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Environmental Science Mid-year Practice

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all the following causes of degradation to a wetland.

a)

Agriculture

b)

Industrial use

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Soil runoff

2.

Which president enacted the Farm Bill?

a)

Andrew Jackson

b)

Harry S. Truman

c)

Herbert Hoover

d)

Franklin D. Roosevelt

3.

Which year was the Duck Stamp Act enacted?

a)

1932

b)

1933

c)

1934

d)

1935

4.

Wetlands are NOT critical for which of the following?

a)

Maintaining biodiversity

b)

Protecting freshwater quality

c)

Developing agricultural land

d)

Providing groundwater recharge

5.

Hurricanes do less financial damage, flood further inland and displace more people when coasts are heavily developed.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Wetlands are economically important due to which of the following factors?

a)

Wetlands cover a substantial land area which can be developed into a profit

b)

Wetlands provide both commercial and recreational fisheries

c)

Wetlands offer cropland significantly fertile soil

d)

Wetlands host a wide range of wildlife biodiversity

7.

Levees are most commonly used for which of the following?

a)

Stopping water from naturally changing course

b)

Restricting water flow

c)

Draining wetlands

d)

Filtering sediment from water

8.

A wetland with woody plants, saturated/slow moving water and a lack of oxygen in the soil can be described as a __________.

a)

Tidal Marsh

b)

Bog

c)

Swamp

d)

Fen

9.

Select all the factors in which a wetland is classified.

a)

Hydrological regime

b)

Landscape position

c)

pH level

d)

Vegetation cover

10.

What act was created in 1933 by franklin D Roosevelt

a)

The national park service act

b)

Yellowstone national park protection act

c)

National Economic Restoration Plan

d)

Forest service

11.

which of the following produce 40% of the earths oxygen

a)

Rainforests

b)

Mountain forests

c)

Kelp Forest

d)

Scary Haunted forest

12.

Refers to the contamination of air, water or soil by substances which are harmful to wildlife

a)

Pollution

b)

Farming

c)

City Life

d)

Hunting

13.

Presence of hair and mammary glands are a diagnostic feature of which class of kingdom animalia?

a)

Mammalia

b)

Chiroptera

c)

Carnivora

d)

Aves

14.

Which family of class Aves is identified by a distinct yellow ring around eyes and beak and has yellow legs?

a)

Falconiformes

b)

Galliformes

c)

Accipitriformes

d)

Passeriformes

15.

Which family is most closely related to giraffes?

a)

Antilocapridae

b)

Phasianidae

c)

Cervidae

d)

Bovidae

16.

Game animals bring in money to fund wildlife conservation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

Match the following species to their specific grouping of game animals. Mourning Dove

a)

Migratory Game

b)

Small Game

c)

Big Game

18.

If apex predators are a game species they are considered big game.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

Which of the following is the only species of marsupials in North America?

a)

Virginia opossum

b)

Cotton Rat

c)

Moose

d)

American Badger

20.

Which of the following is the largest order of class Aves?

a)

Passeriformes

b)

Falconiformes

c)

Galliformes

d)

Chiroptera

21.

Which of the following orders is classified by arm, hand and extra long finger bones covered with a membrane which resembles a wing?

a)

Chiroptera

b)

Aves

c)

Carnivora

d)

Artiodactyla

22.

Moose antlers have one main beam with additional points coming from the beam.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

23.

Match the following family to their description. Cervidae

a)

presence of antlers

b)

presence of retractable claws

c)

presence of body armor

d)

presence of horns

24.

Which of the following species has the diagnostic characteristic of modified feathers which resemble a beard?

a)

Wild Turkey

b)

Mourning Dove

c)

White-Winged Dove

d)

Northern Bobwhite

25.

Order chiroptera is defined as species with armored bodies.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

26.

Which order is classified by their long, broad wings for soaring?

a)

Accipitriformes

b)

Piciformes

c)

Passeriformes

d)

Falconiformes

27.

Match the following species to their specific grouping of game animals. White-Tailed Deer

a)

Big Game

b)

Small Game

c)

Migratory Game

d)

Upland Game

28.

Woodpeckers belong to the family Piccidae.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

29.

Select the correct pair to complete the statement: ____ deer have a white underside of the tail used as a flag when startled, while ____ deer have a mostly dark tail with a black tip.

a)

White-tailed, Mule

b)

Mule, White-tailed

30.

