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Anatomy & Physiology Practice Test - Respiratory System

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The conducting zone of the respiratory system ends with which structure?

a)

Respiratory bronchiole

b)

Terminal bronchiole

c)

Alveolar duct

d)

Primary bronchus

2.

What type of cells secretes surfactant, a fluid that lowers surface tension in the alveoli?

a)

Type 1 alveolar cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Type 2 cells

d)

Endothelial cells

3.

The respiratory zone of the lower respiratory tract starts at the:

a)

Terminal bronchiole

b)

Primary bronchus

c)

Alveolar sac

d)

Respiratory bronchiole

4.

Alveoli are comprised primarily of what type of cell and tissue?

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

b)

Stratified squamous epithelium

c)

Type 1 cells

d)

Type 2 cells

5.

Air and food are separated into the correct tubes by the action of the:

a)

Pharynx

b)

Esophagus

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Larynx

6.

The volume of air exchanged during normal quiet breathing is known as:

a)

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

b)

Residual Volume

c)

Tidal volume

d)

Vital Capacity

7.

Which lung volume represents the maximum volume of air that can be inspired and then forcibly expired?

a)

Total Lung Capacity

b)

Functional Residual Capacity

c)

Residual Volume

d)

Vital capacity

8.

Which of the following is not a major chemical stimulus for regulating the rate of breathing?

a)

A) Rising CO₂ levels in the blood

b)

B) Falling O₂ levels in the blood

c)

C) Decreased blood pH

d)

D) Rising blood pressure

9.

The definition of intrapulmonary pressure is the:

a)

Pressure exerted by the atmospheric air

b)

Pressure within the pleural cavity

c)

Pressure in the bronchial tree

d)

Pressure in the alveoli

10.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange across the respiratory membrane is accomplished using which primary transport mechanism?

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Filtration

d)

Diffusion

11.

What primary respiratory muscles would be used for forceful exhalation, such as when blowing up a balloon?

a)

External intercostals

b)

Diaphragm only

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Abdominal muscles

12.

What structure is found on the left lobe of the lung but is not present on the right lobe?

a)

Horizontal fissure

b)

Oblique fissure

c)

Middle lobe

d)

Cardiac notch

13.

What structures provide the greatest total surface area for gas exchange in the lungs?

a)

Terminal bronchioles

b)

Trachea

c)

Primary bronchi

d)

Alveoli

14.

The respiratory membrane is composed of the:

a)

Simple squamous epithelium of the alveolus only

b)

Endothelial cells of the pulmonary capillary only

c)

Alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basal laminae

d)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

15.

The relationship P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant temperature and number of gas molecules) is referred to as:

a)

Henry’s Law

b)

Dalton’s Law

c)

Charles’s Law

d)

Boyle’s Law

16.

What is responsible for holding the lungs to the thoracic wall?

a)

Adhesive force of mucus in the bronchi

b)

Strong connective tissue connecting the lung to the ribs

c)

The force of gravity on the lung tissue

d)

Negative suction pressure in the interpleural space

17.

Following the tertiary bronchi, the next major passageways in the respiratory system are the:

a)

Alveolar ducts and sacs

b)

Secondary bronchi

c)

Primary bronchi

d)

Terminal bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole

18.

The pleurae are vital to the lungs because they produce:

a)

Connective tissue that supports the lung shape

b)

The cartilage rings that keep airways open

c)

A muscular layer for lung contraction

d)

A secretion that allows the lungs to glide over the thorax

19.

What are the four basic layers of the alimentary canal from the lumen outward?

a)

Epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, serosa

b)

Tunica interna, tunica media, tunica externa, tunica adventitia

c)

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

d)

Lumen, submucosa, muscularis, adventitia

20.

Wave-like contractions that move food through the alimentary canal are called:

a)

Segmentation

b)

Deglutition

c)

Mastication

d)

Peristalsis

21.

The chemical and mechanical process of breaking down food to substances that can be absorbed is called:

a)

Ingestion

b)

Defecation

c)

Absorption

d)

Digestion

22.

The process by which the products of digestion pass through the lumen into the blood or lymph is called:

a)

Elimination

b)

Secretion

c)

Absorption

d)

Ingestion

23.

The enzymatic breakdown of any food molecule that involves the addition of a water molecule to break a bond is called:

a)

Condensation

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Polymerization

d)

Hydrolysis

24.

The pancreas releases the majority of its digestive enzymes into which section of the alimentary canal?

a)

Stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Ileum

25.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the colon (large intestine)?

a)

A) Reabsorption of water

b)

B) Compaction of feces

c)

C) Habitat for bacterial flora

d)

D) Main area of nutritional absorption

26.

Which of the following is not a characteristic function of the stomach?

a)

Mechanical breakdown of food

b)

Secretion of intrinsic factor

c)

Secretion of pepsinogen

d)

Release enzymes to digest carbohydrates

27.

