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NHA PCT S1 Test

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient’s blood pressure reads 88/54 mmHg. What should the PCT do FIRST?

a)

Document and leave the room

b)

Repeat the blood pressure manually

c)

Raise the patient’s legs and notify the nurse

d)

Ask the patient to walk around

2.

Which pulse site is used to check circulation during adult CPR?

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Femoral

d)

Apical

3.

A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute is documented as:

a)

Hyperpnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Eupnea

4.

Where is the apical pulse best auscultated?

a)

Sternal notch

b)

Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space

c)

Right midclavicular line, 4th intercostal space

d)

Below the clavicle

5.

Which factor is most likely to increase blood pressure?

a)

Rest

b)

Blood loss

c)

Anxiety

d)

Dehydration

6.

A pulse oximeter reading is 84%. What should the PCT do FIRST?

a)

Remove the probe

b)

Reposition the probe and recheck

c)

Call respiratory therapy

d)

Document the result

7.

Which thermometer is best for a patient breathing rapidly?

a)

Oral

b)

Tympanic

c)

Axillary

d)

Rectal

8.

A murmur is heard while taking an apical pulse. What should the PCT do?

a)

Diagnose the condition

b)

Ignore it

c)

Report it to the nurse

d)

Retake the pulse later

9.

Using a blood pressure cuff that is too small results in:

a)

Accurate readings

b)

Falsely low readings

c)

Falsely high readings

d)

No reading obtained

10.

Proper adult CPR compression depth is:

a)

1 inch

b)

2–2.4 inches

c)

3–4 inches

d)

½ inch

11.

An adult patient is choking and unable to speak. What should the PCT do?

a)

Begin chest compressions

b)

Perform abdominal thrusts

c)

Give back blows only

d)

Offer water

12.

The FIRST action when finding an unconscious adult is to:

a)

Start compressions

b)

Check pulse

c)

Activate emergency response

d)

Retrieve AED

13.

Initial care for a severe burn includes:

a)

Ice application

b)

Dry sterile dressing

c)

Butter or ointment

d)

Removing adhered clothing

14.

Which is best for treating hypoglycemia?

a)

Peanut butter

b)

Orange juice

c)

Water

d)

Carrots

15.

When using an AED, the PCT must:

a)

Stand clear during shock delivery

b)

Continue compressions during shock

c)

Hold the patient still

d)

Increase oxygen flow

16.

Proper positioning for a patient with a nosebleed is:

a)

Leaning backward

b)

Leaning forward

c)

Lying flat

d)

Supine with head elevated

17.

The FIRST step to control external bleeding is:

a)

Tourniquet

b)

Direct pressure

c)

Ice application

d)

Elevation

18.

A patient falls and complains of hip pain. What should the PCT do?

a)

Assist them to stand

b)

Apply heat

c)

Keep them still and notify the nurse

d)

Help them to bed

19.

Which is a sign of shock?

a)

Warm, dry skin

b)

Rapid pulse and cool clammy skin

c)

Slow pulse and flushed skin

d)

Increased urine output

20.

Best prevention of pressure injuries is:

a)

Increased fluid intake

b)

Repositioning every 2 hours

c)

Keeping bed flat

d)

Applying heat

21.

Red, warm, and swollen skin at an IV site suggests:

a)

Infection

b)

Dehydration

c)

Dry skin

d)

Allergy

22.

Which PPE should be removed FIRST after patient care?

a)

Gloves

b)

Gown

c)

Mask

d)

Goggles

23.

Clostridioides difficile requires which precautions?

a)

Droplet

b)

Airborne

c)

Contact with soap and water

d)

Standard

24.

Correct order for donning PPE is:

a)

Gloves → Gown → Mask → Goggles

b)

Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves

c)

Mask → Gloves → Gown → Goggles

d)

Goggles → Gloves → Mask → Gown

25.

The most effective infection prevention method is:

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Handwashing

c)

PPE use

d)

Sterile technique

26.