Which of the following families includes species that have antlers present?

a)

Cervidae

b)

Felidae

c)

Canidae

d)

Bovidae

31.

Presence of feathers and physical adaptations for flight are diagnostic features of which animal class?

a)

Aves

b)

Mammalia

c)

Carnivora

d)

Chiroptera

32.

Which of the following families includes species that have horns present?

a)

Bovidae

b)

Felidae

c)

Cervidae

d)

Canidae

33.

Which of the following is the most specific level of taxonomy?

a)

Species

b)

Class

c)

Family

d)

Genus

34.

Upland game birds are migratory.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

35.

Game animals are classified by state and federal regulations.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

The Eastern spotted skunk belongs to the family Mephitidae.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

Which of the following species has modified feathers that resemble a beard as a diagnostic characteristic?

a)

Wild Turkey

b)

Blue Jay

c)

Northern Bobwhite

d)

Peregrine Falcon

38.

White-tailed deer are the most abundant deer species in North America.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Match the following species to its specific grouping of game animals: Turkey.

a)

Upland Game

b)

Small Game

c)

Big Game

d)

Migratory Game

40.

Match the following family to its description: Dasypodidae.

a)

Presence of body armor

b)

Presence of antlers

c)

Presence of retractable claws

d)

Presence of horns

41.

The majority of wildlife species are classified as non-game.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

All species in class Mammalia are classified as game animals.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

43.

Furbearers are species harvested for their pelts.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Match the following species to its specific grouping of game animals: Cottontail Rabbit.

a)

Small Game

b)

Migratory Game

c)

Big Game

d)

Upland Game

45.

Bobcats belong to the family Canidae.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

46.

Which of the following families includes species that have retractable claws?

a)

Felidae

b)

Bovidae

c)

Cervidae

d)

Canidae

47.

Elk belong to the family Bovidae.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

48.

Match the following family to its description: Felidae.

a)

Presence of retractable claws

b)

Presence of antlers

c)

Presence of body armor

d)

Presence of horns

49.

Many species in class Aves are protected under the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

50.

Which of the following families does NOT belong to order Carnivora?

a)

Icteridae

b)

Canidae

c)

Mephitidae

d)

Felidae

51.

Match the following family to its description: Bovidae.

a)

Presence of horns

b)

Presence of antlers

c)

Presence of body armor

d)

Presence of retractable claws

52.

The largest estuary in the United States is the

a)

Chesapeake Bay

b)

Mississippi River

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Albemarle Sound

53.

Biological productivity includes which of the following?

a)

Greater volume of food production for large food webs

b)

Physical trapping

c)

Stopover sites

d)

In-lieu wetland mitigation

54.

The hooded warbler is a ________ wetland species.

a)

Temporary

b)

Seasonal

c)

Permanent

55.

Which of the following allows organizations like farmers to be paid to reduce the amount of pollution they discharge?

a)

Water quality trading

b)

Wetland-mitigation banking

c)

Clean Water Act

d)

Farm Bill

56.

How do wetlands benefit (help) wildlife animals?

a)

Keeps predators together

b)

Makes it easier for them to find water

c)

Provides a nursery for young animals

57.

Cattails are part of which type of wetland?

a)

Bog

b)

Swamp

c)

Marsh

58.

Recreational activities generate how much money per year?

a)

4040 Billion

b)

1313 Billion

c)

3838 Billion

d)

116116 Billion

59.

A wetland acts as a _____ to help control flooding.

a)

dam

b)

water bucket

c)

sponge

d)

wall

60.

What animals are used to filter sediment from the water in a wetland?

a)

oysters and clams

b)

fish and birds

c)

alligators and crocodiles

d)

turtles and lobsters

61.

Riparian wetlands are particularly vulnerable to destruction, but serve a vital role in which of the following?

a)

floodplain protection

b)

aesthetic viewsheds

c)

nutrient cycling

d)

stopover sites

62.

Which of the following was enacted to restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the nation’s waters?

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Wetland‑mitigation Banking

c)

Water Quality Trading

d)

Safe Drinking Water Act

63.

What are wetlands?

a)

areas where water covers the soil or the ground is very moist

b)

dry areas that get very little rain

c)

grassy areas that are great for sports

d)

places that have no value to the environment

64.

High primary productivity in wetlands means they are referred to as this.

a)

food factory

b)

nutrient sink

c)

biodiversity desert

d)

water scrubber

65.

