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Health Psychology Quiz

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary focus of health psychology?

a)

To study the biological factors influencing health and illness.

b)

To use cognitive and behavioral principles to prevent and treat illness and promote well-being.

c)

To focus solely on the medical model of health.

d)

To study the effects of medication on chronic diseases.

2.

Which model do most American psychologists prefer over the medical model?

a)

Biopsychosocial model.

b)

Behavioral model.

c)

Cognitive model.

d)

Biological model.

3.

Which of the following is NOT a biological factor influencing health?

a)

Genetic factors.

b)

The immune system.

c)

Social networks.

d)

The cardiovascular system.

4.

What personality type is associated with a high risk for heart attack?

a)

Type A personality.

b)

Type B personality.

c)

Hardy personality.

d)

Introverted personality.

5.

What is a key characteristic of individuals with a hardy personality?

a)

They are highly competitive and achievement-oriented.

b)

They harbor feelings of anger and hostility.

c)

They are optimistic and happy, with superior stress resistance.

d)

They are unlikely to have a heart attack.

6.

Which of the following is a social factor that influences health?

a)

The nervous system.

b)

Social networks.

c)

Genetic factors.

d)

The cardiovascular system.

7.

What is one strategy to minimize behavioral risk factors?

a)

Increasing the use of medication.

b)

Making lifestyle changes.

c)

Avoiding social interactions.

d)

Focusing solely on genetic factors.

8.

What is the purpose of refusal skills training?

a)

To teach people how to avoid social networks.

b)

To help people resist pressures to engage in risky behaviors.

c)

To promote the medical model of health.

d)

To increase feelings of anger and hostility.

9.

What is a stressor?

a)

A condition or event that challenges or threatens a person

b)

A type of hormone released during stress

c)

A method of stress reduction

d)

A type of psychological disorder

10.

What are the two classes of stressors mentioned in the text?

a)

Life events and hassles

b)

Physical stress and emotional stress

c)

Acute stress and chronic stress

d)

Internal stress and external stress

11.

What does the Social Readjustment Rating Scale measure?

a)

The impact of various life events on the likelihood of illness

b)

The level of stress hormones in the body

c)

The effectiveness of stress management techniques

d)

The severity of psychosomatic disorders

12.

What is the primary focus of primary appraisals in stress?

a)

Deciding if a situation is relevant to oneself and if it is a threat

b)

Determining how to cope with a threat or challenge

c)

Measuring the level of stress hormones in the body

d)

Identifying the physical symptoms of stress

13.

What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

a)

Alarm reaction, stage of resistance, stage of exhaustion

b)

Stress reaction, stress adaptation, stress resolution

c)

Primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, stress resolution

d)

Acute stress, chronic stress, post-stress recovery

14.

What is learned helplessness?

a)

A pattern of behavior where an organism shows resignation in the face of a situation it believes it cannot control

b)

A method of stress management that involves self-control

c)

A type of psychosomatic disorder caused by stress

d)

A stage in the General Adaptation Syndrome

15.

Which of the following is NOT a common psychosomatic problem caused by stress?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Migraine headaches

c)

Skin problems

d)

Diabetes

16.

What is the purpose of mastery training in overcoming learned helplessness?

a)

To reinforce responses that lead to mastery of a threat or control over one's environment

b)

To reduce the physical symptoms of stress

c)

To eliminate the need for primary and secondary appraisals

d)

To increase the production of stress hormones

17.

What is burnout, and who is particularly vulnerable to it?

a)

A condition of physical exhaustion, particularly affecting athletes

b)

A work-related condition of mental, physical, and emotional exhaustion, particularly affecting college students

c)

A condition of emotional detachment, particularly affecting children

d)

A condition of reduced personal accomplishment, particularly affecting retirees

18.

What does complementary and alternative medicine emphasize?

a)

The use of only pharmaceutical drugs

b)

Attention to the mind, spirit, environment, and body

c)

The importance of surgery and medical procedures

d)

The avoidance of all medical treatments

19.

Which of the following is an example of complementary and alternative medicine?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Acupuncture

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Vaccination

20.

What is problem-focused coping most useful for?

a)

Managing uncontrollable stressors

b)

Managing controllable stressors

c)

Avoiding stress altogether

d)

Ignoring the problem at hand

21.

Which coping strategy involves changing emotional reactions to minimize distress?

a)

Problem-focused coping

b)

Emotion-focused coping

c)

Relationship-focused coping

d)

Avoidance-focused coping

22.

