tachycardia

48.

What pathophysiologic change contributes to weakened bladder function in BPH?

a)

Increased acidity of urine

b)

Decreased muscle tone and bladder capacity

c)

Excessive urine production

d)

Hypertrophy of the urethral sphincter

49.

Why does urinary retention predispose patients to infection in BPH?

a)

Urine becomes alkaline and supports bacterial growth

b)

Urine becomes acidic and damages urethral tissue

c)

Prostate tissue releases inflammatory toxins

d)

DHT increases bacterial resistance

50.

Which symptom is most consistent with severe obstruction?

a)

Increased diarrhea

b)

Nocturia

c)

Acute urinary retention

d)

Shoulder pain

51.

Which medication type provides the most rapid symptom relief?

a)

5-alpha reductase inhibitors

b)

Alpha-1 antagonists

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antimuscarinics

52.

Which patients benefit MOST from 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?

a)

Men with small prostates and mild symptoms

b)

Men with demonstrable prostate enlargement

c)

Men with normal PSA

d)

Men with acute infections

53.

Which factor related to lifestyle may increase the risk of BPH?

a)

High protein intake

b)

Intense exercise

c)

Obesity and higher BMI

d)

Excessive caffeine consumption

54.

Which condition results from prolonged urinary retention due to BPH?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Renal failure

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Liver fibrosis

55.

Which of the following symptoms is classified as an irritative LUTS symptom?

a)

Hesitancy

b)

Intermittency

c)

Pain during urination

d)

Sensation of incomplete bladder emptying

56.

Tamsulosin differs from other alpha-1 antagonists because it is:

a)

Non-selective for all alpha-1 receptors

b)

A competitive blocker of alpha-1B receptors only

c)

Selective for alpha-1A receptors in prostate smooth muscle

d)

A steroid derivative

57.

Which drug can reduce the need for BPH-related surgery?

a)

Alpha-1 antagonists only

b)

Finasteride/dutasteride

c)

Antimuscarinics

d)

Testosterone blockers

58.

Which symptom may improve most rapidly after starting alpha-1 antagonist therapy?

a)

Prostate size

b)

PSA levels

c)

Urinary flow rate

d)

Libido

59.

Which of the following lifestyle factors may reduce BPH risk?

a)

Lack of exercise

b)

Weight gain

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

Regular physical activity

60.

Which of the following best explains why BPH may lead to recurrent UTIs?

a)

Hypertonic urine kills bacteria

b)

Patients void too frequently

c)

Alkaline urine from retention supports bacterial growth

d)

Increased prostate blood flow promotes inflammation