Pitcher plants and Venus flytraps grow in this type of wetland.

a)

bog

b)

marsh

c)

swamp

66.

Which wetland type has dominant plants that are scrub, shrubs, and small trees?

a)

scrub‑shrub wetlands

b)

emergent wetlands

c)

bogs

d)

riparian wetlands

67.

To be considered a wetland, the area must be covered in shallow water all year.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

68.

Which wetland type has plants rooted in soil but emerging from the water (grasses)?

a)

emergent wetlands

b)

scrub‑shrub wetlands

c)

bogs

d)

salt marshes

69.

What is the job of the plants in a wetland?

a)

to filter nutrients and pollutants from the water

b)

to look beautiful

c)

to attract birds to land

d)

to keep people from building homes on top of wetlands

70.

Which wetland function makes having and raising young easy?

a)

spawning/mating grounds

b)

erosion control

c)

carbon sequestration

d)

recreation

71.

What percent of Earth is covered in water?

a)

75%75\%

b)

50%50\%

c)

90%90\%

d)

25%25\%

72.

Humans have negatively affected wetlands by...

a)

adding pollution

b)

filling them in for farmland

c)

building new neighborhoods

d)

all of the above

73.

Which of the following is NOT a wetland?

a)

substrate

b)

bog

c)

fen

d)

swamp

74.

Wetlands are important because

a)

they help clean waste and pollution from freshwater

b)

they provide habitat for a variety of animals

c)

they protect cities from floods

d)

all of the above

75.

How are wetlands beneficial to migrating birds?

a)

wetlands provide nesting and resting spots

b)

wetlands keep their wings wet

c)

wetlands are a road map for where they should fly

d)

birds like to eat the pollution that the wetland filters out

76.

What color represents the Government/Municipal (Landowner) on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

purple

b)

brown

c)

orange

d)

green

77.

An area where freshwater and ocean water mix is called

a)

estuary

b)

wetland

c)

river

d)

ecosystem

78.

Which wetland function involves carbon‑based nutrients, nitrogen, and phosphorus changing forms efficiently?

a)

cycle nutrients

b)

prevent erosion

c)

filter pollutants

d)

store floodwater

79.

Which term matches this definition: land covered in water for any part of the year, with unique soil and plants and animals adapted to that environment?

a)

wetland

b)

estuary

c)

watershed

d)

floodplain

80.

An area on land where all excess water runs to a specific body of water (formally known as a drainage basin) is called what?

a)

Watershed

b)

Tributary

c)

Estuary

d)

Aquifer

81.

This type of wetland has tall grasses. Identify it based on the photo of a grassy wetland with wading birds.

a)

Marsh

b)

Swamp

c)

Bog

d)

Rainforest

82.

Wetlands recharge groundwater. What does that mean?

a)

Wetlands gather water pollution into one place

b)

Wetlands keep water above ground

c)

Wetlands give water a positive charge

d)

Wetlands allow more water to stay in the ground

83.

Dominant plants in this wetland are plants rooted in soil but emerging from the water (grasses). Which wetland is described?

a)

Marsh

b)

Swamp

c)

Bog

d)

Rainforest

84.

Smallest to largest tributaries: choose the correct sequence.

a)

Rill → brook → creek → stream → river → bay → ocean

b)

Rill → creek → brook → stream → river → bay → ocean

c)

Stream → rill → brook → creek → river → bay → ocean

d)

Rill → brook → stream → creek → river → ocean → bay

85.

The term for the high elevation that separates watersheds is what?

a)

Divide

b)

Delta

c)

Floodplain

d)

Estuary

86.

Mouth: End of a river where it meets a larger body of water. Which term matches this definition?

a)

Mouth

b)

Source

c)

Delta

d)

Estuary

87.

In wetlands, soil is typically described as what?

a)

Saturated

b)

Arid

c)

Rocky

d)

Frozen

88.

What type of wetland contains trees and shrubs? Identify it based on the photo of standing water among tree trunks.

a)

Swamp

b)

Marsh

c)

Bog

d)

Fen

89.

Which term refers to wetlands because they absorb runoff and slowly release it back into the environment?

a)

Buffer zone

b)

Headwaters

c)

Alluvial fan

d)

Aquifer

90.

What color is the Recreation – Hunter on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

Navy blue

b)

Orange

c)

Green

d)

Teal

91.