What is relationship-focused coping?

a)

Using relationships to manage stressful situations

b)

Avoiding relationships to reduce stress

c)

Ignoring social support during stress

d)

Focusing on personal achievements to reduce stress

23.

What are traumatic stresses?

a)

Minor daily inconveniences

b)

Extreme events causing psychological injury or emotional pain

c)

Situations that only affect physical health

d)

Stressors that are always controllable

24.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for coping with traumatic stresses?

a)

Demonstrating empathy

b)

Working toward compromise

c)

Ignoring the problem

d)

Providing social support

25.

What is acculturative stress caused by?

a)

Changes and adaptations required when moving to a foreign culture

b)

Lack of sleep and poor diet

c)

Overworking and lack of exercise

d)

Financial difficulties and unemployment

26.

Which pattern of acculturation involves maintaining your old cultural identity while participating in the new culture?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Integration

c)

Marginalization

d)

Separation

27.

What is a typical reaction to acculturative stress?

a)

Increased energy levels

b)

Anxiety and depression

c)

Improved physical health

d)

Enhanced memory

28.

Which acculturation pattern is most likely to result in high stress levels?

a)

Integration

b)

Assimilation

c)

Marginalization

d)

Separation

29.

What is a good problem-focused coping strategy for dealing with college blues?

a)

Writing down self-critical thoughts

b)

Making a daily schedule and taking small steps

c)

Seeking social support

d)

Avoiding academic responsibilities

30.

What is the focus of emotion-focused coping strategies?

a)

Seeking professional help

b)

Writing down negative thoughts and rationalizing them

c)

Avoiding the source of stress

d)

Improving physical fitness

31.

What is the primary goal of stress management?

a)

To eliminate all stress from life

b)

To apply cognitive and behavioral strategies to reduce stress

c)

To ignore stress and focus on other tasks

d)

To increase stress to improve performance

32.

Which coping strategy involves seeking social support?

a)

Problem-focused coping

b)

Emotion-focused coping

c)

Relationship-focused coping

d)

Avoidance-focused coping

33.

What does the assimilation pattern of acculturation involve?

a)

Maintaining your old cultural identity and avoiding the new culture

b)

Adopting the new culture as your own while avoiding your old cultural identity

c)

Rejecting both old and new cultures

d)

Balancing both old and new cultural identities

34.

What is a key element in recovery from traumatic events?

a)

Avoiding others

b)

Getting support from others

c)

Ignoring the situation

d)

Focusing solely on work

35.

Which of the following is NOT a bodily reaction to stress?

a)

Tight muscles

b)

Shallow breathing

c)

Excessive body awareness

d)

Poor digestion

36.

What is one method to manage bodily reactions to stress?

a)

Avoiding social interactions

b)

Progressive relaxation

c)

Ignoring the stress

d)

Overworking yourself

37.

Which of the following is an example of an ineffective behavior caused by stress?

a)

Meditation

b)

Being too fast-paced

c)

Guided imagery

d)

Writing about your feelings

38.

What is stress inoculation?

a)

A method of avoiding stress entirely

b)

A way of combating negative self-statements with positive coping statements

c)

A technique to increase stress levels for better performance

d)

A method of ignoring stress-related thoughts

39.

What percentage of American adults suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder in any given year?

a)

10%

b)

18%

c)

25%

d)

30%

40.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors to consider when deciding whether a behavior is 'abnormal'?

a)

Statistical abnormality

b)

Social nonconformity

c)

Subjective discomfort

d)

Physical appearance

41.

What does maladaptive behavior refer to?

a)

Extreme scores on some dimension

b)

Failure to conform to societal norms

c)

Dysfunction that makes it difficult to meet day-to-day demands

d)

Private feelings of pain or unhappiness

42.

What is the definition of subjective discomfort in the context of psychopathology?

a)

Abnormality defined on the basis of extreme scores

b)

Failure to conform to societal norms

c)

Private feelings of pain, unhappiness, or emotional distress

d)

Dysfunction that makes it difficult to meet daily demands

43.

Which term refers to failure to conform to societal norms or minimum standards of social conduct?

a)

Statistical abnormality

b)

Social nonconformity

c)

Subjective discomfort

d)

Maladaptive behavior

44.

What is the most recent version of the manual used to classify mental disorders?

a)

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (5th Edition)

b)

International Classification of Diseases (10th Edition)

c)

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (4th Edition)

d)

International Classification of Diseases (9th Edition)

45.

