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Fingerprint Collection / Serology

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which surface type is best described as hard and non-absorbent for latent print development?

a)

Wood, leather, and fabric

b)

Paper, cardboard, and cloth

c)

Glass, mirrors, and tiles

d)

Soil, sand, and gravel

2.

What treatment is commonly used to develop fingerprints on non-absorbent surfaces?

a)

Dusting with powders

b)

Soaking in solvents

c)

Fuming with iodine

d)

Staining with dyes

3.

Which method is usually preferred for porous surfaces like paper or cloth?

a)

Application of gray powder

b)

Application of black powder

c)

Exposure to chemical vapors

d)

Rinsing with distilled water

4.

Black fingerprint powder is primarily composed of which material and is best used on which surface color?

a)

Iron oxide, metallic surfaces

b)

Soot, dark colored surfaces

c)

Graphite, reflective surfaces

d)

Charcoal, light colored surfaces

5.

Gray fingerprint powder, made of aluminum dust, performs best on which surfaces?

a)

Darker backgrounds

b)

Lighter backgrounds

c)

Porous papers

d)

Wet materials

6.

A technician must choose a method for a latent print on a bathroom mirror. Which choice is most appropriate?

a)

Heat-treat the mirror

b)

Use ninhydrin reagent

c)

Soak with chemical etchant

d)

Apply black or gray powder

7.

You need to visualize a latent print on notebook paper without smearing the fibers. Which approach is most suitable?

a)

Brush with black powder

b)

Wipe with acetone swab

c)

Brush with gray powder

d)

Treat with chemical vapors

8.

Which method makes latent prints visible by heating iodine crystals to create iodine vapor that bonds with body oils?

a)

Cyanoacrylate fuming polymerizing residues

b)

Iodine fuming with vapor bonding to oils

c)

Physical developer reducing silver nitrate

d)

Ninhydrin reacting with amino acids

9.

What is a key limitation of iodine-fumed fingerprints unless they are fixed?

a)

They overdevelop on porous plastics

b)

They smear under infrared light

c)

They turn blue and mask ridges

d)

They are not permanent and will fade

10.

Ninhydrin primarily reacts with which fingerprint residue to form colored prints?

a)

Amino acids in sweat residues

b)

Sugars in environmental dust

c)

Lipids from body oils

d)

Salts deposited from skin

11.

What color are fingerprints typically after treatment with ninhydrin?

a)

Black to gray ridge deposits

b)

Purple to blue ridge impressions

c)

Brown to yellow ridge outlines

d)

Green to teal ridge contours

12.

Under typical conditions, how quickly do many ninhydrin-developed prints begin to appear after application?

a)

In ten to fifteen minutes

b)

Within one to two hours

c)

After three to five days

d)

Around eight to twelve hours

13.

Which step can speed up the development of ninhydrin fingerprints?

a)

Rinsing with dilute starch spray

b)

Cooling the substrate with ice

c)

Adding extra iodine crystals nearby

d)

Applying gentle heat to the surface

14.

Physical developer solutions are primarily based on which compound?

a)

Silver nitrate aqueous chemistry

b)

Iodine sublimation vapors

c)

Copper sulfate complexes

d)

Aluminum oxide suspensions

15.

On which type of evidence is physical developer especially useful?

a)

Hot nonporous plastic packaging

b)

Clean dry glass microscope slides

c)

Freshly painted metallic surfaces

d)

Items that have been wet at some point

16.

In a workflow on porous paper, when is physical developer commonly applied?

a)

Before any ninhydrin application

b)

After ninhydrin fails to reveal prints

c)

Only after cyanoacrylate fuming

d)

Simultaneously with iodine fumes

17.

Why should physical developer generally be used after ninhydrin in a sequence?

a)

It requires purple prints to guide placement

b)

It only reacts with prior blue-colored ridges

c)

It permanently fixes iodine-stained prints first

d)

It can wash away remaining proteins in residues

18.

Which surface type is best suited for superglue fuming when developing latent fingerprints?

a)

Granular surfaces like soil and sand

b)

Porous papers such as notebooks and books

c)

Non-porous materials like tape and metals

d)

Absorbent fabrics like cotton and wool

19.

In a standard superglue fuming procedure, how is the evidence typically treated to allow prints to develop?

a)

Exposed to open sunlight outdoors

b)

Sealed with fumes for several hours

c)

Air dried under a ceiling fan

d)

Rinsed briefly with warm water

20.

RUVIS is primarily used to visualize fingerprints by employing which part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

Ultraviolet wavelengths for latent prints

b)

Infrared radiation for thermal maps

c)

Visible red light for contrast boosting

d)

Microwave bands for deep penetration

21.

A lab must process fingerprints on a metal knife without adding powders or chemicals. Which method should be chosen first, and why?

a)

Ninhydrin, because it reacts with paper cellulose

b)

Dusting, because powders bond to porous fibers

c)

RUVIS, because it reveals prints using ultraviolet

d)

Iodine fuming, because it stains absorbent cloth

22.