The organ of the digestive tract that has the most absorption of nutrients is the:

a)

Stomach

b)

Large intestine

c)

Esophagus

d)

Small intestine

28.

The structural modifications that increase the surface area of the small intestine include all of the following except:

a)

Plicae circulares

b)

Villi

c)

Microvilli

d)

Rugae

29.

Amino acids are essential to the body for all of the following except:

a)

Building proteins

b)

Synthesis of non-protein nitrogen-containing molecules

c)

Precursors for some hormones

d)

Quick energy source

30.

A person who has been on a hunger strike for several days, compared to normal, has an:

a)

Increased reliance on glucose from glycogenolysis

b)

Decreased protein breakdown for gluconeogenesis

c)

Increased production of insulin

d)

Increase release of fatty acids from adipose tissue called ketosis

31.

Which organ chemically processes nearly every category of nutrient and plays a central role in metabolism?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Spleen

d)

Liver

32.

Which of the following nutrient categories yields the greatest calorie value per gram?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Fats

33.

The principal intracellular cation would be:

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Calcium (Ca2+)

c)

Chloride (Cl)

d)

Potassium (K+)

34.

This ion is part of coenzymes that act in the hydrolysis of ATP and high levels can cause diarrhea; it is:

a)

Zinc

b)

Iron

c)

Iodine

d)

Magnesium

35.

This element concentrates in the thyroid gland and is key to T3 and T4 synthesis:

a)

Iron

b)

Calcium

c)

Sodium

d)

Iodine

36.

The major extracellular anion is:

a)

Phosphate

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Protein

d)

Chloride

37.

This mineral accounts for most of the weight of the body's minerals:

a)

Iron

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Calcium

38.

This element is an essential component of hemoglobin:

a)

Calcium

b)

Zinc

c)

Magnesium

d)

Iron

39.

The cooling mechanism you feel when the wind blows across your skin is an example of:

a)

Radiation

b)

Conduction

c)

Evaporation

d)

Convection

40.

Glomerular capillaries differ from other capillary networks in the body because they are delivered from and drained into:

a)

A) Arteries and venules

b)

B) Veins and arteries

c)

C) Venules

d)

D) Arterioles

41.

Glucose is not normally found in the urine because it is:

a)

Too large to pass through the filtration membrane

b)

Secreted back into the blood by the collecting duct

c)

Broken down by renal enzymes

d)

Reabsorbed by the tubule cells

42.

Conditions such as diabetes mellitus and starvation are closely related to the presence of ketone bodies in the urine, a condition known as:

a)

Pyuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Proteinuria

d)

Ketonuria

43.

Approximately how many nephrons are there per kidney?

a)

100,000

b)

500,000

c)

2 million

d)

1 million

44.

The nephrons with longer loops of Henle that dive deep into the medulla are the:

a)

Cortical nephrons

b)

Medullary nephrons

c)

Intermediate nephrons

d)

Juxtamedullary nephrons

45.

The name of the tubes that convey urine from the kidney to the bladder is the:

a)

Urethra

b)

Renal calyces

c)

Collecting ducts

d)

Ureter

46.

What is the main ingredient that is reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the body?

a)

Glucose

b)

Sodium

c)

Urea

d)

Water

47.

The juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa cells together play a:

a)

Role in urine storage

b)

Role in producing ADH

c)

Primary role in glucose reabsorption

d)

Control role in regulating the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure

48.

Where does most of your kidney reabsorption take place?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

49.

What part of the loop of Henle is highly permeable to water?

a)

Ascending limb (thick segment)

b)

Ascending limb (thin segment)

c)

Apex of the loop

d)

Descending portion

50.

A blockage in this structure would cause the hydrostatic capsular pressure (pressure in Bowman's capsule) to increase:

a)

A) Afferent arteriole

b)

B) Efferent arteriole

c)

C) Glomerulus

d)

D) Collecting duct

51.

Potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions are the predominate electrolytes in which fluid compartment?

a)

Plasma

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Interstitial fluid

d)

Intracellular fluid

52.

Sodium balance is regulated primarily by the amount that is:

a)

Ingested in diet

b)

Lost through sweating

c)

Used in cellular metabolism

d)

Excreted in urine

53.

Which of the following factors enhance the release of ADH?

a)

Increase in extracellular fluid volume and decrease in osmolarity

b)

Decrease in blood pressure and increase in blood volume

c)

Consumption of alcohol

d)

Decrease in extracellular fluid volume and increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity

54.

The substance in body fluids that determines most of their chemical and physical reactions is the:

a)

Non-electrolyte

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Electrolyte

55.

What organs are the ultimate acid-base regulatory organs of the body?

a)

Lungs

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidneys

56.