What does the term "comorbid" mean in the context of mental disorders?

a)

Suffering from a single mental disorder

b)

Suffering from more than one mental disorder at a time

c)

A mental disorder that is untreatable

d)

A mental disorder caused by physical illness

46.

What are the two main categories of underlying causes of mental illnesses mentioned in the text?

a)

Biological and psychosocial

b)

Genetic and environmental

c)

Physical and emotional

d)

Neurological and psychological

47.

Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial factor contributing to mental illness?

a)

Organic brain damage

b)

Stressful living conditions

c)

Congenital brain abnormalities

d)

Damage to the nervous system

48.

What model is used to generally understand the underlying causes of mental disorders?

a)

Stress-Vulnerability Model

b)

Cognitive-Behavioral Model

c)

Psychoanalytic Model

d)

Neurobiological Model

49.

What is psychosis characterized by?

a)

Loss of contact with shared views of reality

b)

Physical symptoms like headaches and fatigue

c)

A single, specific mental disorder

d)

Improved emotional regulation

50.

Which type of delusional disorder involves the false belief that you are loved by another person, usually someone famous or of higher status?

a)

Grandiose Type

b)

Erotomanic Type

c)

Persecutory Type

d)

Jealous Type

51.

What is the defining characteristic of the Grandiose Type of delusional disorder?

a)

Belief that your spouse is unfaithful

b)

Belief that you are being conspired against

c)

Belief in having a special talent or relationship with God

d)

Belief that your body is diseased or infested

52.

Which delusional disorder involves the false belief that you are being conspired against, cheated, or harassed?

a)

Jealous Type

b)

Persecutory Type

c)

Somatic Type

d)

Erotomanic Type

53.

What is the main symptom of the Jealous Type of delusional disorder?

a)

Belief that your spouse or lover is unfaithful

b)

Belief that you are loved by someone famous

c)

Belief that you have a special talent

d)

Belief that your body is diseased

54.

Which delusional disorder involves the false belief that your body is diseased, rotting, or infested with parasites?

a)

Somatic Type

b)

Grandiose Type

c)

Persecutory Type

d)

Erotomanic Type

55.

What is a key characteristic of schizophrenia?

a)

Sudden but short-lived loss of contact with reality

b)

Disturbances in thoughts, emotions, and behavior leading to personality disintegration

c)

False belief that you are being conspired against

d)

Chronic feelings of sadness and hopelessness

56.

What is a defining feature of Brief Psychotic Disorder?

a)

Chronic feelings of sadness

b)

False belief in having a special talent

c)

Sudden but short-lived loss of contact with reality

d)

Belief that your body is diseased

57.

What is a common characteristic of mood disorders?

a)

False beliefs about reality

b)

Unusual disturbances in emotions

c)

Sudden loss of memory

d)

Hallucinations and paranoia

58.

Which mood disorder is characterized by feeling down and depressed more days than not, with low self-esteem and energy levels for many months?

a)

Major Depressive Disorder

b)

Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)

c)

Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)

d)

Cyclothymic Disorder

59.

What is a key characteristic of Major Depressive Disorder?

a)

Experiencing emotional ups and downs for many months

b)

Feeling extremely sad, worthless, fatigued, and having thoughts of suicide

c)

Feeling unusually good, cheerful, and energetic most of the time

d)

Feeling low energy and socially withdrawn during fall and winter months

60.

Which mood disorder is associated with low energy, sadness, and social withdrawal during the fall and winter months?

a)

Bipolar I Disorder

b)

Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)

c)

Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)

d)

Cyclothymic Disorder

61.

What is a defining feature of Cyclothymic Disorder?

a)

Alternating periods of depression and mania

b)

Experiencing upsetting emotional ups and downs for many months

c)

Feeling extremely sad and having thoughts of suicide

d)

Feeling low energy and socially withdrawn during specific seasons

62.

Which mood disorder involves alternating periods of extreme sadness and worthlessness with unusually high energy and cheerfulness?

a)

Bipolar I Disorder

b)

Bipolar II Disorder

c)

Cyclothymic Disorder

d)

Major Depressive Disorder

63.

What is a characteristic of Bipolar I Disorder?

a)

Feeling low energy and socially withdrawn during fall and winter months

b)

Having little need for sleep, racing thoughts, and alternating periods of extreme sadness and worthlessness

c)

Feeling down and depressed more days than not for many months

d)

Experiencing emotional ups and downs for many months

64.