A technician wants ridge detail quickly but only has access to a sealed chamber and cyanoacrylate. Which step will most directly influence development success?

a)

Maintaining enclosure of fumes for set hours

b)

Cooling the chamber with ice packs

c)

Shining green lasers through the chamber

d)

Wiping the surface before fuming gently

23.

Which statement best defines blood in the human body?

a)

A fluid mixture of cells, enzymes, proteins, salts

b)

A solution of only water and dissolved gases

c)

A suspension of only red and white cells

d)

A colloid made solely of inorganic minerals

24.

What is the fluid portion of blood called, and about what fraction of total blood does it represent?

a)

Cytosol, about thirty percent

b)

Lymph, about sixty-five percent

c)

Serum, about forty-five percent

d)

Plasma, about fifty-five percent

25.

Which set correctly lists formed elements found within the blood?

a)

Enzymes, hormones, antibodies

b)

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

c)

Neurons, myocytes, osteocytes

d)

Plasma, serum, electrolytes

26.

Erythrocytes are also known as which type of cell?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Stem precursor cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelet fragments

27.

What are antigens in the context of blood typing?

a)

Chemical structures on red cell surfaces

b)

Proteins dissolved in blood plasma

c)

Genetic codes inside cell nuclei

d)

Hormones released by immune tissues

28.

The presence of antigen A and antigen B on red blood cells indicates which blood type?

a)

Type O blood

b)

Type B blood

c)

Type A blood

d)

Type AB blood

29.

Which blood type results when neither antigen A nor antigen B is present on red blood cells?

a)

Type AB blood

b)

Type O blood

c)

Type A blood

d)

Type B blood

30.

Which statement about antibodies in blood is correct?

a)

They cause agglutination with incompatible blood

b)

They are identical to the cell surface antigens

c)

They only bind to oxygen like hemoglobin

d)

They form on platelets during clot contraction

31.

A person with antigen A on their red blood cells will typically have which antibodies in their plasma?

a)

Anti-B antibodies

b)

Anti-A antibodies

c)

Both Anti-A and Anti-B

d)

Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B

32.

Which pairing of antigens and antibodies is most consistent with safe transfusion compatibility reasoning?

a)

Type AB has no antibodies, accepts A, B, AB, O

b)

Type A has Anti-A antibodies, accepts only type A

c)

Type B lacks antigens, accepts A and B freely

d)

Type O has A antigens, donates only to type O

33.

Which statement best describes the purpose of a color test in forensic blood analysis?

a)

Confirms human origin with antibodies

b)

Screens if a stain is blood at a scene

c)

Measures blood type using agglutination

d)

Quantifies hemoglobin concentration in vitro

34.

What key observation indicates a positive Kastle-Meyer test when phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide are applied to a swabbed stain?

a)

Swab turns pink after a few seconds

b)

Swab emits blue glow in darkness

c)

Swab releases heat instantly

d)

Swab forms visible precipitate ring

35.

Field investigators commonly use Hemastix for what primary reason?

a)

Locating blood via chemiluminescence

b)

Species determination with antisera

c)

Definitive DNA profiling at the lab

d)

Rapid presumptive screening in the field

36.

Luminol and Bluestar share which important property for crime scene work?

a)

Dissolve dried blood for typing

b)

React with blood to produce light

c)

Only detect undiluted fresh blood

d)

Destroy DNA during bright glow

37.

A floor is mopped repeatedly, yet investigators still want to locate traces of blood without harming DNA recovery. Which reagent choice is most appropriate?

a)

Luminol or Bluestar application

b)

Kastle-Meyer phenolphthalein

c)

Benzidine color development

d)

Precipitin antisera tubes

38.

What question does the precipitin test directly answer during forensic analysis?

a)

What ABO blood type is present

b)

How long since the blood was shed

c)

Where on the body the blood came from

d)

Is the blood human or animal in origin

39.

In a precipitin assay, antiserum from an animal neutralizes human blood antigens and forms a visible precipitate band. What is the correct interpretation?

a)

False positive caused by chemiluminescence

b)

Negative result showing no antigen present

c)

Inconclusive due to peroxide interference

d)

Positive reaction indicating animal antibodies binding

40.

Which statement best defines forensic serology in crime investigations?

a)

Measuring angles of impact on hard surfaces

b)

Identifying fingerprints using chemical reagents

c)

Examination and testing of blood from crime scenes

d)

Testing liquids from any laboratory incident

41.

Bloodstain pattern analysis can help determine which aspect of a violent event?

a)

Exact time since the crime occurred

b)

Chemical composition of wall paint

c)

Direction the blood originated from

d)

Brand of weapon used in assault

42.

An examiner observes elongated blood drops with narrow tails on a floor. What inference is most justified?

a)

Blood fell vertically with no lateral motion

b)

Blood originated upward from a ceiling vent

c)

Blood drops traveled in a specific direction of motion

d)

Blood was diluted heavily with cleaning fluids

43.

Which task typically comes after identifying unknown blood samples during an investigation?

a)

Reconstructing the sequence of crime events

b)

Estimating ambient humidity at the scene

c)

Calculating terminal velocity of raindrops

d)

Cataloging regional blood donation records

44.

