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WorksheetsDH101 Preclinic Midterm Study Guide — Extracted Questions
Total questions: 82
Worksheet time: 41mins
Barriers to effective health communication. Which choice best represents a barrier to effective health communication in a clinical setting?
Language differences between clinician and patient
Active listening by the clinician
Empathy expressed during the appointment
Clear written post‑appointment instructions
Features of the patient record. Which action is required for proper documentation?
Date all records
Use pencil to allow corrections
Store records on any personal device
Leave signature fields blank
Features of the patient record. Which statement aligns with maintaining privacy and security for electronic patient records?
Store electronic records on a secure server with password‑protected computer access
Allow open access on shared office computers for convenience
Email full records to patients without encryption
Keep security minimal to speed up charting
Features of the patient record. What is the appropriate writing method for entries in the patient record?
Write in ink
Write in pencil
Type only; handwritten notes are prohibited
Use erasable pen
Features of the patient record. Which measure supports identifying premedication alerts in the chart?
Use coded tab systems for premedication alerts
Rely on memory without chart indicators
Place alerts only in appointment notes
Avoid using any color‑coding or tabs
Features of the patient record. How often should the patient record form be evaluated for accuracy and completeness?
Periodically
Only when an error is discovered
Never, once initially created
Only at the end of the year
SOAP notes. Which section records age, gender, medications, and allergies?
S — subjective
O — objective
A — assessment
P — plans
SOAP notes. Which section includes vital signs and the periodontal examination findings (bleeding and soft tissue condition)?
O — objective
S — subjective
A — assessment
P — plans
SOAP notes. Which section documents the diagnosis such as caries risk and periodontal stage and grade?
A — assessment
S — subjective
O — objective
P — plans
SOAP notes. Which section outlines care or treatment provided, including local anesthesia and oral hygiene instructions?
P — plans
S — subjective
O — objective
A — assessment
Health history updates. According to Ch. 11, when should a health history be updated?
At each and every appointment
Only when the patient reports a change
At the first appointment of the year
At the provider’s discretion
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA I?
A normal healthy patient without apparent systemic disease
A patient with mild systemic disease that is well controlled and without functional limitations
A patient with moderate to severe systemic disease causing significant functional limitations
A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA II?
A patient with mild systemic disease without functional limitations that is well controlled
A normal healthy patient
A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or without care
A declared brain‑dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA III?
A patient with one or more moderate to severe systemic diseases with significant functional limitations such as stroke or heart attack (> 3 months)
A normal healthy patient
A patient with mild systemic disease that is well controlled
A declared brain‑dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA IV?
A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life, such as recent (< 3 months) stroke or heart attack, congestive heart failure, or advanced cancer
A patient with mild systemic disease without functional limitations
A normal healthy patient
A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA V?
A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or without care (e.g., end‑stage liver disease, respiratory failure)
A normal healthy patient
A patient with mild systemic disease that is well controlled
A declared brain‑dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
ASA physical status. Which description matches ASA VI?
A declared brain‑dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
A normal healthy patient
A patient with mild systemic disease that is well controlled
A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours
Best way to obtain a complete medical history (Ch. 11). What method is recommended?
Use a questionnaire and conduct an interview
Rely on the patient’s verbal report only
Review previous charts without direct questioning
Wait until treatment begins to ask questions
Written health history updates. How often must the written health history be updated?
Annually
Every five years
Only when a major surgery occurs
Never if the original form is complete
Antibiotic prophylaxis protocol (Ch. 11). For selected patients at risk for infective endocarditis, when should antibiotic premedication be taken relative to oral tissue manipulation that could create bacteremia?
Before the procedure
After the procedure
Only if bleeding occurs
Only if pain is anticipated
Antibiotic prophylaxis protocol (Ch. 11). Which patients are identified for prophylactic antibiotics in accordance with American Heart Association recommendations?
High‑risk patients such as those with prosthetic heart valves, history of infective endocarditis, heart transplant, and some congenital heart conditions
All patients receiving local anesthesia
Patients with no cardiac history but mild allergies
Only pediatric patients with braces
Antibiotic prophylaxis protocol (Ch. 11). What is the usual timing for antibiotic premedication before the appointment?
1 hour before the appointment
Immediately after the appointment
The night before the appointment
Only during the appointment
Antibiotic prophylaxis protocol (Ch. 11). If a patient is currently taking an antibiotic, what consideration may be necessary for prophylaxis coverage?
Use a different class of antibiotic for prophylaxis
Use the same antibiotic regardless of class
Avoid prophylaxis entirely
Delay treatment for one month
Procedure considerations for the cardiovascular patient when prophylaxis is not recommended (Wilkins Ch. 11, Table 11‑2). Which dental procedure does not require prophylactic antibiotics?
Taking dental radiographs
Periodontal surgery in infected tissue
Tooth extraction in the presence of acute infection
Subgingival instrumentation causing bleeding
Procedure considerations for the cardiovascular patient when prophylaxis is not recommended (Wilkins Ch. 11, Table 11‑2). Which orthodontic procedure listed does not require prophylaxis?