Which type of personality disorder is characterized by deep distrust of others and suspicion of their motives, which are perceived as insulting or threatening?

a)

Schizoid

b)

Paranoid

c)

Histrionic

d)

Avoidant

65.

What is a key characteristic of someone with a schizoid personality disorder?

a)

They are dramatic and flamboyant.

b)

They feel very little emotion and cannot form close personal relationships.

c)

They are extremely sensitive to criticism and rejection.

d)

They are timid and uncomfortable in social situations.

66.

Which personality disorder involves engaging in extremely odd behavior and having bizarre thought patterns, but not being actively psychotic?

a)

Schizotypal

b)

Narcissistic

c)

Antisocial

d)

Borderline

67.

What is a defining feature of antisocial personality disorder?

a)

Exaggerating emotions to gain attention.

b)

Lack of guilt or remorse and engaging in reckless or deceitful behaviors.

c)

Being timid and uncomfortable in social situations.

d)

Feeling very little emotion and avoiding personal relationships.

68.

Which personality disorder is associated with erratic self-image, moods, and impulses, along with extreme sensitivity to criticism or rejection?

a)

Borderline

b)

Avoidant

c)

Schizoid

d)

Histrionic

69.

What is a common trait of someone with histrionic personality disorder?

a)

They are dramatic and flamboyant, exaggerating emotions to gain attention.

b)

They are deeply distrustful of others and suspicious of their motives.

c)

They feel very little emotion and avoid personal relationships.

d)

They are timid and fear evaluation in social situations.

70.

Which personality disorder involves thinking of oneself as wonderful, brilliant, and worthy of constant admiration?

a)

Narcissistic

b)

Schizotypal

c)

Paranoid

d)

Antisocial

71.

What is a key characteristic of avoidant personality disorder?

a)

Being dramatic and flamboyant.

b)

Being timid and uncomfortable in social situations, fearing evaluation.

c)

Engaging in antisocial behaviors like aggression and deceit.

d)

Having bizarre thought patterns but not being psychotic.

72.

Which of the following is a characteristic of someone with a dependent personality disorder?

a)

They demand order, perfection, and rigid routine at all times.

b)

They lack confidence and rely excessively on others.

c)

They experience sudden panic attacks and fear public places.

d)

They intensely fear leaving their home due to embarrassment.

73.

What is a defining trait of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

a)

Intense fear of leaving home due to embarrassment.

b)

Excessive worry and anxiety for six months or more.

c)

A demand for order, perfection, and rigid routine.

d)

Sudden panic attacks and fear of public places.

74.

What is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Intense fear of leaving home due to embarrassment.

b)

Constant anxiety for six months, accompanied by symptoms like sweating and poor concentration.

c)

Sudden panic attacks with chest tightness and dizziness.

d)

Fear of losing control in public places.

75.

Which anxiety disorder is characterized by sudden panic attacks and fear of public places?

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder.

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c)

Panic disorder.

d)

Agoraphobia.

76.

What is a key characteristic of agoraphobia?

a)

Fear of losing control in public places.

b)

Intense fear of leaving home due to embarrassment.

c)

Constant worry and poor concentration for six months.

d)

A demand for perfection and rigid routine.

77.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of panic disorder?

a)

Chest tightness and dizziness.

b)

Racing heart and trembling.

c)

Fear of leaving home due to embarrassment.

d)

Feelings of unreality and choking.

78.

How long must symptoms persist to diagnose generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

One month.

b)

Three months.

c)

Six months.

d)

Twelve months.

79.

Which anxiety-related disorder is characterized by an intense fear of particular objects, activities, or locations that may lead to overwhelming fear, vomiting, running, or fainting?

a)

Social Anxiety Disorder

b)

Specific Phobia

c)

Adjustment Disorder

d)

Acute Stress Disorder

80.

What is the primary characteristic of Social Anxiety Disorder?

a)

Fear of specific objects or locations

b)

Intense fear of social situations where people can watch, criticize, embarrass, or humiliate you

c)

Difficulty throwing things away

d)

Anxiety triggered by a normal life event

81.

Which disorder involves repetitive thoughts that make you extremely nervous and rigidly repeating certain actions or routines?

a)

Hoarding Disorder

b)

Adjustment Disorder

c)

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

d)

Acute Stress Disorder

82.