A series of cast-off arcs on a wall suggests multiple swings occurred. Which quantity can analysts estimate from such patterns?

a)

The minimum number of blows delivered

b)

The exact mass of the striking object

c)

The blood type without testing kits

d)

The victim’s precise pulse rate

45.

You are asked to locate where the assailant likely stood when striking. Which evidence feature should be analyzed first?

a)

Rate of coagulation under room temperature

b)

Convergence point of projected bloodstains

c)

Spread of DNA loci on gel electrophoresis

d)

Color saturation of each individual drop

46.

Which statement best defines passive blood drops in crime scene analysis?

a)

Drops formed solely by gravity without added force

b)

Drops created by high-velocity impacts like gunshots

c)

Drops generated by cast-off from swinging weapons

d)

Drops produced by arterial spurting under pressure

47.

What feature forms at the edges of a passive blood drop when energy pushes blood outward on impact?

a)

Satellite pools forming far away

b)

Spines projecting outward from the rim

c)

Cavitation voids inside the drop

d)

Crystalline ridges after drying

48.

How does increasing the height of fall most directly affect a passive blood drop?

a)

Creates more spines and increases drop size

b)

Removes spines and decreases drop size

c)

Prevents spreading and keeps diameter constant

d)

Produces circular drops with fewer edges

49.

A trail of elongated drops with small tails is found on a floor. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The source was moving and direction is shown

b)

The source was stationary for a long time

c)

The impact angle was exactly ninety degrees

d)

The drops were projected by high pressure

50.

Investigators compare two passive drops: one from 30 cm and one from 150 cm. Which outcome is most reasonable?

a)

The 30 cm drop exhibits the greatest number of spines

b)

The 150 cm drop is perfectly circular with no spines

c)

The 150 cm drop has more spines and larger size

d)

Both drops have identical size and edge features

51.

Identify the fingerprint pattern shown.

a)

loop

b)

arch

c)

whorl

52.
What pattern is this?
a)
Loop
b)
Arch
c)
Whorl
53.
Which type of fingerprint is shown in the image below?
a)
arch
b)
whorl
c)
loop
d)
none of these
54.
What pattern is this?
a)
Loop
b)
Arch
c)
Whorl
55.
What pattern is this?
a)
Tented Arch
b)
Arch
c)
Loop
d)
Whorl
56.
What type of fingerprint is shown in the diagram below?
a)
Plain arch
b)
Plain whorl
c)
Central Pocket whorl
d)
Double Loop whorl
57.
The image was taken from the right hand.  What type of loop is it?
a)
Radial
b)
Ulnar
58.
Minutiae type?
a)
Short ridge
b)
Bifurcation
c)
Hook
d)
Delta
59.
Name this minutiae type
a)
Bridge 
b)
Island (dot) 
c)
Bifurcation (fork) 
d)
Pore
60.
Name this minutiae type
a)
Enclosure
b)
Island 
c)
Bifurcation (fork) 
d)
Ridge ending (pick me! pick me! you know you want to)
61.
Left hand
a)
Radial loop
b)
Ulnar loop
c)
Plain whorl
d)
Central pocket whorl
62.

The liquid portion of blood is known as plasma.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Cast off bloodstains occur when blood patterns are produced from the use of a blood instrument.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The type of blood which contains B antigens is Type A.

a)

False

b)

True

65.

The main difference between impact spatter due to blunt force and impact spatter due to gunshot is the

a)

size of the bloodstains

b)

angle of impact

c)

evidence of foreign material

d)

bubbles in the bloodstain

66.

Which letter in the diagram is the spine?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

67.

The common point on a two dimensional surface, over which the directionality of several blood drops can be retraced is called

a)

area or point of convergence

b)

source site

c)

impact site

d)

origin

68.

Mr. Rideb went to college at ______________

a)

Texas A&M University - College Park

b)

Texas A&M University - Commerce

c)

Texas A&M University - Corpus Christi

d)

Texas A&M University - College Station

69.

Hair is what type of evidence?

a)

Class

b)

Individual

c)

unknown

d)

all of the above

70.

DNA is never present on hair

a)

False

b)

True

71.

Is it possible to determine what body part hair evidence came from?

a)

yes

b)

no

72.

Can we tell if a hair was forcibly removed?

a)

Yes

b)

no

73.

Is it possible to determine the species of hair evidence without DNA?

a)

Yes

b)

no

74.

What are the tree stages of hair growth in order from start to end?

a)

Anagen, telogen, and catagen

b)

anagen, catagen, and telogen

c)

telogen, catagen, and anagen

d)

catagen, telogen, and anagen

75.

Which number in the diagram represents the cuticle?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B

d)

F

76.

Which number in the diagram represents the medulla?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

D

77.

Which number in the diagram represents the cortex?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

78.

What medullary pattern is represented in the diagram?

a)

Fragmented

b)

interupted

c)

continuous

d)

not visible

79.

What are the three cuticle patterns?

a)

Coronal, spinous, imbricate

b)

flowery, circular, triangular

c)

square, round, diamond

80.

What types of DNA can be found on the hair?

a)

Mitochondrial

b)

nuclear

c)

Both mitochondrial and nuclear

d)

none