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Blailock's Pharm Pt 2 Practice Quiz

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

a)

Inhibition of beta-adrenergic receptors

b)

Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2)

c)

Activation of opioid receptors

d)

Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme

2.

Which side effect is most commonly associated with opioid analgesics?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Constipation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Polyuria

3.

Which of the following is a primary indication for beta blocker therapy?

a)

Asthma

b)

Hypertension

c)

Peptic ulcer disease

d)

Hyperthyroidism

4.

Which laboratory value should be closely monitored in a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

International Normalized Ratio (INR)

c)

Serum potassium

d)

White blood cell count

5.

Which class of diuretics is most likely to cause hypokalemia?

a)

Thiazide diuretics

b)

Potassium-sparing diuretics

c)

Osmotic diuretics

d)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

6.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

a)

Tendon rupture

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hearing loss

7.

Which NSAID is known for having the highest risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Acetaminophen

8.

Which symptom should a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving opioid analgesics?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Hypertension

d)

Polyuria

9.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for beta blocker use?

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Heart failure

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

10.

Which test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy?

a)

INR

b)

aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)

c)

Platelet count

d)

Serum creatinine

11.

A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

12.

Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient starting a thiazide diuretic?

a)

Increase potassium-rich foods in your diet

b)

Avoid all dairy products

c)

Take the medication at bedtime

d)

Restrict fluid intake to less than 500 mL/day

13.

A patient taking NSAIDs reports new onset of black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Reassure the patient this is a common side effect

b)

Advise the patient to stop the NSAID and notify the healthcare provider

c)

Instruct the patient to increase fluid intake

d)

Suggest taking the NSAID with food

14.

A patient on opioid analgesics becomes drowsy and difficult to arouse. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Administer naloxone as prescribed

b)

Encourage the patient to ambulate

c)

Offer the patient food

d)

Increase the opioid dose

15.

A patient is prescribed a beta blocker for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I will not stop taking this medication abruptly.”

b)

“I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.”

c)

“I can stop this medication if I feel dizzy.”

d)

“I will report any shortness of breath to my provider.”

16.

A patient on warfarin therapy asks about dietary restrictions. Which food should the nurse advise the patient to consume consistently?

a)

Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables

b)

Foods high in calcium, such as dairy products

c)

Foods high in sodium, such as processed meats

d)

Foods high in iron, such as red meat

17.

A patient is prescribed furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the patient education?

a)

Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness

b)

Avoid all potassium-rich foods

c)

Take the medication at night

d)

Restrict all fluids

18.

A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which symptom should prompt the patient to contact their healthcare provider immediately?

a)

Mild headache

b)

Sudden pain or swelling in the Achilles tendon

c)

Mild nausea

d)

Increased appetite

19.

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed an NSAID. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

Instruct the patient to take the NSAID with food

b)

Suggest switching to acetaminophen

c)

Encourage increased fluid intake

d)

Advise taking the NSAID on an empty stomach

20.

A patient on opioid therapy develops respiratory depression. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Vitamin K

21.

A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

a)

INR is within the therapeutic range

b)

Platelet count is elevated

c)

Blood pressure is decreased

d)

Heart rate is regular

22.

A patient taking a loop diuretic reports muscle weakness and cramping. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hyperglycemia

23.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a beta blocker. Which comorbidity would require the nurse to question the order?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Asthma

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Hyperlipidemia

24.

A patient on heparin therapy develops a sudden drop in platelet count. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

b)

Increase the heparin dose

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Administer vitamin K

25.

A patient is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to prevent complications?

a)

Serum potassium

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Serum calcium

d)

White blood cell count

26.

A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The patient’s INR is 5.0. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Hold the next dose and notify the healthcare provider

b)

Administer an extra dose of warfarin

c)

Encourage the patient to eat more leafy greens

d)

Continue the current dose

27.

A patient on opioid analgesics is at risk for falls. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce this risk?

a)

Keep the bed in the lowest position and ensure call light is within reach

b)

Encourage the patient to ambulate independently

c)

Restrict all fluids

d)

Place the patient in a room far from the nurse’s station

28.