One function of wetlands is to cycle nutrients so that carbon-based nutrients, nitrogen, and phosphorus change forms efficiently. Which option correctly states this function?

a)

Cycle nutrients

b)

Increase water salinity

c)

Strip all nutrients from water

d)

Eliminate habitats

92.

Start, beginning, or headwaters of a river or a stream is called what?

a)

Source

b)

Mouth

c)

Delta

d)

Divide

93.

A smaller body of water that feeds into a larger body of water is called what?

a)

Tributary

b)

Estuary

c)

Delta

d)

Channel bar

94.

Which of the following is a function of wetlands?

a)

Filter pollutants

b)

Increase shoreline erosion

c)

Remove all wildlife habitats

d)

Convert freshwater to saltwater

95.

A wetland with trees as the dominant plant type is called what?

a)

Swamp

b)

Marsh

c)

Bog

d)

Prairie pothole

96.

Land that is covered in water for any part of the year and contains unique soil and organisms specifically adapted to that environment is called what?

a)

Wetland

b)

Desert

c)

Tundra

d)

Prairie

97.

What percent of water on Earth is saltwater, which cannot be used by most living organisms?

a)

97%

b)

3%

c)

50%

d)

75%

98.

The end of a river where it meets a larger body of water is called what?

a)

Mouth

b)

Source

c)

Interfluve

d)

Oxbow

99.

What color is the Recreation – Angler (Fishing) on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

Orange

b)

Green

c)

Navy blue

d)

Purple

100.

What color represents Agriculture on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

Brown

b)

Green

c)

Purple

d)

Orange

101.

What color represents Recreation – Experience & View on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

Green

b)

Orange

c)

Navy Blue

d)

Brown

102.

What color represents the Non User on the Wetlands Human Stakeholder image?

a)

Teal

b)

Green

c)

Purple

d)

Navy Blue

103.

Which of the following best describes respiration?

a)

Intake of oxygen to convert glucose to energy

b)

Release of water vapor

c)

Absorption of light by chlorophyll

d)

Splitting of atmospheric nitrogen atoms to bond with oxygen

104.

What is the largest ecological level?

a)

Biosphere

b)

Population

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Organism

105.

Energy flow begins with which of the following?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Oxygen cycle

c)

Decomposers

d)

Plants

106.

Which of the following interactions are positive?

a)

Commensalism, Mutualism

b)

Competition and Predation

c)

Mutualism and Predation

d)

Commensalism and Parasitism

107.

Which of these is a producer?

a)

Grass

b)

Cow

c)

Hawk

d)

Mushroom

108.

Energy flow ends with which of the following?

a)

Decomposers

b)

Oxygen cycle

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Plants

109.

Which of the following is also known as the hydrologic cycle?

a)

Water cycle

b)

Carbon cycle

c)

Oxygen cycle

d)

Nitrogen cycle

110.

Which of the following best describes chlorophyll?

a)

Green pigment in plants which absorbs light

b)

The plants found in an area

c)

The envelope of gases surrounding the earth

d)

Any living organism

111.

Which of the following does NOT influence an organism’s niche?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Competition with other species

c)

Parasitism

d)

Mutualism

112.

What is the smallest ecological level?

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

113.

Where is the phosphorus cycle primarily conducted?

a)

In soil and plants

b)

In water and atmosphere

c)

In air and volcanoes

d)

In volcanoes and lightning

114.

A freshwater ecosystem has a salt content over 0.5 ppt.

a)

False

b)

True

115.

True or false: A mountain is a biome.

a)

False

b)

True

116.

Which of the following describes transpiration?

a)

When plants release water vapor during photosynthesis and respiration

b)

When consumers release carbon dioxide for photosynthesis

c)

The transformation of water to gas when reaching the boiling point

d)

When producers release atmospheric carbon for photosynthesis

117.

Which of the following does NOT conduct nitrogen fixation?

a)

Humans

b)

Peanuts

c)

Algae

d)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

118.

A nutrient is a chemical substance required by an organism for growth, reproduction, and maintenance.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Which is not a wetland biome?

a)

Tropical

b)

Fen

c)

Bog

d)

Marsh

120.

Which of the following is a living organism that produces food or biomass through photosynthesis?

a)

Producer

b)

Niche

c)

Tertiary consumer

d)

Consumer

121.

At what level does a food chain start?

a)

Producer

b)

Secondary consumer

c)

Apex predator

d)

Secondary producer

122.