Adjustment of orthodontic appliances
Incision and drainage of a dental abscess
Extraction of an infected tooth
Placement of a subgingival implant
Procedure considerations for the cardiovascular patient when prophylaxis is not recommended (Wilkins Ch. 11, Table 11‑2). Which action involving removable appliances does not require prophylaxis?
Placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances
Subgingival scaling in periodontitis sites
Placement of a permanent crown under gingival retraction
Endodontic therapy in the presence of apical abscess
Procedure considerations for the cardiovascular patient when prophylaxis is not recommended (Wilkins Ch. 11, Table 11‑2). Which situation from normal development does not require prophylaxis?
Shedding of primary teeth
Extraction of infected primary teeth
Treatment of cellulitis from primary tooth abscess
Surgical exposure of an unerupted tooth
Procedure considerations for the cardiovascular patient when prophylaxis is not recommended (Wilkins Ch. 11, Table 11‑2). Which event involving minor trauma does not require prophylaxis?
Bleeding from trauma to the lips or oral mucosa
Suturing of infected traumatic lacerations
Management of abscess resulting from trauma
Debridement of infected traumatic wounds
Blood pressure reading. Which number represents the lowest value in a standard blood pressure reading?
Diastolic
Systolic
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure
Normal adult vital sign ranges (Ch. 12). Which pulse range is considered normal for adults?
60–100 beats per minute
40–60 beats per minute
100–140 beats per minute
20–40 beats per minute
Normal adult vital sign ranges (Ch. 12). Which respiration range is considered normal for adults?
12–20 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute
20–30 breaths per minute
24–36 breaths per minute
Normal adult blood pressure ranges (Ch. 12). Which option best represents a normal adult blood pressure range?
90 – <120 systolic and 60 – <80 diastolic
120 – 140 systolic and 80 – 95 diastolic
80 – 90 systolic and 50 – 60 diastolic
140 – 160 systolic and 90 – 100 diastolic
From Ch. 12, which factors increase blood pressure? Select all that apply.
Exercising
Eating
Stimulants
Emotional disturbance
Sleeping
According to Ch. 12, hyperthermia is defined as a body temperature
over 104 F
below 96 F
over 99.5 F
exactly 98.6 F
According to Ch. 12, pyrexia is defined as a body temperature
over 99.5 F
over 104 F
below 96 F
exactly 98.6 F
According to Ch. 12, hypothermia is defined as a body temperature
below 96 F
over 104 F
over 99.5 F
exactly 98.6 F
From Ch. 12, what device is used to measure blood pressure?
Sphygmomanometer
Stethoscope
Thermometer
Pulse oximeter
When vital signs are not within normal limits in the dental office, what should you do first?
Wait a few minutes and repeat the vital signs
Proceed with treatment as planned
Call emergency services immediately without reassessing
Ignore the findings and continue
From Ch. 12, where should you feel for the pulse in adults in the dental office?
Radial pulse
Carotid pulse
Femoral pulse
Temporal pulse
Define tachypnea from Ch. 12.
Accelerated respirations with rates over 28
Respirations with rates under 12
Heart rate over 100 beats per minute
Blood pressure over 140/90
Define standard precautions as used for infection control.
A method in which all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious
Isolating only patients with confirmed infections
Sterilizing instruments once daily regardless of use
Wearing a face shield only during surgical procedures
Define herpetic whitlow.
Herpes simplex infection of the fingers resulting from virus entering minor skin abrasions around the fingernail
Fungal infection of the toenails
Bacterial paronychia of the fingernail
Eczema of the hands
Define varicella zoster (type 3) known as varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
Primary infection causes chicken pox and VZV reactivation causes herpes zoster infection (shingles)
Primary infection causes measles and reactivation causes mumps
Primary infection causes rubella and reactivation causes roseola
Primary infection causes cold sores and reactivation causes genital herpes
Epstein Barr is another name for
Mononucleosis
Hepatitis B
Influenza
Rubella
Define tactile sensitivity.
The clinician's ability to feel things through the instrument shank and handle
The patient's ability to feel temperature changes on the skin
The ability to see fine detail during instrumentation
The hardness of the instrument tip
For medical consultation to move forward with care (Ch. 11), which forms of contact are appropriate? Select all that apply.
Telephone or personal contact
Written request
Referrals
Texting the patient
Posting a social media message
After an immediate consultation for urgent treatment, what follow-up is required?
Follow-up in writing
No follow-up is needed
Provide only a verbal note to staff
Schedule an unrelated appointment
What should a written request for medical consultation include?
Be specific about what you need the physician to approve
A general greeting without details
Insurance authorization only
The patient's mailing address
When are referrals used in medical consultation?
For medical examination when signs of a possible disease condition are present but undiagnosed
To avoid completing documentation
When treatment is entirely elective
When a patient requests a second opinion without clinical concern
Regarding instrument processing, what does ultrasonic processing do and not do?
Removes debris via cavitation but does not sterilize instruments
Sterilizes instruments completely without further steps
Disinfects and sterilizes instruments in one combined cycle
Sharpens instruments during cleaning
Who should wear protective eyewear during dental procedures?