A patient is prescribed a beta blocker and reports new onset of wheezing and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider

b)

Encourage deep breathing exercises

c)

Administer the next dose as scheduled

d)

Advise the patient to drink more fluids

29.

A patient on anticoagulant therapy is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action regarding the medication?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider to discuss holding the anticoagulant before surgery

b)

Double the dose before surgery

c)

Continue the medication as usual

d)

Switch to a beta blocker

30.

A patient taking a diuretic develops signs of dehydration. Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis?

a)

Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor

b)

Bradycardia and hypertension

c)

Edema and weight gain

d)

Increased urine output and moist skin

31.

Joshua is receiving furosemide and Digoxin, which laboratory data would be the most important to assess in planning the care for the client?

a)

Sodium level

b)

Magnesium level

c)

Calcium level

d)

Potassium level

32.

Which of the following is the most important physical assessment parameter the nurse would consider when assessing fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

a)

Intake and output

b)

Skin turgor

c)

Cardiac rate and rhythm

d)

Osmotic pressure

33.

Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to assess in a patient with hypokalemia?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

pH below 7.35

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypertension

34.

The nurse is caring for a client with a blood K+ of 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor for which of the following manifestations?

a)

ECG changes

b)

Constipation

c)

Polyuria

d)

Muscle hypertonicity

35.

A patient with a low normal potassium level has 40 mg IV furosemide due, what should the nurse do?

a)

Notify the physician

b)

Recheck potassium in 4 hours

c)

Administer as ordered

d)

Encourage pt to eat a banana with lunch

36.

A patient's K+ is 6.4, what should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer 1 gram Mg IVPB

b)

Place patient on cardiac monitor

c)

Turn on bed alarm

d)

Call for stat dialysis

37.

Which of the following is an anticoagulant medication?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Warfarin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Amlodipine

38.

Which of the following medications is a beta blocker?

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Enalapril

c)

Atenolol

d)

Losartan

39.

Which class of medications is commonly used to prevent blood clots?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

40.

A patient who has been taking a thiazide diuretic is hypokalemic. The nurse should instruct the patient to increase dietary intake of which foods?

a)

green leafy vegetables.

b)

canned vegetables

c)

low fat dairy products

d)

bananas and citrus fruits.

41.

A geriatric patient with a history of kidney disease develops increasing bilateral edema in the legs and feet. The health care provider has ordered a potassium-sparing diuretic. Select the diurectic action of this medication.

a)

The medication should increase reabsorption of sodium and potassium.

b)

The medication should decrease sodium transport and increase potassium.

c)

The medication should excrete water and sodium but save potassium.

d)

The medication should excrete potassium and save water and sodium.

42.

When administering loop diuretic, what electrolyte replacement should be supplemented?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Calcium

d)

Potassium

43.

Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

a)

acetazolamide (Diamox)

b)

spironolactone (Aldactone)

c)

furosemide (Lasix)

d)

bumetanide (Bumex)

44.

The nurse has provided patient teaching about potassium-sparing diuretic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I will take my medication in the morning.”

b)

“I will report a weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days.”

c)

“I will rise slowly when I get up from a sitting position.”

d)

“I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake.”

45.

Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic?

a)

Crackles in the lung bases

b)

+2 pitting peripheral edema

c)

Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L

d)

Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days

46.

Beta blockers can mask which condition?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypernatremia

47.

A patient with which condition should avoid non-selective beta blockers?

a)

Heart Failure

b)

COPD

c)

Stroke

d)

A-fib

48.

A 56 year old male patient is prescribed Ciprofloxacin, a quinolone, for a complicated UTI. The nurse reviews patient education, which includes the following:

a)

You may discontinue the antibiotic once your symptoms have resolved

b)

Avoid strenuous activity while on the prescribed antibiotic therapy

c)

Monitor your blood sugars daily

d)

You may take the antibiotic at the same time with OTC calcium supplements