Which mask is required for TB precautions?

a)

Surgical

b)

N95 respirator

c)

Cloth

d)

Face shield

27.

Blood splashes into the PCT’s eyes. What should be done FIRST?

a)

Complete incident report

b)

Rinse eyes at eyewash station

c)

Notify supervisor

d)

Remove PPE

28.

HIPAA protects:

a)

Facility financial records

b)

Patient health information

c)

Employee files

d)

Visitor information

29.

Which is a sentinel event?

a)

Refused medication

b)

Wrong-site surgery

c)

Late meal delivery

d)

Room temperature complaint

30.

The FIRST step in the RACE fire protocol is:

a)

Rescue

b)

Alarm

c)

Contain

d)

Extinguish

31.

Proper documentation must be:

a)

Emotional and detailed

b)

Accurate and objective

c)

Completed weekly

d)

Based on memory

32.

A PCT is asked to perform a task outside their scope. The correct action is to:

a)

Perform it carefully

b)

Ask another PCT

c)

Notify the nurse

d)

Research the task

33.

A wandering baseline on an EKG is usually caused by:

a)

Pacemaker malfunction

b)

Loose electrodes

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

34.

A patient becomes dizzy during an EKG. What should the PCT do?

a)

Continue the test

b)

Stop the test and notify the nurse

c)

Ask patient to stand

d)

Increase paper speed

35.

The V4 electrode is placed at the:

a)

4th intercostal space, right sternal border

b)

Midaxillary line

c)

5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

d)

Left sternal border

36.

Uniform spiked artifact on an EKG is caused by:

a)

Muscle tremors

b)

Patient talking

c)

Electrical interference

d)

Loose electrodes

37.
The average oral Fahrenheit temperature is
a)
95.8 degrees
b)
101.4  degrees
c)
98.6 degrees
d)
103.6 degrees
38.
An axillary temperature is the least accurate method of taking a temperature
a)
True
b)
False
39.

What should be noted about a pulse?

a)

rate, volume, and sound

b)

rate, volume, and character

c)

rate, rhythm, and volume

d)

rate, rhythm, and character

40.
You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male nursing home resident who was recently admitted after having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R 32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits?
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Pulse
c)
Respirations
d)
Temperature
41.

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?

a)

100 to 160 beats per minute

b)

80 to 110 beats per minute

c)

65 to 80 beats per minute

d)

60 to 100 beats per minute

42.
A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST action the assistant can take?
a)
Tell the patient the blood pressure reading
b)
Report the reading to the patient’s nurse
c)
Wait 15 minutes and repeat the procedure
d)
Immediately repeat the procedure in the other arm
43.

Which of the following BPs would require notification of nurse?

a)

104/45

b)

100/60

c)

98/68

d)

122/60

44.
The terms, deep or shallow, are MOST usually associated with which vital sign measurement?
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Pulse
c)
Respirations
d)
Temperature
45.
Which patient is the BEST candidate for an oral temperature?
a)
1-year-old healthy infant
b)
16-year-old receiving his annual physical exam
c)
21-year-old patient on seizure precautions
d)
62-year-old comatose patient
46.

If the first picture is systolic and the second picture is diastolic pressure, what is the patient's blood pressure?

a)

132/100 mmHg

b)

126/100 mmHg

c)

100/126 mmHg

d)

100/132 mmHg

47.

lowest pressure against the blood vessels of the body. Measures between contractions

a)

diastolic pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

hypotension

d)

hypertension

48.

Highest pressure against blood vessels. Represented by first heat sound

a)

diastolic pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

hypotension

d)

hyperstension

49.
Which artery is most commonly used to measure blood pressure?
a)
Aorta 
b)
Brachial 
c)
Carotid
d)
Dorsal Pedis 
50.

What does the term "bradycardia" mean?

a)

Fast heart rate

b)

Slow heart rate

c)

Irregular heart rate

d)

Normal heart rate