Only the clinician
Only the patient
All dental personnel and the patient
Only assistants
At the beginning of the day, how long should the dental unit water lines be flushed?
30 seconds
1 minute
2 minutes
5 minutes
Which are ways cross contamination can occur? Select all that apply.
Person to person
Person to inanimate object
Inanimate object to person
Airborne transmission only
What is the correct order for donning personal protective equipment?
Gloves, mask, goggles, gown
Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
An autoclave achieves sterilization by which method?
Dry heat
Steam under pressure
Ethylene oxide gas
Ultraviolet light
The majority of HIV cases are transmitted primarily through which route?
Casual contact
Blood transfusion only
Sexual contact
Airborne droplets
When should treatment be postponed for patients with oral herpes?
Any time the patient reports a history of herpes
When oral signs and symptoms are present and contact with weeping lesions could result in cross-contamination
Only when fever blisters have fully crusted
Never postpone treatment
What is the purpose of a preprocedural rinse?
To moisten the oral mucosa
To lower the bacterial count in the oral cavity, especially when using aerosols
To freshen breath only
To desensitize teeth
Utility gloves are used for which procedure?
Polishing teeth
Clean-up of the dental operatory and processing contaminated dental instruments
Giving local anesthesia
Taking radiographs
When should face masks be changed? Select all that apply.
For each patient
When the mask becomes wet
At least every hour
Only at the end of the day
Which statement describes high-level disinfectants?
They inactivate spores and all forms of bacteria, fungi, and viruses
They inactivate microorganisms but do not destroy spores
They remove visible debris only
They are identical to sterilants
Which statement describes intermediate-level disinfectants?
They destroy bacterial spores
They inactivate all forms of microorganisms but do not destroy spores
They are used only for hand hygiene
They function as sterilization methods
Which method of sterilization takes the longest amount of time?
Autoclave
Dry heat oven
Chemical vapor
Cold sterile soaking
Which type of hepatitis occurs only when hepatitis B is also present?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
How much pressure is used with an assessment stroke?
Light
Moderate
Heavy
Variable depending on tooth
What is the visual distance range between the clinician and the patient’s oral cavity?
8 – 12 inches
12 – 15 inches
15 – 22 inches
24 – 30 inches
Operator neutral positioning includes maintaining neutral alignment of which body regions? Select all that apply.
Hips
Back
Legs and feet
Arms, wrist, and neck
For wrist position during instrumentation, which is recommended?
Neutral wrist position
Wrist flexed up to 20∘
Wrist extended up to 20∘
Ulnar deviation up to 20∘
Patient head positioning should be determined based on which factor?
Clinician preference only
Equipment location only
The specific area in the mouth being treated
Patient height
What are the clock positions for a right‑handed clinician during treatment?
4–12 o’clock
6–9 o’clock
8–12 o’clock
1–3 o’clock
What are the clock positions for a left‑handed clinician during treatment?
8–12 o’clock
4–12 o’clock
2–6 o’clock
10–2 o’clock
A sickle scaler with a straight, simple shank is designed for use in which area?
Anterior teeth
Posterior teeth
Universal on all teeth
Subgingival root surfaces only
What is another name for the lower shank of an instrument?
Functional shank
Terminal shank
Primary shank
Secondary shank
In the modified pen grasp, what do the thumb and index fingers do?
Establish a finger rest
Hold the instrument opposite each other on the handle
Guide movement by contacting the shank
Provide side‑to‑side contact for stability
In the modified pen grasp, where is the inner corner of the middle finger placed?
On the handle near the tip
On the upper portion of the shank to guide movement and optimize lateral pressure
On the lower shank to act as a fulcrum
Away from the instrument
Which finger establishes the finger rest (fulcrum) in the modified pen grasp?
Thumb
Index finger
Middle finger
Ring finger
Side‑to‑side contact of the index, middle, and ring fingers in the modified pen grasp allows for what?
Greater stability, strength, and control during instrumentation
Reduced tactile sensitivity
Increased wrist flexion
Less control of lateral pressure
Which stroke is used with explorers and removal instruments to assess tooth surfaces and detect irregularities, characterized by light grasp, light pressure, and movements in vertical, horizontal, and oblique directions?
Exploratory/Assessment stroke
Walking stroke
Scaling/Calculus removal stroke
Root debridement stroke
Which stroke is performed with a probe using light grasp, light pressure, and vertical movements?
Exploratory/Assessment stroke
Walking stroke
Scaling/Calculus removal stroke
Root debridement stroke
Which stroke is short, well‑controlled, a firm pull stroke with a firm grasp and moderate‑to‑heavy pressure, moving the blade in vertical, horizontal, and oblique directions while keeping the instrument carefully adapted to the tooth?
Exploratory/Assessment stroke
Walking stroke
Scaling/Calculus removal stroke
Root debridement stroke
Which stroke is used to remove soft deposits from tooth surfaces with minimal deposit, employing light to moderate pressure in vertical, horizontal, and oblique directions?
Exploratory/Assessment stroke
Walking stroke
Scaling/Calculus removal stroke
Root debridement stroke
Select the uses for the dental mouth mirror.
Retract
Indirect vision
Indirect illumination
Transillumination
