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Hematologic Emergencies Practice Questions (Set 3, Part 1)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most common cause of acute blood loss anemia in trauma patients is:

a)

Hemoglobinopathy

b)

Bone marrow suppression

c)

Internal or external hemorrhage

d)

IMHA

2.

A hallmark sign of regenerative anemia is:

a)

Increased reticulocytes

b)

Decreased reticulocytes

c)

Absence of polychromasia

d)

Decreased bilirubin

3.

Which is NOT part of the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor XI

c)

Factor VIII

d)

Factor VII

4.

Patients with thrombocytopenia may show:

a)

Only internal hemorrhage

b)

Hematuria only

c)

Surface bleeding such as petechiae

d)

No clinical signs

5.

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMT) leads to:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Excess WBC destruction

c)

Excess platelet destruction

d)

Excess RBC destruction

6.

Secondary hemostasis defects typically cause:

a)

Petechiae

b)

Large cavity bleeds

c)

Nail bed hemorrhage only

d)

No visible bleeding

7.

A platelet transfusion is most indicated when:

a)

Fibrinogen is high

b)

PT is prolonged only

c)

Platelet count < 20,000 and active bleeding

d)

PCV is low

8.

The amplification phase of coagulation involves:

a)

RBC agglutination

b)

Platelet activation and factor release

c)

Leukocyte adhesion

d)

Vasoconstriction

9.

Carboxyhemoglobinemia results in:

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

A low MCV anemia suggests:

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

IMHA

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Bone marrow neoplasia

11.

A high MCHC is commonly associated with:

a)

Lipemia

b)

Laboratory error or hemolysis

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Dehydration

12.

A normal activated clotting time (ACT) rule-out helps exclude:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Intrinsic pathway defects

c)

Extrinsic pathway defects

d)

Platelet disorders

13.

Vitamin K therapy is required for:

a)

Thrombocytosis

b)

DIC treatment

c)

Rodenticide toxicity

d)

IMHA

14.

Prolonged PT and aPTT together indicate:

a)

Platelet dysfunction

b)

Global coagulation defect

c)

Hypercoagulability

d)

Normal hemostasis

15.

A nonregenerative anemia lasting longer than 5 days indicates dysfunction in:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Stomach

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidneys only

16.

PLR requires intact:

a)

Retina, optic nerve, midbrain

b)

Eyelids only

c)

Cornea only

d)

Lens

17.

Lack of menace but intact PLR suggests:

a)

Optic nerve dysfunction

b)

Cortical blindness

c)

Retinal detachment

d)

Glaucoma

18.

A superficial ulcer best appears under fluorescein as:

a)

Blue streaks

b)

Dull red stain

c)

Bright green stain

d)

No staining

19.

Deep stromal ulcers often require:

a)

Aggressive medical therapy or grafting

b)

Artificial tears only

c)

E-collar alone

d)

No treatment

20.

A common presenting complaint in dogs with acute glaucoma:

a)

Squinting, red eye, fixed dilated pupil

b)

Mild blepharospasm only

c)

Cloudy discharge only

d)

Excessive tearing only

21.

A patient with acute lens luxation may show:

a)

Deep anterior chamber

b)

Retinal bleeding

c)

Aphakic crescent

d)

Proptosis

22.

A hallmark sign of retrobulbar abscess is:

a)

Severe pain when opening mouth

b)

Blepharitis only

c)

Blindness

d)

No pain on opening mouth

23.

Treatment for melting ulcers includes:

a)

Mydriatics only

b)

No medication

c)

Anticollagenases such as serum or EDTA

d)

Steroids

24.

Aqueous flare is seen in:

a)

SARD

b)

Uveitis

c)

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

d)

Cataracts

25.

Tonometry is contraindicated in:

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Corneal ulcer with risk of perforation

c)

SARD

d)

Uveitis

26.

Pupil dilation that does not respond to light suggests:

a)

SARD

b)

Lens opacity

c)

Uveitis

d)

Acute glaucoma

27.

Retinal detachment may produce:

a)

Painful eye

b)

No menace response

c)

Normal vision

d)

Miotic pupil

28.

A dog with sudden blindness and normal fundus should undergo:

a)

Nasolacrimal flush

b)

Tear testing

c)

PT/PTT

d)

ERG testing

29.

Birds often develop ocular disease secondary to:

a)

Excessive grooming

b)

Trauma or infection

c)

Flea infestation

d)

Hypertension only

30.

The most common location for a foreign body in the eye:

a)

Retina

b)

Under third eyelid

c)

Lens

d)

Optic nerve

31.

The first step in neurologic assessment is:

a)

Mentation evaluation

b)

Gait analysis

c)

Spinal reflexes

d)

PLR

32.

Proprioceptive deficits indicate:

a)

Kidney disease

b)

Neurologic dysfunction in spinal cord or brain

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Hypoglycemia

33.

A generalized seizure involves:

a)

One limb only

b)

Entire body

c)

Only facial twitching

d)

Only vocalization

34.

A focal seizure may involve:

a)

Staring or fly biting

b)

Whole body paddling

c)

Collapse

d)

Immediate coma

35.

A dog in status epilepticus is at risk for:

a)

Slow heart rate only

b)

No complications

c)

Hyperthermia & brain damage

d)

Hypothermia

36.

Vestibular disease hallmark:

a)

Tetany

b)

Blindness

c)

Head tilt

d)

Fever

37.

Central vestibular disease differs from peripheral by:

a)

Vertical nystagmus possible

b)

Normal proprioception

c)

Ear infection always present

d)

Head tilt absent

38.

Dogs with strokes typically:

a)

Decline for weeks

b)

Begin improving within 72 hours

c)

Require immediate surgery

d)

Become comatose

39.

Schiff-Sherrington posture indicates:

a)

Rabies

b)

Brain tumor

c)

Severe spinal cord injury

d)

Metabolic disease

40.

Myasthenia gravis most commonly results in:

a)

Aggression

b)

Painful limbs

c)

Exercise intolerance and collapse

d)

Blindness

41.

Tick paralysis leads to:

a)

Hyperactivity

b)

Ascending paralysis

c)

Seizures

d)

Blindness

42.

Botulism causes:

a)

Fever

b)

Ascending paralysis

c)

Descending paralysis

d)

Only GI signs

43.

Head trauma secondary injury includes:

a)
b)
c)

Hypoxia, inflammation, edema

d)

,

e)

Skull fracture

44.

A dog with severe traumatic brain injury may show:

a)

Red eyes only

b)

Normal mentation

c)

Altered consciousness

d)

Hyperreflexia only

45.

Rabies diagnosis requires:

a)

Blood test

b)

Tear test

c)

Post-mortem brain testing

d)

Urine analysis

46.

Lack of deep pain in spinal injury:

a)

Is a good prognostic sign

b)

Suggests poor prognosis

c)

Suggests mild injury

d)

Indicates vestibular disease

47.

A dog with megaesophagus shows:

a)

Seizures

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Vomiting

d)

Regurgitation

48.

A normal PLR but no menace suggests:

a)

Optic nerve rupture

b)

Cortical blindness

c)

Lens luxation

d)

Glaucoma

49.

Cervical pain with fever suggests:

a)

Stroke

b)

Meningitis

c)

Botulism

d)

Vestibular disease

50.

A patient with wide-based stance likely has:

a)

Vestibular disease

b)

Cerebellar dysfunction

c)

IMHA

d)

Thrombocytopenia