The fluid that bathes the cells found in tissue is called:

a)

Plasma

b)

Lymph

c)

Intracellular fluid

d)

Interstitial fluid

57.

Under most circumstances, the greatest volume of water is lost in the:

a)

Feces

b)

Sweat

c)

Insensible loss (skin and lungs)

d)

Urine

58.

The most abundant cation in the interstitial fluid is:

a)

Potassium

b)

Calcium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Sodium

59.

The common cause of acid-base imbalance is:

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

60.

If you drink a large amount of water very quickly, dangerous cellular over-hydration can occur. This condition is called:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Edema

c)

Hypertonic dehydration

d)

Hypotonic hydration

61.

The structures that draw an ovulated oocyte into the female duct system are the:

a)

Ampulla

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Suspensory ligaments

d)

Cilia and the fimbriae

62.

The normal site of embryo implantation is the:

a)

Ovaries

b)

Peritoneal cavity

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Uterus

63.

Secondary sex characteristics are a result of:

a)

Genetic predisposition alone

b)

Pituitary gland releasing FSH and LH

c)

The activation of the SRY gene

d)

Male and female sex hormones increasing in amount in puberty

64.

Which structure produces the male sex hormones (testosterone)?

a)

Seminiferous tubules

b)

Rete testis

c)

Epididymis

d)

Interstitial cells

65.

The normal diploid number of human chromosomes is:

a)

23

b)

2

c)

92

d)

46

66.

What hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?

a)

FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)

b)

Inhibin

c)

GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone)

d)

LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

67.

Spermatozoa are to seminiferous tubules as oocytes are to:

a)

Corpus luteum

b)

Uterus

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Ovarian follicles

68.

The sex of a child is determined by:

a)

The sex chromosomes contained in the egg

b)

The mother's hormonal balance

c)

The timing of fertilization

d)

The sex chromosomes contained in the sperm

69.

The placenta is fully functional and providing all nutrients and waste removal by the end of what month in pregnancy?

a)

First month

b)

Second month

c)

Fourth month

d)

Third month

70.

The first 2-3 days after giving birth, the mammary glands produce a high-protein, low-fat product called:

a)

True milk

b)

Prolactin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Colostrum

71.

What hormone causes the "let-down reflex" (milk ejection) in the breasts?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Estrogen

c)

SFSH

d)

Oxytocin

72.

Most major body systems are operational in the fetus by 4-6 months, with the exception of the:

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Respiratory system

73.

The outer layer of the blastocyst, which later attaches to the uterine wall, is the:

a)

Inner cell mass

b)

Embryoblast

c)

Amnion

d)

Trophoblast

74.

Which of the following is a normal change that occurs to a baby's cardiovascular system immediately after birth?

a)

The foramen ovale remains open

b)

The ductus arteriosus expands

c)

Systemic blood pressure drops significantly

d)

Pulmonary vessels dilate as lungs expand, ductus venosus becomes obliterated as does the ductus arteriosus

75.

The umbilical vein functions to:

a)

Carry deoxygenated blood and waste from the fetus

b)

Connect the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery

c)

Become the round ligament of the liver after birth

d)

Carry oxygen and nutrients to the fetus

76.

The umbilical arteries function to:

a)

Transport oxygenated blood to the fetus

b)

Become the ligamentum venosum

c)

Form the fetal heart

d)

Transport waste product from the fetus to the mother

77.

The germ layer from which the skeletal muscles, heart, and skeleton are derived is the:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Trophoblast

d)

Mesoderm

78.

Which of the following cannot pass through the placental barriers?

a)

Gases O2 and CO2

b)

Alcohol

c)

Viruses

d)

Blood cells

79.

The initial stage of labor during which most of the cervix is stretched open is called the:

a)

Expulsion stage

b)

Placental stage

c)

Fetal stage

d)

Dilation stage

80.

A man who is homozygous for normal vision (ff) marries a woman who is heterozygous for farsightedness (Ff). Assuming farsightedness (F) is dominant, what is the predicted outcome for farsightedness in their offspring?

a)

25%

b)

75%

c)

100%

d)

50%

81.

A metabolic disorder called PKU is due to an autosomal recessive gene (p). Only homozygous recessive individuals (pp) exhibit this disorder. What percentage of offspring would exhibit PKU if the parents have the genotypes (Pp) and (pp)?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

50%

82.

In a population of rabbits, there are 32 spotted rabbits and 11 solid-haired rabbits (an approximate 3:1 ratio). If a genetic cross between two spotted rabbits produced these offspring, what is the probable genotype of the parents?

a)

{SS} for both

b)

{Ss} and {ss}

c)

{ss} for both

d)

{Ss} for both

83.

What is the probability of a couple having six boys in a row?

a)

1/2

b)

1/32

c)

1/128

d)

1/64