What is a key characteristic of Hoarding Disorder?

a)

Fear of social situations

b)

Difficulty giving or throwing things away

c)

Anxiety caused by a life event

d)

Emotional aftereffects of a horrible event

83.

Which disorder is triggered by a normal life event, such as job loss or divorce, and causes anxiety, apathy, and/or depression?

a)

Adjustment Disorder

b)

Acute Stress Disorder

c)

Social Anxiety Disorder

d)

Hoarding Disorder

84.

What is the primary characteristic of Acute Stress Disorder?

a)

Intense fear of specific objects

b)

Emotional aftereffects of extremely horrible events lasting less than a month

c)

Repetitive thoughts and rigid actions

d)

Anxiety caused by a normal life event

85.

What is the primary characteristic of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

a)

Preoccupation with bodily functions, illness, and disease.

b)

Torment for more than a month by emotional aftereffects of extremely horrible events.

c)

Deliberately faking medical problems to gain attention.

d)

Having two or more separate identities or personality states.

86.

Which disorder involves the inability to remember your name, address, or past, and may include sudden, unplanned trips in extreme cases?

a)

Dissociative Identity Disorder.

b)

Somatic Symptom Disorder.

c)

Dissociative Amnesia.

d)

Conversion Disorder.

87.

What is a defining feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder?

a)

Preoccupation with illness and disease.

b)

Having two or more separate identities or personality states.

c)

Faking medical problems to gain attention.

d)

Emotional torment from past traumatic events.

88.

Which disorder is characterized by preoccupation with bodily functions, illness, and disease?

a)

Somatic Symptom Disorder.

b)

Factitious Disorder.

c)

Conversion Disorder.

d)

Dissociative Amnesia.

89.

What is the primary characteristic of Factitious Disorder (Munchausen Syndrome)?

a)

Preoccupation with bodily functions and illness.

b)

Deliberately faking medical problems to gain attention.

c)

Emotional torment from past traumatic events.

d)

Having two or more separate identities.

90.

What does Conversion Disorder involve?

a)

Faking medical problems to gain attention.

b)

Converting severe emotional conflicts into symptoms resembling a physical disability.

c)

Preoccupation with illness and disease.

d)

Emotional torment from past traumatic events.

91.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), what percentage of the American population will be diagnosed with a mental health problem at some point in their lifetime?

a)

25%.

b)

50%.

c)

75%.

d)

10%.

92.

Why is it important to know what kind of help is available for mental health issues?

a)

Because mental health issues are rare and difficult to diagnose.

b)

Because approximately 50% of the American population will face a mental health problem in their lifetime.

c)

Because mental health issues only affect a small portion of the population.

d)

Because mental health problems are always temporary.

93.

What is the primary goal of psychotherapy?

a)

To facilitate positive changes in a person's personality, behavior, or adjustment.

b)

To diagnose physical illnesses.

c)

To prescribe medication for mental health issues.

d)

To conduct scientific experiments on human behavior.

94.

Who developed psychoanalysis, also known as the 'talking cure'?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Carl Jung

c)

B.F. Skinner

d)

Ivan Pavlov

95.

Which of the following is NOT a technique used in psychoanalysis?

a)

Free association

b)

Dream analysis

c)

Analysis of resistance

d)

Cognitive restructuring

96.

What is the purpose of free association in psychoanalysis?

a)

To encourage patients to say whatever comes to mind without censoring.

b)

To analyze the visible meaning of a dream.

c)

To block the flow of free association.

d)

To transfer feelings to the therapist.

97.

What distinguishes insight therapy from action therapy?

a)

Insight therapy focuses on deeper understanding, while action therapy focuses on direct changes in behavior.

b)

Insight therapy involves group sessions, while action therapy is individual.

c)

Insight therapy is directive, while action therapy is nondirective.

d)

Insight therapy is conducted face-to-face, while action therapy is conducted remotely.

98.

What is the key difference between nondirective and directive therapy?

a)

Nondirective therapy supports clients in gaining insight, while directive therapy involves the therapist leading clients with advice and guidance.

b)

Nondirective therapy is conducted in groups, while directive therapy is individual.

c)

Nondirective therapy is face-to-face, while directive therapy is remote.

d)

Nondirective therapy focuses on action, while directive therapy focuses on insight.

99.

What is the main characteristic of group therapy?

a)

It involves several clients participating at one time.

b)

It is conducted over the telephone or Internet.

c)

It focuses on dream analysis.

d)

It is always nondirective.