Which of the following best describes the Farm Bill?

a)

Incentives provided to landowners to conserve grassland habitats

b)

Contract requiring proof of conservation practices from landowners with a set acreage

c)

Enables the federal government to fund grazing programs to improve and manage rangelands

d)

Special tax farmers must pay each year that goes toward conservation

123.

Why do temperate grasslands have the most fertile soil on earth?

a)

Deep-rooted grasses add abundant organic matter as they die back seasonally, and periodic fires and low rainfall limit nutrient loss

b)

Constant heavy rainfall leaches nutrients from the soil, concentrating them near the surface

c)

Frequent flooding deposits large amounts of salt, increasing soil fertility

d)

High tree density leads to rapid nutrient uptake and storage in woody biomass

124.

What percentage of the proceeds from the Duck Stamp Act is provided for wetland and waterfowl habitat acquisition?

a)

98

b)

50

c)

75

d)

90

125.

Which of the following is the specific mission of the Natural Resources Conservation Service?

a)

To conserve soils for agricultural production

b)

To keep grasslands in their condition and not allow trees and invasive species after the land

c)

To enforce the Farm Bill

d)

To improve water resources on grasslands

126.

Which of the following is NOT a type of grassland?

a)

Deciduous

b)

Savanna

c)

Temperate

d)

Montane

127.

Which of the following agricultural practices ensures an area is NOT overgrazed by moving cattle from pasture to pasture?

a)

Rotational grazing

b)

Tactile grazing

c)

Set stocking Continuous grazing

d)

Continuous grazing

128.

Some climate scientists even believe grasslands may be more efficient and reliable at removing carbon from the atmosphere than forests, because grasslands are more resilient after fires and drought.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

129.

How much of the earth’s land surface is covered with grasslands?

a)

20 to 40 percent

b)

10 to 19 percent

c)

40 to 45 percent

d)

20 to 30 percent

130.

What percentage of grasslands are currently protected?

a)

Less than eight

b)

Less than two

c)

Less than six

d)

Less than three

131.

Tillage is primarily used for which of the following?

a)

Control weeds and aerate soil

b)

Move cattle from one pasture to another

c)

To prepare the grasslands for intentional burning

d)

To harvest the crops

132.

Which of the following does NOT prevent woody vegetation like shrubs and trees from thriving?

a)

Use of pesticides

b)

Fire

c)

Grazing

d)

Drought

133.

Grasslands can be found on every continent EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

Antartica

b)

South America

c)

Austrialia

d)

Asia

134.

Which of the following is NOT a main threat which plagues grasslands today?

a)

Lasting effects from Dust Bowl

b)

Urbanization

c)

Unsustainable agriculture

d)

Climate change

135.

Most grasslands are publicly owned.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

136.

Cattle may decimate vegetation through overgrazing and their heavy hooves compact soil leading to erosion and loss of sod.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

137.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why cover crops are important?

a)

Provides shade to the main crops

b)

Increases water retention

c)

Prevents soil erosion Provides habitat for spiders to eat crop pests

d)

Provides habitat for spiders to eat crop pests

138.

When topsoil is lost, the loss is fairly permanent because the process to create just three centimeters of topsoil takes about 1,000 years

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

139.

Why is fire considered a common management practice?

a)

Suppresses invasive species such as shrubs and trees

b)

Fire is not a common management practice and should be avoided

c)

Fire burns and removes topsoil so more fertile soil will be available

d)

Teaches grazing animals to stay away from specific areas

140.

The Dust Bowl lasted how many years?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

12

d)

11

141.

Which of the following qualities determines if an area should be considered a grassland?

a)

Amount of precipitation

b)

Location

c)

Amount of stored carbon in soil

d)

Height of plants

142.

Where are savannas typically found?

a)

Africa, Australia and South America

b)

Europe and North America

c)

Higher altitudes

d)

South of the Tropic of Capricorn

143.

Which of the following limits the biodiversity of grasslands?

a)

Farming a single variation of a crop

b)

Grazing animals

c)

Pesticides and fertilizers

d)

Loss of topsoil

144.

Grasslands typically exist between which of the following?

a)

Forest and desert

b)

Fire-prone areas and areas of urbanization

c)

Wetlands and deserts

d)

Shrubland and desert

145.

Which of the following services was formed by the federal government due to the Dust Bowl?

a)

Soil Conservation Service

b)

Granger-Thye Service

c)

Land and Water Conservation Service

d)

Duck Stamp Service

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